specimen procurement Flashcards

1
Q

royal blue tube additive

A

K2EDTA

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2
Q

light green tube is aka

A

PST (plasma separator tube)

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3
Q

pale yellow tube # of inversions

A

8 times

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4
Q

lavender/pink tube additive

A

EDTA

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5
Q

red glass tube # of inversions

A

0 (none)

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6
Q

Gold/SST tube is used to test for

A
  • routine chemistry
  • antibody studies
  • cross matching and blood typing
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7
Q

red tube department

A

toxicology

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8
Q

red plastic tube additive

A

prothrombin activator

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9
Q

how should a lancet be placed on fingerprint when doing dermal puncture

A

perpendicular to fingerprint

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10
Q

why is the first drop of blood wiped away when performing a dermal puncture

A

contains excess interstitial fluid

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11
Q

maximum lancet length used on a neonate heal? why?

A
  • 2.00mm

- avoids damage to calcaneal bone

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12
Q

how many hours can a fecal fat determination sample be collected for

A

24-72 hours

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13
Q

why are 3 specimens collected for

  • fecal culture and sensitivity specimen
  • ova and parasite specimen
  • fecal occult blood specimen
A

presence of bacteria may be sporatic

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14
Q

what does the Westergren Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate test for

A

inflammatory disorders

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15
Q

black tube ratio

A

1:4

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16
Q

light blue tube # of inversions

A

3-4 times

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17
Q

black tube additive

A

buffered sodium citrate

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18
Q

red tube is used to test for

A

prescription/illicit drugs

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19
Q

what additives are found in a light green tube

A
  • thixotropic gel

- heparin

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20
Q

what does HBA1c test for? goes to what department

A
  • sugars for past 3 months

- chemistry

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21
Q

what is pale yellow tube used to test for

A
  • paternity testing
  • HLA tissue typing
  • Canadian blood services transfusion bags
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22
Q

light blue tube used to test for

A
  • INR
  • PT
  • Aptt
  • FDP
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23
Q

green tube additive

A

heparin

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24
Q

black tube department

A

hematology

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25
Q

grey tube # of inversions

A

8 times

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26
Q

blood culture tubes come as a set. what are the names

A
  • aerobic (with oxygen)

- anaerobic (without oxygen)

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27
Q

green tube # of inversions

A

8 times

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28
Q

what tests would be performed on a semen specimen

A
  • fertility
  • infertility
  • vasectomy success
  • vasovasectomy success
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29
Q

light blue tube department

A

coagulation studies

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30
Q

bright yellow tube department

A

microbiology

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31
Q

light blue tube ration

A

1:9

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32
Q

what is NOT a valid reason for patient to refuse dermal puncture

A

afraid of needles

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33
Q

rule when using butterfly on light blue tube

A

use discard tube when this is the first tube

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34
Q

what is fecal occult blood specimen used to diagnose

A

colorectal cancer

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35
Q

temperature semen sample must be kept at until received at testing facility

A

body temp (37 degrees Celcius)

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36
Q

time frame semen sample must be received at testing facility

A

within 30 minutes of collection

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37
Q

1st choice for dermal puncture

A

middle finger

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38
Q

explain 24-hour urine process

A
  • choose start time, void 1st urine into toilet
  • collect all urine for 24 hours
  • collect each sample in sterile container, then add to 24 hour container
  • store in cool, dark place
  • swish after each addition
  • force out last drop at 24 hour mark
    take to collection center ASAP
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39
Q

prior to providing a semen sample, what must patient NOT do

A

ejaculate for 3 days prior to collection

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40
Q

when is a dermal puncture most often used

A

point of care testing at bedside

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41
Q

gold/SST tube additives

A
  • prothrombin activator

- thixotropic gel

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42
Q

bright yellow tube used to test for

A
  • septicemia

- blood culture

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43
Q

black tube used to test for

A

westergren ESR

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44
Q

pale yellow tube department

A
  • transfusion services

- cytogenetics

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45
Q

pale yellow tube additive

A

acid citrate dextrose (ACD)

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46
Q

lavender/pink/royal blue # of inversions

A

8 times

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47
Q

green tube department

A

STAT chemistry

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48
Q

black tube # of inversions

A

8 times

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49
Q

bright yellow tube # of inverstions

A

8 times

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50
Q

gold/SST tube # of inversions

A

5-6 times

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51
Q

gold/SST tube department

A
  • chemistry
  • immunology
  • transfusion services
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52
Q

red (plastic)tube # of inversions

A

5 times

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53
Q

blood tubes - order of draw

A
  1. blood culture tube (bright yellow)
  2. light blue
  3. red
  4. gold/SST
  5. green
  6. lavender/pink/royal blue
  7. grey
  8. pale yellow
  9. black
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54
Q

culture and sensitivity testing look for what 2 things

A

bacteria and antiobiotic sensitivity

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55
Q

grey tube tests for what

A
  • glucose tolerance test (GTT)
  • blood alcohol levels
  • lactic acid
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56
Q

light blue tube additive

A

buffered sodium citrate

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57
Q

red glass tube additive

A

nothing/empty

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58
Q

grey tube department

A

chemistry

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59
Q

lavender/pink tube used to test for

A
  • CBC
  • HbA1c
  • ADH
  • ACTH
  • BNP
  • blood typing and crossmatch
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60
Q

lavender/pink tube departments

A
  • hematology
  • chemistry
  • transfusion services
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61
Q

green tube is used to test for

A
  • ammonia
  • blood gases
  • lactic acid
  • catacholamines
62
Q

bright yellow tube additives

A
  • charcoal
  • broth culture medium
  • sodium Polyanethol sulfate (SPS)
63
Q

grey tube additives

A
  • sodium fluoride

- potassium oxalate

64
Q

what is the transport media for C & S sample

A

cary-Blair

65
Q

what is the transport media for O & P specimen?

what does it do?

A
  • sodium acetate formalin (SAF)

- prevents decomp (preserves parasite)

66
Q

what chemical is used for sweat chloride sample and why

A
  • pilocarpine

- induces sweating

67
Q

what does hemoconcentration affect

A

potassium and CBC levels

68
Q

what 3 departments does Cerebrospinal fluid go to and why

A
  • hematology - cell count
  • microbiology - culture and sensitivity
  • chemistry - glucose and protein
69
Q

where do you not perform heel puncture

A

central inferior surface

70
Q

top 5 reasons why hemolysis occurs

A
  • probing/fishing
  • going thru hematoma
  • alcohol/water not dry
  • aggressive inversions
  • too small needle
71
Q

what are the 3 names for best possible urine sample

A
  • suprapubic puncture
  • suprapubic transabdominal needle
  • aspirate/cytocentesis
72
Q

FOB transport media

A

inoculated card

73
Q

4 main causes for hemoconcentration

A
  • tourniquet too tight/on too long
  • fist pumping
  • fishing/probing
  • edema
74
Q

what is C. Difficile

A

virus that produces doxins

75
Q

where can a heal puncture be done

A

medial or lateral curvature of heel

76
Q

first morning urine sample concentration and why

A
  • most concentrated

- more dissolved particles than fluid

77
Q

what is C & S specimen testing for

A

food poisoning

78
Q

how are sweat chloride samples taken

A

perspiration collected on filter paper from palm

79
Q

fecal fat determination helps to indicate what

A
  • liver disease
  • gallbladder disease
  • pancreatic disease
  • crohns
  • cystic fibrosis
  • celiac disease
80
Q

what does hemoconcentration create

A

higher concentration of formed elements

81
Q

what type of infection is C. Difficile

A

nosocomial infection

82
Q

what are 1st and 2nd choices for dermal puncture

A
  1. middle finger

2. ring finger

83
Q

FOB # of samples and why

A
  • 3 specimens

- blood may be sporadic

84
Q

what is the transport media for pinworm

A

sticky paddle

85
Q

how is pinworm contracted

A

contaminated sandbox

86
Q

how is pinworm treated

A

over the counter treatment (medication)

87
Q

what temp are swabs kept at

A

room temp until tested

88
Q

what is a sweat chloride sample used for

A

test/screen for cystic fibrosis

89
Q

name 4 problems that can cause hematoma during venipuncture

A
  • insert needle thru vein
  • tourniquet too tight/on too long
  • removing needle before tourniquet
  • bevel of needle not fully in vein
90
Q

what are the safety measures required for pin worm

A

where a mask

91
Q

where are the veins located used in venipuncture

A

anticubital fossa

92
Q

symptom of O & P infection

A

parasitic gastroenteritis (diarrhea)

93
Q

how to remedy a collapsed vein

A
  • butterfly needle

- smaller tube

94
Q

c. difficile transport media

A

sterile container

95
Q

3rd vein choice for venipuncture and location

A
  • basilic

- pinky side of arm (inside)

96
Q

2nd vein choice for venipuncture and location

A
  • cephalic

- thumb side of arm (outside)

97
Q

1st vein choice for venipuncture and location

A
  • median cubital

- runs thru centre

98
Q

how does a collapsed vein happen

A
  • vacuum of tube sucks vein closed

- patient dehydrated

99
Q

fecal fat determination biosafety required

A

no biosafety required

100
Q

where on finger do you perform dermal puncture

A

side of finger (lateral or medial surface)

101
Q

explain what clean catch-midstream urine sample requires

A
  1. clean genital and urethral opening (meatus)

2. collect middle portion of urine

102
Q

what does C & S sample test for

A

bacteria and antibiotic sensitivity

103
Q

amniotic fluid is found where

A

amniotic sac

104
Q

pericardial fluid is found where

A

heart

105
Q

synovial fluid is found where

A

joints

106
Q

pleural fluid is found where

A

lungs/chest

107
Q

MLPAO guidelines for drug specimen procurment

A
  • photo ID must be presented
  • witness collection
  • temp taken within 4 minutes of collection
108
Q

what patient info must be on lab req

A

telephone

109
Q

when is a random urine sample taken

A

any time of day

110
Q

what is an O & P specimen

A

ova and parasite

111
Q

in which direction do you perform dermal puncture on finger

A

perpendicular to fingerprint

112
Q

how do you produce blood drop after dermal puncture

A

squeeze distal part of finger (pad)

113
Q

who collects a catheterized urine sample

A

doctor or nurse

114
Q

what does C & S mean

A

culture and sensitivity

115
Q

what is a FOB specimen

A

fecal occult blood (hidden blood)

116
Q

what is a first morning urine sample

A

first urine of the day before eating/drinking

117
Q

who can order tests on a lab req

A
  • doctor
  • registered practical nurse
  • dentist
  • psychiatrist
  • midwife (when for pregnancy)
118
Q

safety measures required for c difficile

A
  • PPE

- hand hygiene

119
Q

what fingers are not used for dermal puncture and why

A

index - most likely too calloused

pinky - too small

120
Q

where should a sputum sample be produced

A

deep in chest

121
Q

first 2 steps in procedure for routine venipuncture

A
  1. wash/antisepsis hands
  2. confirm patient ID (full name & DOB)
    (wristband if in hospital)
122
Q

who is a heel puncture performed on

A

neonate and infant

123
Q

what is final process of dermal puncture

A

continue to squeeze distal part of finger to produce enough blood for specimen collection

124
Q

fecal fat determination transport media

A

pail (pail-o-pooh)

125
Q

patient identifier not required on lab requisition

A

health card number

126
Q

in order for students to perform punctures what must happen

A

students must be supervised or delegated

127
Q

explain process for suprapubic puncture

A

needle inserted thru abdominal wall into bladder

128
Q

biosafety required with O & P specimen

A

fume hood

129
Q

how is pediatric urine sample collected

A

sterile bag with adhesive

130
Q

biosafety required for C & S samples

A

Class II (2) biosafety cabinet

131
Q

what patients do collection center staff never call

A

public health patients

132
Q

what methods of dr’s signature are acceptable

A
  • inked signature
  • typed signature with inked initials
  • stamp signature
  • computer generated signature
133
Q

what are you looking for with O & P specimen

A

parasites and their eggs

134
Q

FOB biosafety required with sample

A

class II (2) biosafety cabinet

135
Q

swabs are collected from

A

external surfaces

136
Q

swabs - 2 options for transport media

A
  • no additives for bacteria that find charcoal toxic

- with charcoal additive to absorb toxins

137
Q

3 length options for lancets

A
  1. 8mm
  2. 0mm
  3. 4mm
138
Q

in order for graduates to perform punctures what must happen

A

graduates need to be deemed competent

139
Q

what is a hematoma - how is it caused

A
  • bruise

- caused by interstitial bleeding

140
Q

cerebrospinal fluid collected how

A

lumbar puncture

141
Q

what does collapsed vein create

A

loss of blood flow

142
Q

what are the dietary restrictions for fecal fat determination

A

100grams of fat for 3 days prior to test and during collection

143
Q

what is pinworm testing for

A

worms and eggs

144
Q

how are body cavity fluids collected

A

Centesis (puncture and extracted with syringe)

145
Q

where are body cavity fluids collected from

A
peritoneal - abdominal cavity
pleural - lungs/chest
synovial - joints
pericardial - heart
amniotic - amniotic sac
146
Q

what does 24-hour urine help diagnose

A
  • diabetes insipidus

- renal failure/issues

147
Q

how are skin scrapings collected

A

fungal paper

148
Q

3 reasons a dermal puncture is performed

A
  • when micro collection is sufficient
  • point of care
  • patient refuses venipuncture
149
Q

FOB testing dietary restrictions

A
  • no red meat
  • no veggies
  • no vitamin C
  • no iron
150
Q

what other department may a sputum sample go

A

cytology for cancer testing

151
Q

peritoneal fluid comes from where

A

abdominal cavity