microbiology/immunology exam Flashcards

1
Q

define opportunistic

A

organism present but doesn’t cause harm until host is immunocompromised

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2
Q

is MIC solid or broth media

A

broth media

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3
Q

agar - what does salmonella-Shigella differential show

A

pH indicator (neutral red)

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4
Q

passive artificial provides what length of immunity

A

short term

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5
Q

form of antibiotic used in Kirby-Bauer test

A

paper disks

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6
Q

passive natural provides what length of immunity

A

short term - to allow baby’s immune system to develop

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7
Q

agar - what is whole blood enriched with

A

whole blood

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8
Q

active artificial provides what length of immunity

A

long term

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9
Q

agar - selenite f selective agent added

A

selenite f

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10
Q

agar - Hektoen differential shows

A

pH indicator

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11
Q

agar - PEA with blood is enriched with

A

whole blood

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12
Q

example of parasitism

A

fleas/ticks

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13
Q

passive natural immunity example

A

mother through placenta or breast milk

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14
Q

explain active natural immunity

A

person exposed to disease, gets sick and fully recovers

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15
Q

aerotolerant anaerobe atmosphere

A

prefers 0% oxygen but can live in 2-10% (not higher)

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16
Q

non specific immunity barriers

A

skin, tears, ear wax, cilia, mucus, stomach acid

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17
Q

example of active artificial immunity

A

vaccinations

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18
Q

define normal flora

A

bacteria normally in body but does not harm, sometimes benefits host

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19
Q

explain systemic (non-specific immunity)

A
  • throughout the body
  • causes increased body temp to speed up metabolism
  • negatively affect pathogens metabolism
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20
Q

MIC testing - quantitative or qualitative result

A

qualitative

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21
Q

obligate aerobe

A

prefers 21% oxygen

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22
Q

obligate anaerobe

A

prefers 0% oxygen

oxygen toxic

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23
Q

explain localized (non-specific immunity)

A

redness, warmth, swelling in specific body part or location

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24
Q

of antibiotics tested at one time (MIC)

A

1

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25
Q

type of antibiotic used (MIC)

A

IV antibiotics

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26
Q

explain passive natrual immunity

A

when mother passes her immunity/antibodies to fetus across placenta or through breastmilk to newborn

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27
Q

example of opportunistic

A

patient on chemotherapy

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28
Q

agar - PEA with blood differential shows

A

hemolysis

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29
Q

type of antibiotics used in Kirby-Bauer

A

topical or oral

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30
Q

of antibiotics tested at one time (Kirby-Bauer)

A

6

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31
Q

agar - PEA selective (added)? prevents what?

A
  • PEA

- prevents swarming

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32
Q

agar - Selenite F enrichment agent

A

selenite f broth

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33
Q

passive artificial immunity examples

A
  • rabies anti serum

- rattle snake antivenom

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34
Q

is kirby-Bauer solid or broth media

A

solid media

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35
Q

facultative anaerobe

A

prefers 21% oxygen but can live in less

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36
Q

Kirby-Bauer testing - quantitative or qualitative result

A

quantitative

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37
Q

agar - Hektoen selective agent

A

bile salts

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38
Q

agar - PEA with blood selective? prevents what?

A
  • PEA

- prevents swarming

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39
Q

agar - CLED differential

A

pH indicator

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40
Q

form of antibiotic used in MIC test

A

fluid antibiotic solution processed through serial dilution

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41
Q

agar - Thayer-Martin enriched with

A

lysed blood

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42
Q

agar - salmonella-Shigella selective

A

bile salts

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43
Q

agar - MacConkey differential

A

pH indicator (neutral red)

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44
Q

microaerophile

A

lives in 3-10% oxygen (nothing higher or lower)

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45
Q

example of pathogen

A

salmonella, Ecoli

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46
Q

active natural immunity examples

A

mono, strep throat

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47
Q

capnophile

A

prefers 5-10% co2

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48
Q

agar - whole blood incubation

A

oxygen or co2

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49
Q

agar - whole blood differential

A

hemolysis

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50
Q

explain interferon (non-specific immunity)

A
  • virus invades cell
  • cell produce chemical message informing neighboring cells that virus is on loose
  • warn them to ramp up defenses
  • invaded cell dies
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51
Q

agar - whole blood used in what

A

all routine specimens except feces

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52
Q

define parasitism

A

one organism lives in/on another and benefits at expense of host

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53
Q

agar - thioglycolate purpose/use

A

determine atmospheric needs

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54
Q

explain passive artificial immunity

A

antibodies from another person/species are injected into person exposed to disease/toxin

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55
Q

agar - salmonella - shigella incubation

A
  • oxygen

- co2 affects pH

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56
Q

example of colonization

A

fecal flora in axilla or groin (pooh pits)

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57
Q

agar - MacConkey selective agents

A

bile salts

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58
Q

define pathogen

A

organism that causes disease

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59
Q

explain active artificial immunity

A

antigens from disease introduced into body to provoke immune response

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60
Q

example of normal flora

A

skin, oral, fecal flora

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61
Q

agar - chocolate enriched with

A

lysed blood

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62
Q

what does IgM do

A

causes clumping of antigens allowing macrophages to destroy quicker

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63
Q

what does IgE do

A

binds to basophils, force histamine release

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64
Q

what are IgM responsible for

A

ABO blood typing reactions

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65
Q

define commensalism

A

relationship between 2 organisms - 1 benefits, other not harmed or benefit

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66
Q

what is IgG responsible for

A

erythroblastosis fetalis therefore Rh incompatibility

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67
Q

explain phagocytosis (non-specific immunity)

A

macrophages, monocytes, eosinophils, neutrophils all eat foreign particles

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68
Q

what does IgD do

A

cause B cells to be activated and multiply

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69
Q

agar - thioglycolate incubation

A

oxygen

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70
Q

agar - thioglycolate enriched with

A
  • vitamin K
  • Hemin
  • Casein
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71
Q

what does IgG do

A

cross placenta to protect fetus

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72
Q

explain complement (non-specific immunity)

A
  • antibodies attack antigens
  • chemically change antigens shape exposing vulnerable areas
  • bore holes in antigen to allow sodium and water to enter until antigen ruptures
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73
Q

agar - salmonella-Shigella use/purpose

A

feces

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74
Q

where are IgA found

A
  • breastmilk
  • tears
  • saliva
  • mucus
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75
Q

define colonization

A

organism present in area not usual, doesn’t cause problems

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76
Q

agar - Thayer-Martin selective agent

A

antibiotics

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77
Q

chlamydia presenting as pneumonia comes from

A

bird poop

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78
Q

selenite F selective

A

selenite F

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79
Q

why can chlamydia be classified a virus

A
  • invades cells in order to multiply
  • only cultured in live media
  • lives IN cells
80
Q

what type of culture media do viruses grow in

A
  • embryonic chicken egg
  • living tissue culture
  • live culture media
81
Q

Kirby-Bauer disk plate - distance showing bacterial growth is sensitive

A

14mm or more from antibiotic disk

82
Q

Thayer-Martin differential

A

no

83
Q

Thayer-Martin enrichment

A

no

84
Q

what are you looking to do on streak plate

A

isolate colonies of bacterial growth

85
Q

artificial passive immunity

A

antibodies injected to person exposed to disease or toxin

86
Q

autoimmunity is

A

immunity against self

87
Q

immunity where a persons antibodies attack cells received from someone else

A

isoimmunity

88
Q

natural passive immunity

A

passed from mother’s antibodies to fetus across placenta or through breastmilk

89
Q

Kirby-Bauer disk plate - zone of inhibition

A

0-14mm

90
Q

chlamydia - small stage means

A

infectious stage

91
Q

chlamydia - large stage means

A

multiplying stage

92
Q

causes of blood smear to be too thick

A
  • too much blood

- angle too high

93
Q

causes of blood smear to be too thin

A
  • too little blood

- angle too low

94
Q

minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) processed by

A

serial dilutions

95
Q

minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) # of antibodies tested at once

A

1 antibiotic tested at a time

96
Q

MIC strength to use determined when

A

1st tube with NO growth is dose to use

97
Q

Kirby-Bauer disk diffusion - # antibiotics tested at once

A

6 antibiotics tested at one time

98
Q

bacteria that is sensitive to antibiotic means

A

antibiotics stop bacteria from growing

99
Q

ingredients causing culture media to be selective

A
  • bile salts
  • alcohol
  • dyes
  • antibiotics
100
Q

Salmonella-Shigella selective

A

bile salts

101
Q

Selenite F enrichment

A

enrichment broth

102
Q

solidify agar - what temp

A

38-42 degrees celcius

103
Q

how does bacteria grow with enrichment media

A

bacteria grown in broth

104
Q

natural active immunity

A
  • person exposed
  • get sick
  • fully recover
  • develop memory
105
Q

natural active immunity length of time

A

long term immunity

106
Q

what must always be done for enrichment media

A

always sub cultured to solid media

107
Q

characteristics of dimorphic fungi classified as

A

both yeast and mold

108
Q

bacteria that is resistant to antibiotic means

A

bacteria will keep growing - not affected by antibiotics

109
Q

Salmonella-Shigella differential

A

pH indicator (neutral red)

110
Q

what % of agar is added to prevent bacterial swarming

A

3-5%

111
Q

what % of agar added to make culture media “slushy”

A

0.5%

112
Q

why can Rickettsia be classified a virus

A

only cultured in living tissue

113
Q

what do you add at 85 degrees Celsius

A

serum

114
Q

3 types of atmospheres bacteria grow in

A
  • oxygen
  • no oxygen
  • co2
115
Q

Zeihl-Neelson stains what type of bacteria

A

acid fast bacteria

116
Q

alpha hemolysis color

A

green/brown

117
Q

beta hemolysis color

A

clear

118
Q

what does insipissation create

A

Loeffler’s media

119
Q

Kirby-Bauer bacterial growth 14mm or more from antibiotic disk means`

A

bacteria is sensitive

120
Q

gram+ bacteria is what color after staining

A

blue

121
Q

gram- bacteria is what color after staining

A

red

122
Q

whole blood differential

A

hemolysis

123
Q

whole blood selective

A

no

124
Q

what antibodies does type AB blood have

A

none

125
Q

what antigens does type AB blood have

A

A and B

126
Q

list the 5 antibodies learned in class

A

IgG, IgA, IgM, IgE, IgD

127
Q

Kirby-Bauer disk diffusion processed by

A

impregnated paper disks in solid media (Thayer-Martin)

128
Q

when do IgE come into action

A

histamine and inflammation

129
Q

Zeihl-Neelson primary stain used

A

carbol Fushsin

130
Q

how does IgM circulate? when is it active?

A
  • attached to B-lymphs

- active when antigen present

131
Q

what do IgE bind to? why?

A
  • bind to basophils

- force basophils to produce histamine

132
Q

dimorphic fungi growth temp

A

20-37 degrees celcius

133
Q

what order is Gram stain performed

A
  1. primary stain
  2. mordant
  3. decolorizer
  4. secondary/counter stain
134
Q

mordant used in gram stain

A

gram’s iodine

135
Q

primary stain used in gram stain

A

crystal violet or gentian violet

136
Q

PEA differential

A

no

137
Q

selenite F differential

A

no

138
Q

secondary stain used in Gram stain

A

safranin or carbol fuchsin

139
Q

how is bacteria fixed to slide for gram stain

A

heat fix

140
Q

do people have inborn immunity from Chlamydia

A

no

141
Q

macroscopic mean

A

visible with naked eye

142
Q

MIC used in

A

IV antibiotics

143
Q

Kirby-Bauer disk diffusion used in

A

oral and topical antibiotics

144
Q

Zeil-Neelson mordant used

A

no mordant used

145
Q

Zeihl-Neelson decolorizer used

A

acid alcohol

146
Q

Zeihl-Neelson secondary stain used

A

methylene blue

147
Q

microscopic means

A

must use microscope to see

148
Q

how do you view colony morphology

A

macroscopically

149
Q

how do you view bacteria morphology

A

must use microscope

150
Q

Zeihl-Neelson - how is bacteria fixed to a slide

A

heat or chemical fix

151
Q

immunity where antibodies attack you own cells

A

autoimmunity

152
Q

component in cell wall that determines Gram negative or positive

A

number of lipids

153
Q

how do yeast reproduce

A

through buds

154
Q

why is starch added to media

A

absorb toxin when charcoal is toxic

155
Q

what is Rickettsia classified as

A

bacteria that acts like a bacteria, virus and parasite

156
Q

what order is Zeihl-Neelson stain performed

A
  1. heat/chemical fix specimen
  2. flood smear with primary stain
  3. heat slide from underneath for 5 min, do not boil, add stain as evaporates
  4. no mordant step
  5. flood slide with acid-alcohol for 20 seconds
  6. rinse with tap water
  7. flood slide with secondary stain for 60 seconds
  8. rinse with tap water
  9. air dry
157
Q

which type of blood is universal donor and why

A

O-

has no antigens for be found foreign

158
Q

which blood type is the universal recipient and why

A

AB+

has no antibodies to fight foreign antigens

159
Q

why can Rickettsia be classified a bacteria

A

can treat with antibiotics

160
Q

why can Rickettsia be classified a parasite

A

requires living host to survive

161
Q

what is Chlamydia classified as

A

bacteria that acts like a bacteria, virus and parasite

162
Q

what do you incubate whole blood media in

A
  • oxygen
  • no oxygen
  • co2
163
Q

Isoimmunity is what? examples?

A
- immunity against antigens from someone else
examples
- transplant rejection
- erythroblastosis fetalis
- blood transfusion rejection
164
Q

whole blood enriched

A

with whole blood

165
Q

why can Chlamydia be classified a bacteria

A

responds to antibiotics

166
Q

why can Chlamydia be classified a parasite

A

needs living host to survive

167
Q

whole blood enrichment

A

no

168
Q

PEA selective

A

PEA (phenyl ethyl alcohol)

169
Q

do viruses reapond to antiviotics

A

no

170
Q

what is saponin

A

lysing agent

171
Q

what is resazurin

A

oxygen indicator

172
Q

what is it called when you add serum at 85 degrees celcius

A

inspissation

173
Q

PEA enriched

A

no

174
Q

PEA enrichment

A

no

175
Q

Kirby-Bauer disk diffusion used to measure (x2)

A
  • zone of inhibition

strength of antibiotics to use

176
Q

Salmonella-Shigella enriched

A

no

177
Q

salmonella-Shigella enrichment

A

no

178
Q

decolorizer used in Gram stain

A

alcohol or acetone

179
Q

Thayer-Martin selective

A

with antibiotics

180
Q

Thayer-martin enriched

A

lysed blood

181
Q

when do IgA come into action

A
  • to baby from breastmilk

- tears

182
Q

what do selective agents do

A

inhibit growth of 1 so other can grow

183
Q

why are blood products added to culture media

A

to enrich

184
Q

what can you see on differential media

A
  • hemolysis

- pH changes

185
Q

where does IgG circulate

A

plasma

186
Q

Kirby0Bauer zone of inhibition 0mm means

A

bacteria is resistant

187
Q

what does differential media show

A

colony growth/morphology

188
Q

Selenite F enriched

A

no

189
Q

what does Phenyl Ethyl Alcohol (PEA) inhibit

A

gram negative bacilli

190
Q

how does artificial active immunity protect

A

pathogen injected to produce antibodies and develop memory

191
Q

what is an antigen

A

foreign substance that invades body provoking immune response

192
Q

where does IgA circulate

A
  • breastmilk
  • tears
  • saliva
  • mucus
193
Q

how do IgD circulate

A

attached to B-lymphs

194
Q

when do IgG come into action? example

A

Isoimmunity situations like erythroblastosis fetalis

195
Q

where do IgE circulate

A

in mucus membrane and tonsils

196
Q

what is an antibody

A

protein present in cytoplasm that respond to antigen

197
Q

when do IgM come into action

A

ABO blood typing reactions