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Med Lab > OSMT exam > Flashcards

OSMT exam Flashcards

1
Q

type AB blood has what antigens? and what antibodies

A

antigens - A and B

antibodies - none

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2
Q

what tube is PSA drawn in

A

gold/SST

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3
Q

what is the pH of distilled water

A

7

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4
Q

which requires dilution of the specimen?

westergren or Wintrobe

A

westergren ESR

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5
Q

what color is Gram+ bacteria

A

blue

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6
Q

obligate aerobe condition

A

prefers 21% oxygen

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7
Q

what is a thrombus

A

stationary clot

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8
Q

what type of anemia is Sickle Cell anemia

A

hemolytic anemia

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9
Q

can acid fast bacteria be gram stained

A

no

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10
Q

you are given 3 volumes in a math question, what equation do u use

A

concentration

V1C1=V2C2 (formula)

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11
Q

gram stain mordant

A

Gram’s iodine

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12
Q

how long does the collection for a fecal fat absorption test take

A

24-72 hours

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13
Q

do reticulocytes have a nucleus

A

no

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14
Q

how many standard deviations are acceptable on a Levy Jennings chart?
provides what accuracy?

A

=/- 2 standard deviations

95% accuracy

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15
Q

aerotolerant anaerobe grows in what atmosphere

A

prefers 0% but can live in 2-10%

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16
Q

normal range of WBC’s in healthy person

A

5,000-10,000 microlitres (uL)

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17
Q

what temp must cold agglutination test be received at testing facility

A

body temp (37 degrees celcius)

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18
Q

when must temperature be taken for urine drug testing

A

within 4 minutes of collection

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19
Q

what causes a wandering baseline (4)

A
  • patient moving
  • poor electrode placement
  • electrode cam loose
  • large muscle movement
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20
Q

what is Zeihl-Neelson counter stain

A

methylene blue

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21
Q

how is antinuclear antibody testing done

A

ANA test

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22
Q

if you are looking through a 10x ocular high power objective, what is the resulting magnification

A

400x

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23
Q

what media needs to be sub-cultured

A

broth media

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24
Q

is Thayer-Martin agar

  • selective
  • differential
  • enriched
A

selective - yes
differential - no
enriched - yes

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25
Q

why are blood stains not heat fixed prior to staining

A

they are chemically fixed with methanol in methylene blue

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26
Q

what are osteoblasts

A

bone forming cells

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27
Q

do megakaryocytes have a nucleus

A

yes

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28
Q

what % of agar is added to form semi-solid media

A

0.5%

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29
Q

what temperature are paraffin baths kept at

A

60 degrees celcius

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30
Q

what does INR stand for

A

international normalized ratio

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31
Q

what does the root MYLE or MY/O mean

A

muscle

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32
Q

can rickettsia be Gram stained? why

A

yes, it has cell wall

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33
Q

obligate anaerobe conditions

A

prefers 0% oxygen

oxygen toxic

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34
Q

what does proximal mean

A

situated nearest the center of the body

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35
Q

what makes differential media differential

A

see colony/bacterial morphology

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36
Q

why can’t a specimen be x-rayed to confirm decalcification if mercuric chloride was used as a fixative

A

radio opaque - seen on x-ray

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37
Q

eosinophils produce what

A

nothing

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38
Q

what is diluted in minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)

A

antibiotic solution

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39
Q

do erythrocytes have a nucleus

A

no

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40
Q

solute formula

A

solute OVER solution

% OVER 100 = x OVER total volume

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41
Q

standard leads are attached to body where

A

limbs

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42
Q

where is the bicuspid valve located

A

left side between the atria and ventricle

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43
Q

what culture media is chlamydia grown in? example

A

living tissue

ex - embryonic chicken egg

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44
Q

who does chronic myeloid lukemia affect

A

25-60 years old

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45
Q

solvent formula

A 
part 1
solute OVER solution
% OVER 100 = x OVER solution
part 2
solute + solvent (x) = solution
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46
Q

what is the median

A

middle number (odd amt of #’s)
or
average of 2 middle numbers (even amt of #’s)

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47
Q

what is the mode? what doe sit provide

A

most frequently recurring #

shows precision

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48
Q

wteps in gram stain

A
  1. primary stain
  2. mordant
  3. decolorizer
  4. counter stain
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49
Q

is pollen an antigen

A

yes

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50
Q

how is ammonia transported to the lab

A

on ice (on ice slurry)

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51
Q

what reason could your diet cause ketones in urine

A

carbohydrate insufficiency

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52
Q

what structure generates the most force for ventricular contraction to occur

A

Purkinji fibers

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53
Q

correct term for resting

A

polarization

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54
Q

are toxins an antigen

A

yes

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55
Q

what does a normoblast become after is ejects its nucleus and organelles

A

reticulocyes

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56
Q

what does MCV indicate

A

mass of hematocrit

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57
Q

what causes a falsely increased Westergren ESR

A
  • slanted tube
  • increased vibrations
  • temp more than 20 degrees
  • macrocytic cells
  • anemia
  • decreased hematocrit
  • spherical shaped cell
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58
Q

Gram stain counter/secondary stain

A

safranin or carbol fuchsin

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59
Q

what is test called where you drop a droplet of blood into copper sulfate

A

specific gravity

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60
Q

augmented leads are attached to body where

A

limbs (same leads as standard

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61
Q

what is a nosocomial infection

A

infection caught in a hospital

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62
Q

how does an autoclave sterilize

A

121 degrees celcius for 15 minutes at 15 psi

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63
Q

what is not a circulating protein

A

fibrin

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64
Q

what are the first leads read on and ECG

A

standard leads

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65
Q

what stain can help determine if treatment for pernicious anemia is successful

A

wright stain

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66
Q

eosinophils have what color granules after staining

A

red

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67
Q

what 3 products can be used to adhere tissue to a slide

A
  • albumin
  • gelatin
  • glycerine
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68
Q

what material is reusable glassware made of

A

borosilicate

69
Q

who does reverse isolation protect

A

patient

70
Q

when are eosinophils active

A

during allergic reaction

71
Q

if the zone of inhibition is less than 14mm, what does it indicate about the bacteria

A

bacteria is resistant to antibiotics

72
Q

what tube are electrolytes drawn in

A

gold/SST

73
Q

what is the mean

A

average of all numbers

74
Q

what does systole dmean

A

contraction

75
Q

why would nitrites be in urine

A

bacteria present

76
Q

what 7 glassware DOES NOT have a critical measurement

A
  • bottles
  • beakers
  • Erlenmeyer flask
  • Florence flask
  • test tube
  • Pasteur pipettes
  • graduated cylinder
77
Q

hypotonic is a solution what causes what

A

a cell to swell

78
Q

what does PSA stand for

A

prosthetic specific antigen

79
Q

what does MCHC indicate

A

mass of hemoglobin per hematocrit

80
Q

what color does beta hemolysis show

A

clear

81
Q

what is the active ingredient in a clinitest

A

copper sulfate

82
Q

how long does the T-P interval last

A

0.38-0.4 seconds (roughly 1/2 cardiac cycle)

83
Q

concentration formula

A

v1c1=v2c2

84
Q

what can a leuko-chek be used with

A

hemocytometer

85
Q

what does a fecal occult blood test screen for

A

colorectal cancer

86
Q

where do MoHR pipette graduations end

A

avobe the tip

87
Q

how is level 1 water stored

A

not stored - made as needed

88
Q

what method of cleaning prevents spread of infection on animate surfaces

A

antisepsis

89
Q

what is a shift on a levy jennings chart

A

6 or more results on 1 side of mean

90
Q

does passive transport require energy

A

no

91
Q

gram stain decolorizer

A
  • acetone
  • alcohol
  • acetone/alcohol combo
92
Q

what culture media does Rickettsia grow in, example

A
  • living tissue

- ex - embryonic chicken egg

93
Q

what fixative is used to preserve cells for a PAP smear

A

95% ethyl alcohol

94
Q

what temperature are water baths kept at to float histology section

A

5-10 degrees below the melting point of wax

95
Q

how quickly must a semen specimen get to the lab after collection

A

30minutes

96
Q

do thrombocytes have a nucleus

A

no

97
Q

when urine is positive for blood but there are no RBC’s present, what can be the cause

A

myoglobin

98
Q

colonization means

A

presence of organism in an area not normal, but doesn’t cause problems/harm

99
Q

which granulocyte has an S shaped nucleus

A

basophil

100
Q

is a virus an antigen

A

yes

101
Q

what is the bet urine collection for a culture and sensitivity test

A

first morning, clean catch mid-stream

102
Q

movement of water and solutes across a membrane due to hydrostatic pressure

A

filtration

103
Q

how long does a T wave last

A

0.12-0.2 seconds

104
Q

what test is a leuko-chek used for

A

WBC

105
Q

temperature of lab refrigerator

A

4 degrees celcius (+/- 2 degrees)

106
Q

can alpha hemolysis appear on chocolate agar

A

no

107
Q

precordial leads are attached to the body where

A

chest around heart

108
Q

the stage adjustment know moves a microscope stage how

A

horizontally

109
Q

glassware used to measure 24-hour urine

A

graduated cylinder

110
Q

salmonella-shigella is what type of media

A

both selective and differential

111
Q

what is the main ingredient in Drabkin’s

A

cyanide

112
Q

what is on a urine reagent strip to detect glucose

A

peroxidase and dye

113
Q

what piece of lab equipment measures hydrogen ion concentration

A

pH meter

114
Q

is bacteria an antigen

A

yes

115
Q

where does a biosafety cabinet 1 exhaust

A

into room or externally

116
Q

what reagent has the highest purity

A

reagent grade/analytical reagent grade (AR/ACS)

117
Q

what does a frosted band on a graduated pipette indicate

A

total volume

1 critical measurement

118
Q

HbA1c goes to what department

A

chemistry

119
Q

how much decalcifier to specimen is required for it to be effective

A

50-100 times

120
Q

what tube are lipids drawn in

A

gold/SST

121
Q

how much serum is in a 10mL grey top tube

A

0

serum in gold/SST and red tubes

122
Q

what does charcoal do in transport media

A

absorbs toxins

123
Q

capnophile conditions

A

5-10% co2

124
Q

glassware with critical measurement

A
  • volumetric pipette
  • volumetric flask
  • serological pipette
  • MoHR pipette
  • micropipette
125
Q

what does diastole mean

A

relaxation

126
Q

Zeihl-Neelson stains for what

A
  • mycobacterium

- acid fast bacteria

127
Q

what is the specific gravity of distilled water

A

1.000

128
Q

best disinfectant to clean blood

A

10% bleach

129
Q

out of the following, which should be present in urine

  • glucose
  • urea
  • protein
  • bilirubin
  • nitrites
A

urea

130
Q

what does the p wave represent

A

atrial depolarization (contraction)

131
Q

what are IgM antibodies responsible for

A

wrong blood transfusion reactions

132
Q

does Drabkin’s give a quantitative or qualitative result

A

quantitative

133
Q

what is picric acid

A

fixative for tissue processing

134
Q

what color is a Zeihl-Neelson positive bacteria

A

red

135
Q

when products move from the nephron to the blood, it is called what

A

resorption

136
Q

what is the critical step in any staining process

A

decolorizer

137
Q

what temperature does agar solidify at

A

38-42 degrees celcius

138
Q

why would nitrites be present in urine

A

bacteria

139
Q

what stains are used in Papanicolaou staining

A
  • hematoxylin
  • OG6
  • EA36
140
Q

what temperature should urine drug testing sample be

A

32.5-37.7 degrees celcius

141
Q

what is a medical cause for ketones in urine

A

insulin insufficiency

142
Q

what does the suffix STOMY mean

A

new opening

143
Q

what color would bacteria be if the mordant was missed in Gram staining

A

red

144
Q

is transfused blood an antigen

A

yes

145
Q

confirming test for glucose/reducing sugars

A

clinitest

146
Q

what does warfarin/coumadin do in clotting

A

prevent prothrombin syntheses

147
Q

what is an embolus

A

circulatory clot

148
Q

how is WBC differential reported

A

%

149
Q

Gram stain primary stain

A

crystal violet or gentian violet

150
Q

what is QRS responsible for

A

ventricle depolarization and atrial repolarization

151
Q

is differential media broth or solid

A

always solid

152
Q

where does the electrical impulse that triggers a heartbeat start

A

SA node (sinoatrial node)

153
Q

what 3 controls are run with autoclave

A
  • temperature control
  • biological control (strip)
  • chemical control
154
Q

what does Drabkin’s reagent form with mixed with hemoglobin

A

cyanmethemoglobin

155
Q

what are the layers in a red top tube after centrifuging

A

55% serum

45% formed elements

156
Q

what does heparin do in clotting

A

prevent prothrombin from converting to thrombin

157
Q

what does the T wave represent

A

ventricular relaxation (repolarization)

158
Q

what are easily dissociated by water

A

covalent bonds

159
Q

what causes a falsely decreased Westergren ESR

A
  • temp less than 20 degrees
  • microcytic cells
  • increased hematocrit
  • polycythemia
160
Q

what aer the 2 stains used in a Romanowsky stain

A
  • methylene blue

- eosin

161
Q

microaerophile conditions

A

3-10% oxygen (nothing higher or lower)

162
Q

what can a ASOT test help diagnose

A
  • strep throat

- rheumatic fever

163
Q

what is a TREND on a Levy Jennings chart

A

6 or more results increasingly higher or lower

164
Q

facultative anaerobe/anaerotolerant aerobe conditions

A

prefer 21% oxygen

but can live in less

165
Q

what layers are in a green top tube after centrifuging

A

+/- 55% plasma
buffy coat
+/- 45% formed elements

166
Q

what test help diagnose polycythemia

A

CBC

167
Q

a visceral serous membrane surrounds what

A

external surface of organs

168
Q

what does Vitamin K do for clotting

A

needed for prothrombin syntheses

169
Q

what does bilirubin in urine indicate

A

liver disease/hepatic dysfunction

Med Lab (13 decks)

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