OSMT exam Flashcards
1
Q
type AB blood has what antigens? and what antibodies
A
antigens - A and B
antibodies - none
2
Q
what tube is PSA drawn in
A
gold/SST
3
Q
what is the pH of distilled water
A
7
4
Q
which requires dilution of the specimen?
westergren or Wintrobe
A
westergren ESR
5
Q
what color is Gram+ bacteria
A
blue
6
Q
obligate aerobe condition
A
prefers 21% oxygen
7
Q
what is a thrombus
A
stationary clot
8
Q
what type of anemia is Sickle Cell anemia
A
hemolytic anemia
9
Q
can acid fast bacteria be gram stained
A
no
10
Q
you are given 3 volumes in a math question, what equation do u use
A
concentration
V1C1=V2C2 (formula)
11
Q
gram stain mordant
A
Gram’s iodine
12
Q
how long does the collection for a fecal fat absorption test take
A
24-72 hours
13
Q
do reticulocytes have a nucleus
A
no
14
Q
how many standard deviations are acceptable on a Levy Jennings chart?
provides what accuracy?
A
=/- 2 standard deviations
95% accuracy
15
Q
aerotolerant anaerobe grows in what atmosphere
A
prefers 0% but can live in 2-10%
16
Q
normal range of WBC’s in healthy person
A
5,000-10,000 microlitres (uL)
17
Q
what temp must cold agglutination test be received at testing facility
A
body temp (37 degrees celcius)
18
Q
when must temperature be taken for urine drug testing
A
within 4 minutes of collection
19
Q
what causes a wandering baseline (4)
A
- patient moving
- poor electrode placement
- electrode cam loose
- large muscle movement
20
Q
what is Zeihl-Neelson counter stain
A
methylene blue
21
Q
how is antinuclear antibody testing done
A
ANA test
22
Q
if you are looking through a 10x ocular high power objective, what is the resulting magnification
A
400x
23
Q
what media needs to be sub-cultured
A
broth media
24
Q
is Thayer-Martin agar
- selective
- differential
- enriched
A
selective - yes
differential - no
enriched - yes
25
why are blood stains not heat fixed prior to staining
they are chemically fixed with methanol in methylene blue
26
what are osteoblasts
bone forming cells
27
do megakaryocytes have a nucleus
yes
28
what % of agar is added to form semi-solid media
0.5%
29
what temperature are paraffin baths kept at
60 degrees celcius
30
what does INR stand for
international normalized ratio
31
what does the root MYLE or MY/O mean
muscle
32
can rickettsia be Gram stained? why
yes, it has cell wall
33
obligate anaerobe conditions
prefers 0% oxygen
| oxygen toxic
34
what does proximal mean
situated nearest the center of the body
35
what makes differential media differential
see colony/bacterial morphology
36
why can't a specimen be x-rayed to confirm decalcification if mercuric chloride was used as a fixative
radio opaque - seen on x-ray
37
eosinophils produce what
nothing
38
what is diluted in minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)
antibiotic solution
39
do erythrocytes have a nucleus
no
40
solute formula
solute OVER solution
% OVER 100 = x OVER total volume
41
standard leads are attached to body where
limbs
42
where is the bicuspid valve located
left side between the atria and ventricle
43
what culture media is chlamydia grown in? example
living tissue
| ex - embryonic chicken egg
44
who does chronic myeloid lukemia affect
25-60 years old
45
solvent formula
```
part 1
solute OVER solution
% OVER 100 = x OVER solution
part 2
solute + solvent (x) = solution
```
46
what is the median
middle number (odd amt of #'s)
or
average of 2 middle numbers (even amt of #'s)
47
what is the mode? what doe sit provide
most frequently recurring #
| shows precision
48
wteps in gram stain
1. primary stain
2. mordant
3. decolorizer
4. counter stain
49
is pollen an antigen
yes
50
how is ammonia transported to the lab
on ice (on ice slurry)
51
what reason could your diet cause ketones in urine
carbohydrate insufficiency
52
what structure generates the most force for ventricular contraction to occur
Purkinji fibers
53
correct term for resting
polarization
54
are toxins an antigen
yes
55
what does a normoblast become after is ejects its nucleus and organelles
reticulocyes
56
what does MCV indicate
mass of hematocrit
57
what causes a falsely increased Westergren ESR
- slanted tube
- increased vibrations
- temp more than 20 degrees
- macrocytic cells
- anemia
- decreased hematocrit
- spherical shaped cell
58
Gram stain counter/secondary stain
safranin or carbol fuchsin
59
what is test called where you drop a droplet of blood into copper sulfate
specific gravity
60
augmented leads are attached to body where
limbs (same leads as standard
61
what is a nosocomial infection
infection caught in a hospital
62
how does an autoclave sterilize
121 degrees celcius for 15 minutes at 15 psi
63
what is not a circulating protein
fibrin
64
what are the first leads read on and ECG
standard leads
65
what stain can help determine if treatment for pernicious anemia is successful
wright stain
66
eosinophils have what color granules after staining
red
67
what 3 products can be used to adhere tissue to a slide
- albumin
- gelatin
- glycerine
68
what material is reusable glassware made of
borosilicate
69
who does reverse isolation protect
patient
70
when are eosinophils active
during allergic reaction
71
if the zone of inhibition is less than 14mm, what does it indicate about the bacteria
bacteria is resistant to antibiotics
72
what tube are electrolytes drawn in
gold/SST
73
what is the mean
average of all numbers
74
what does systole dmean
contraction
75
why would nitrites be in urine
bacteria present
76
what 7 glassware DOES NOT have a critical measurement
- bottles
- beakers
- Erlenmeyer flask
- Florence flask
- test tube
- Pasteur pipettes
- graduated cylinder
77
hypotonic is a solution what causes what
a cell to swell
78
what does PSA stand for
prosthetic specific antigen
79
what does MCHC indicate
mass of hemoglobin per hematocrit
80
what color does beta hemolysis show
clear
81
what is the active ingredient in a clinitest
copper sulfate
82
how long does the T-P interval last
0.38-0.4 seconds (roughly 1/2 cardiac cycle)
83
concentration formula
v1c1=v2c2
84
what can a leuko-chek be used with
hemocytometer
85
what does a fecal occult blood test screen for
colorectal cancer
86
where do MoHR pipette graduations end
avobe the tip
87
how is level 1 water stored
not stored - made as needed
88
what method of cleaning prevents spread of infection on animate surfaces
antisepsis
89
what is a shift on a levy jennings chart
6 or more results on 1 side of mean
90
does passive transport require energy
no
91
gram stain decolorizer
- acetone
- alcohol
- acetone/alcohol combo
92
what culture media does Rickettsia grow in, example
- living tissue
| - ex - embryonic chicken egg
93
what fixative is used to preserve cells for a PAP smear
95% ethyl alcohol
94
what temperature are water baths kept at to float histology section
5-10 degrees below the melting point of wax
95
how quickly must a semen specimen get to the lab after collection
30minutes
96
do thrombocytes have a nucleus
no
97
when urine is positive for blood but there are no RBC's present, what can be the cause
myoglobin
98
colonization means
presence of organism in an area not normal, but doesn't cause problems/harm
99
which granulocyte has an S shaped nucleus
basophil
100
is a virus an antigen
yes
101
what is the bet urine collection for a culture and sensitivity test
first morning, clean catch mid-stream
102
movement of water and solutes across a membrane due to hydrostatic pressure
filtration
103
how long does a T wave last
0.12-0.2 seconds
104
what test is a leuko-chek used for
WBC
105
temperature of lab refrigerator
4 degrees celcius (+/- 2 degrees)
106
can alpha hemolysis appear on chocolate agar
no
107
precordial leads are attached to the body where
chest around heart
108
the stage adjustment know moves a microscope stage how
horizontally
109
glassware used to measure 24-hour urine
graduated cylinder
110
salmonella-shigella is what type of media
both selective and differential
111
what is the main ingredient in Drabkin's
cyanide
112
what is on a urine reagent strip to detect glucose
peroxidase and dye
113
what piece of lab equipment measures hydrogen ion concentration
pH meter
114
is bacteria an antigen
yes
115
where does a biosafety cabinet 1 exhaust
into room or externally
116
what reagent has the highest purity
reagent grade/analytical reagent grade (AR/ACS)
117
what does a frosted band on a graduated pipette indicate
total volume
| 1 critical measurement
118
HbA1c goes to what department
chemistry
119
how much decalcifier to specimen is required for it to be effective
50-100 times
120
what tube are lipids drawn in
gold/SST
121
how much serum is in a 10mL grey top tube
0
| serum in gold/SST and red tubes
122
what does charcoal do in transport media
absorbs toxins
123
capnophile conditions
5-10% co2
124
glassware with critical measurement
- volumetric pipette
- volumetric flask
- serological pipette
- MoHR pipette
- micropipette
125
what does diastole mean
relaxation
126
Zeihl-Neelson stains for what
- mycobacterium
| - acid fast bacteria
127
what is the specific gravity of distilled water
1.000
128
best disinfectant to clean blood
10% bleach
129
out of the following, which should be present in urine
- glucose
- urea
- protein
- bilirubin
- nitrites
urea
130
what does the p wave represent
atrial depolarization (contraction)
131
what are IgM antibodies responsible for
wrong blood transfusion reactions
132
does Drabkin's give a quantitative or qualitative result
quantitative
133
what is picric acid
fixative for tissue processing
134
what color is a Zeihl-Neelson positive bacteria
red
135
when products move from the nephron to the blood, it is called what
resorption
136
what is the critical step in any staining process
decolorizer
137
what temperature does agar solidify at
38-42 degrees celcius
138
why would nitrites be present in urine
bacteria
139
what stains are used in Papanicolaou staining
- hematoxylin
- OG6
- EA36
140
what temperature should urine drug testing sample be
32.5-37.7 degrees celcius
141
what is a medical cause for ketones in urine
insulin insufficiency
142
what does the suffix STOMY mean
new opening
143
what color would bacteria be if the mordant was missed in Gram staining
red
144
is transfused blood an antigen
yes
145
confirming test for glucose/reducing sugars
clinitest
146
what does warfarin/coumadin do in clotting
prevent prothrombin syntheses
147
what is an embolus
circulatory clot
148
how is WBC differential reported
%
149
Gram stain primary stain
crystal violet or gentian violet
150
what is QRS responsible for
ventricle depolarization and atrial repolarization
151
is differential media broth or solid
always solid
152
where does the electrical impulse that triggers a heartbeat start
SA node (sinoatrial node)
153
what 3 controls are run with autoclave
- temperature control
- biological control (strip)
- chemical control
154
what does Drabkin's reagent form with mixed with hemoglobin
cyanmethemoglobin
155
what are the layers in a red top tube after centrifuging
55% serum
| 45% formed elements
156
what does heparin do in clotting
prevent prothrombin from converting to thrombin
157
what does the T wave represent
ventricular relaxation (repolarization)
158
what are easily dissociated by water
covalent bonds
159
what causes a falsely decreased Westergren ESR
- temp less than 20 degrees
- microcytic cells
- increased hematocrit
- polycythemia
160
what aer the 2 stains used in a Romanowsky stain
- methylene blue
| - eosin
161
microaerophile conditions
3-10% oxygen (nothing higher or lower)
162
what can a ASOT test help diagnose
- strep throat
| - rheumatic fever
163
what is a TREND on a Levy Jennings chart
6 or more results increasingly higher or lower
164
facultative anaerobe/anaerotolerant aerobe conditions
prefer 21% oxygen
| but can live in less
165
what layers are in a green top tube after centrifuging
+/- 55% plasma
buffy coat
+/- 45% formed elements
166
what test help diagnose polycythemia
CBC
167
a visceral serous membrane surrounds what
external surface of organs
168
what does Vitamin K do for clotting
needed for prothrombin syntheses
169
what does bilirubin in urine indicate
liver disease/hepatic dysfunction
