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Physio (self) > Special Senses (MCQ) > Flashcards

Special Senses (MCQ) Flashcards

1
Q
  1. This is responsible for high visual acuity and color vision, and works best under daylight condition.
    A) Rods
    B) Cones
    C) Pupil
    D) Retina
A

B) Cones

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2
Q
  1. Extraocular muscles of the eyes are innervated by these nerves, except:
    A) CN III
    B) CN IV
    C) CN V
    D) CN VI
A

C) CN V

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3
Q
  1. The pupillary dilator that controls the amount of light entering the eye is activated by:
    A) Sympathetic nervous system
    B) Parasympathetic nervous system
    C) Autonomic nervous system
    D) Baroreceptor reflex
A

A) Sympathetic nervous system

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4
Q
  1. Which is TRUE about lens:
    A) It is the major refractive element of the eye
    B) It assumes spherical shape when ciliary muscles are relaxed
    C) It is responsible for adjusting the optical focus of the eye
    D) All are correct
A

D) All are correct

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5
Q
  1. Which statement is FALSE?
    A) Pupillary constriction occurs when the eye accommodates for near vision
    B) Proper imaging of light on the retina depends only on both the lens and cornea
    C) Contraction of ciliary muscle reduces tension on suspensory ligaments allowing lens to be
    more spherical in shape
    D) The “blind spot” is the area where there are no receptors as optic nerves leaves the retina
A

B) Proper imaging of light on the retina depends only on both the lens and cornea

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6
Q

Which neurotransmitter is released by both rods and cones at their synapses with bipolar cells?
A) Acetylcholine
B) Dopamine
C) Glutamate
D) Glycine
E) Serotonin

A

C) Glutamate

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7
Q

Light entering the eye passes through which retinal layer first?
A) Inner nuclear layer
B) Outer nuclear layer
C) Outer plexiform layer
D) Photoreceptor layer
E) Retinal ganglion layer

A

E) Retinal ganglion layer

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8
Q
  1. Which of the following provides about two thirds of the 59 diopters of refractive power of the
    eye?
    A) Anterior surface of the cornea
    B) Anterior surface of the lens
    C) Iris
    D) Posterior surface of the cornea
    E) Posterior surface of the lens
A

A) Anterior surface of the cornea

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9
Q
  1. Which photoreceptor responds to the broadest spectrum of wavelengths of light?
    A) Rod receptors
    B) Green cone receptors
    C) Blue cone receptors
    D) Red cone receptors
    E) Cells containing melanin in the pigment layer
A

D) Red cone receptors

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10
Q
  1. Which structure secretes the intraocular fluid of the eye?
    A) Ciliary processes
    B) Cornea
    C) Iris
    D) Lens
    E) Trabeculae
A

A) Ciliary processes

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11
Q
  1. What cells in the retina respond to color?
    A. Cones
    B. Pupils
    C. Rods
    D. Iris
A

Cones

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12
Q
  1. The visual pigment found in the outer segments of rods is
    A) visual red
    B) visual blue
    C) visual purple
    D) visual green
A

C) visual purple

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13
Q
  1. Rod vision is operative, visual acuity is low and colors are not distinguished
    A. Scotopic vision
    B. Photopic vision
    C. Mesopic vision
    D. Color vision
A

Scotopic vision

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14
Q
  1. The following are true about cones EXCEPT
    A. Cones have higher threshold to light and thus are not activated in dim light after dark adaptation
    B. Cones have more visual pigment and a better signal amplification system than rods
    C. Cones operate very well in daylight.
    D. All of the above
A

All of the above

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15
Q
  1. The following are true about rods EXCEPT
    A. Rods function better in dim light
    B. All rods contain the same visual pigment, so they cannot signal color differences
    C. In bright light, most rhodopsin is bleached, so that rods no longer function under photopic conditions
    D. All of these are true
A

All of these are true

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16
Q
  1. Which retinal cells are most likely to have action potentials?
    A) Bipolar cells
    B) Ganglion cells
    C) Horizontal cells
    D) Photoreceptors
A

B) Ganglion cells

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17
Q
  1. Which of the following structures provides a gating function for transmission of the visual signal from the retina to the central nervous system?
    A) Lateral geniculate nucleus
    B) Optic radiation
    C) Optic chiasm
    D) Optic nerve
    E) Visual cortex
A

A) Lateral geniculate nucleus

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18
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes the electrical response of rods in the retina to photopic conditions?
    A) Action potential
    B) Capacitive discharge
    C) Depolarization
    D) Hyperpolarization
A

D) Hyperpolarization

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19
Q
  1. A 43-year-old man wakes up at night and turns on a light. Which of the following substances is most likely to increase in the rods of the retina when the man is exposed to photopic
    conditions?
    A) cAMP
    B) cGMP
    C) Metarhodopsin II
    D) Rhodopsin
    E) Vitamin A
A

C) Metarhodopsin II

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20
Q
  1. Which cell type(s) have action potentials in the retina of the human eye?
    A) Bipolar cells and ganglion cells
    B) Bipolar cells only
    C) Bipolar cells, horizontal cells, and ganglion cells
    D) Ganglion cells and horizontal cells
    E) Ganglion cells only
    F) Horizontal cells only
A

E) Ganglion cells only

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21
Q

The Pretectum activates the ____________ of the Edinger - Westphal Nucleus
A. Sympathetic Preganglionic
B. Sympathetic Postganglionic
C. Parasympathetic Preganglionic
D. Parasympathetic Postganglionic

A

Parasympathetic Preganglionic

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22
Q

The Pretectal Areas are interconnected via the posterior commissure, the corresponding reflex produced is:
A. Ipsilateral Only
B. Contralateral Only
C. Both
D. None of the above

A

Both

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23
Q
  1. The projection that connects to the hypothalamus and controls circadian rhythmicity
    A. Suprachiasmatic Nucleus
    B. Superior Colliculus
    C. Pretectum
    D. None of the above
A

Suprachiasmatic Nucleus

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24
Q
  1. The superior colliculus is important for certain eye movements, it is located in the _________
    A. Pons
    B. Temporal Lobe
    C. Midbrain
    D. Cerebral Cortex
A

Midbrain

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25
Q
  1. This occurs in response to light being shown in one eye
    A. Pupillary Constriction of one eye
    B. Pupillary Constriction of both eyes
    C. Pupillary Dilation of the opposite eye
    D. None of the above
A

Pupillary Constriction of both eyes

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26
Q
  1. Structure responsible for adjusting the optical focus of the eye?
    A. Iris
    B. Pupils
    C. Cornea
    D. Lens
A

Lens

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27
Q
  1. Extraocular muscle of the eye innervated by CN IV?
    A. Inferior Oblique
    B. Superior Oblique
    C. Medial rectus
    D. Lateral rectus
A

Superior Oblique

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28
Q
  1. Basic types of strabismus, EXCEPT:
    A. Horizontal strabismus
    B. Vertical strabismus
    C. Torsional strabismus
    D. Diagonal strabismus
A

Diagonal strabismus

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29
Q
  1. The sympathetic nerves to the eye are occasionally interrupted. Interruption frequently occurs
    in the cervical sympathetic chain which causes what?
    A. Patrick’s syndrome
    B. Grey’s syndrome
    C. Maynard’s syndrome
    D. Horner’s syndrome
A

Horner’s syndrome

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30
Q
  1. It refers to the ability of the eye to adjust to different distances of light source while
    maintaining focal length
    A. Acclimatization
    B. Adaptation
    C. Accommodation
    D. Acculturation
A

Accommodation

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31
Q
  1. This retinal projection bilaterally activates parapsympathetic ganglionic neuorons in the Edinger-Westphal Nucleus.
    a. pretectum
    b. supra-chiasmatic nucleus
    c. supra-optic nucleus
    d. optic tract
A

a. pretectum

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32
Q
  1. The pretectal areas are also interconnected through the ________, thus reflex causes both ipsilateral and contralateral pupillary constriction when a light is shown in one eye.
    a. posterior commissure
    b. anterior commissure
    c. lateral geniculate body
    d. medial geniculate body
A

a. posterior commissure

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33
Q
  1. This reflex causes pupillary constriction on the other eye when light is shown in other eye.
    a. consensual reflex
    b. direct light reflex
    c. ipsilateral reflex
    d. reflex arc
A

a. consensual reflex

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34
Q
  1. This nucleus controls the circadian rhythmicity.
    a. suprachiasmatic nucleus
    b. pre-optic nucleus
    c. supra-optic nucleus
    d. anterior nucleus
A

a. suprachiasmatic nucleus

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35
Q
  1. This structure of the midbrain is a layered structure that is important for certain types of eye movements.
    a. superior colliculus
    b. inferior colliculus
    c. ponto-medullary junction
    d. optic tract
A

a. superior colliculus

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36
Q

Retinal ganglion cell transmit information to the brain by way of optic nerve, optic chiasm and?
a. Pre-optic Nucleus
b. Retina
c. Primary visual cortex
d. Optic tract

A

d. Optic tract

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37
Q
  1. Axons from temporal portion of each retina pass through the lateral side of the optic chiasm and terminates in the brain?
    a. ipsilaterally
    b. contralaterally
    c. bilaterally
    d. All of the above
A

a. ipsilaterally

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38
Q
  1. The Lateral geniculate body projects to primary visual cortex by way of?
    a. Cuneus gyrus
    b. Visual Radiation
    c. Optic chiasm
    d. Thalamus
A

b. Visual Radiation

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39
Q
  1. The type of retinal cell which is phasic, nonlinear and with larger receptive fields that conveys information about illumination and movement
    a. P Cells
    b. W Cells
    c. M Cells
    D. Both A and B
A

c. M Cells

40
Q
  1. The lower half of visual field is represented in cuneus gyrus above the calcarine sulcus.
    Upper half of the visual field is represented in lingual gyrus below the sulcus
    a. Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect
    b. Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is incorrect
    c. both statements are correct
    d. Both statements are incorrect
A

c. both statements are correct

41
Q
  1. Primary sensations are all except
    A.sour
    B. Salty
    C.umami
    D. Hot
A

D. Hot

42
Q
  1. Umami?
    A. HCL
    B. Organic sibstance
    C. Monosodium glutamate
    D. Sodium
A

C. Monosodium glutamate

43
Q
  1. Chemoreceptors are located in
    A. Hair cells
    B. Umbrella cells
    C. Taste buds
    D Supporting cells
A

C. Taste buds

44
Q
  1. Taste perception with second messengers
    A. Salty
    B. Sour
    C. Bitter
    D. Umami
A

C. Bitter

45
Q
  1. Receptor protein of sweet and bitter
    A. Ion channels
    B. Second messengers
    C. Facilitated diffusion
    D. Specific receptors
A

B. Second messengers

46
Q
  1. Receptor protein of salty and sour.
    A. Ion channels
    B. Second messengers
    C. Facilitated diffusion
    D. Specific receptors
A

A. Ion channels

47
Q
  1. Mechanism by which taste buds adapt
    A. Old age
    B. Previous experiences
    C. Number of receptors
    D. Neurotransmitters
A

B. Previous experiences

48
Q
  1. Types of taste buds except
    A. Curcumvallate
    B. Foliate
    C. Fungiform
    D. Felatio
A

D. Felatio

49
Q
  1. Nerve for posterior 1/3 of the tongue
    A. Chorda tympani
    B. Glossopharyngeal
    C. Hypoglossal
    D. Vagus
A

B. Glossopharyngeal

50
Q
  1. Where are the receptor cells located
    A. Apex
    B. Base
    C. Olfactory mucosa
    D. Supporting cell
A

A. Apex

51
Q
  1. How many days does the chemoreceptor cells live?
    A. 7
    B. 10
    C. 12
    D. 14
A

B. 10

52
Q
  1. Taste buds are innervated by the following except:
    A. Facial
    B. Trigeminal
    C.Vagus
    D.Hypoglossal
A

D.Hypoglossal

53
Q
  1. What carries the axons to the olfactory area of the cerebral cortex
    A. Mitral cells
    B. Medial stria
    C. Lateral stria
    D. Parahippocampal gyrus
A

C. Lateral stria

54
Q
  1. Olfactory chemo receptors are what type of nerve cells
    A.Unipolar
    B.Bipolar
    C. Mutipolar
    D. Pseudobipolar
A

B.Bipolar

55
Q
  1. Part of the ethmoid bone through which part the olfactory filaments pass through
    A. Perpendicular plate
    B. Crista galli
    C. Cribiform plate
    D. Superior Nasal Meatus
A

C. Cribiform plate

56
Q
  1. The granule and periglomerular cells are excitatory interneurons
    A. True
    B. False
A

B. False

57
Q
  1. What receives input from olfactory bulb
    A. Anterior olfactory nucleus
    B. Lateral olfactory striae
    C. medial olfactory striae
    D. Prepiriform cortex
A

A. Anterior olfactory nucleus

58
Q
  1. The odor receptors represent the largest population of g protein-coupled receptors in the genome
    A. False
    B. True
A

B. True

59
Q
  1. These are located at the apical surface of the chemoreceptors that detect odorant chemicals
    A. Cilia
    B. Motile cilia
    C. Nonmotile cilia
    D. Hair cells
A

C. Nonmotile cilia

60
Q
  1. Influx of odorants can be increased through
    A. Tasting
    B. Feeding
    C. Sight
    D. Sniffing
A

D. Sniffing

61
Q
  1. Which is not part of vestibular system ?
    A.semicircular canals
    B.auricle
    C.utricle
    D.membranous labyrinth
A

D.membranous labyrinth

62
Q
  1. In the vestibular apparatus which sense the pirouette movt?
    A.Horizontal
    B. Anterior
    C. Posterior
    D. Lateral
A

A.Horizontal

63
Q
  1. What is the olith that is oriented vertically?
    A.semicircular canals
    B.auricle
    C.utricle
    D. saccule
A

D. saccule

64
Q
  1. What fluid has low potassium and high sodium?
    A. Endolymph
    B. Perilymph
    C. Interstitial
    D. Synovial
A

B. Perilymph

65
Q
  1. What surface does the vestibular cells be found?
    A. Basolateral
    B. Lateral
    C. Apical
    D. Basal
A

C. Apical

66
Q
  1. What is the epithelium found in the ampulla?
    A. Maculi utricali
    B. Macula succuli
    C. Ampullary Crest
    D. Stereocilia
A

C. Ampullary Crest

67
Q
  1. What is the unit of sound frequency measured at cycles per second?
    a.) Ampere
    b.) Decibel
    c.) Pascal
    d.) Hertz
A

d.) Hertz

68
Q
  1. What is the unit of sound pressure level?
    a.) Ampere
    b.) Decibel
    c.) Pascal
    d.) Hertz
A

b.) Decibel

69
Q
  1. What cranial nerve is responsible for the auditory and vestibular systems?
    a.) Trigeminal nerve (CN V)
    b.) Abducens nerve (CN VI)
    c.) trochlear nerve (CN IV)
    d.) Vestibulocochlear (CN VIII)
A

d.) Vestibulocochlear (CN VIII)

70
Q
  1. Auditory and vestibular systems consist of labyrinths. What are the 2 types of composition of those labyrinths?
    a.) Collagen and fibrous
    b.) Bony and membranous
    c.) Bony and collagenous
    d.) Bony and fibrous
A

b.) Bony and membranous

71
Q
  1. Which decibel (dB) level greater than the value below can damage peripheral auditory
    apparatus?
    a.) 90 dB
    b.) 70 dB
    c.) 100 dB
    d.) 20 dB
A

c.) 100 dB

72
Q
  1. It is an aged related hearing loss
    a.) vestibular neuronitis
    b.) otitis media
    c.) Presbycusis
    d.) Rubella
A

c.) Presbycusis

73
Q
  1. Sound transduction refers to the process of converting ____________ into _______ that can be processed by the brain
    a) Sound waves; electrical signals
    b) Electrical signals; sound waves
    c) Neural impulses; auditory impulses
    d) None of these is correct
A

a) Sound waves; electrical signals

74
Q
  1. Which of the following is an incorrect step in the process of sound transduction?
    a) The ripples create waves that move the hair cell bundles**.
    b) The neurotransmitters produce an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) in the cochlear afferent nerve fibers
    c) The 2 bones increase the sound vibration and send it to the Cochlea,
    d) When a sound is created, sound waves are made in the air.
A

c) The 2 bones increase the sound vibration and send it to the Cochlea,

75
Q
  1. The eardrum is also known as __________
    a) Basilar Membrane
    b) Cochlea
    c) Tympanic Membrane
    d) Incus
A

c) Tympanic Membrane

76
Q
  1. During sound transduction, action potential is generated when neurotransmitters produce
    what type of postsynaptic potential in the cochlear afferent nerve fibers?
    A. Excitatory
    B. Inhibitory
    C. Excitatory and Inhibitory
    D. No synapse happens during sound transduction.
A

Excitatory

77
Q

17.Hair cell bundles in the ear are located in ____________
a) Incus
b) Organ of Corti
c) Malleus
d) Stapes

A

b) Organ of Corti

78
Q
  1. What theory asserts that different parts of the cochlea are activated by different frequencies?
    a) Place Theory of Hearing
    b) Duplex Theory
    c) Frequency theory of Hearing
    d) Tuning Curve
A

a) Place Theory of Hearing

79
Q
  1. The Auditory radiation ends in the?
    a) primary auditory cortex (Brodmann 41 and 42)
    b) Primary auditory cortex (Brodmann 44 and 45)
    c) Primary auditory cortex (Brodmann 17)
    d) Primary visual cortex (Brodmann 17)
A

a) primary auditory cortex (Brodmann 41 and 42)

80
Q
  1. Cochlear afferent fibers synapse on neurons of the?
    a) Ventral cochlear nuclei
    b) Dorsal cochlear nuclei
    c) Dorsal and ventral cochlear nuclei
    d) Anterior and posterior cochlear nuclei
A

c) Dorsal and ventral cochlear nuclei

81
Q
  1. What is found in the cochlear nuclei, superior Olivary complex, inferior colliculus, medial geniculate nucleus and auditory cortex?
    a) Receptive fields
    b) Tonotopic maps
    c) Receptive fields and tonotopic maps
    d) Binaural receptive fields
A

b) Tonotopic maps

82
Q
  1. Binaural receptive fields contributes to?
    a) Sound waves
    b) Sound localisation
    c) Auditory Processing
    d) Auditory Stimulation
A

b) Sound localisation

83
Q
  1. What columns is more responsive to binaural than monaural input?
    a) Summation columns
    b) Suppression Columns
    c) Isofrequency Columns
    d) Expression columns
A

a) Summation columns

84
Q
  1. What columns is less responsive to binaural than monaural stimulation?
    a) Summation columns
    b) Suppression Columns
    c) Isofrequency Columns
    d) Expression columns
A

b) Suppression Columns

85
Q
  1. In vestibular transduction, what happens when hair cells are hyperpolarized?
    a) Increased firing rate, less NT release
    b) Decreased firing rate, more NT release
    c) Increased firing rate, more NT release
    d) Decreased firing rate, less NT release
A

d) Decreased firing rate, less NT release

86
Q
  1. If there is acceleration towards the right, to which direction will the inertia of the endolymph increase pressure?
    a) Right
    b) Both directions
    c) Left
    d) Neither
A

c) Left

87
Q
  1. Which otolith organ has polarized hair cells moving towards the striola?
    a) utricle
    b) saccule
    c) cochlea
    d) cupula
A

a) utricle

88
Q
  1. Where can the vestibular nuclei be found?
    a) Pons
    b) Medulla
    c) Cerebellum
    d) all of the above
A

d) all of the above

89
Q
  1. How do vestibular nuclei exert control over eye movements?
    a) By projections to the Optic Nuclei
    b) By projections to the Oculomotor Nuclei
    c) By projections to the Trochlear Nuclei
    d) By projections to the Opthalmic division of the Trigeminal Nerve
A

b) By projections to the Oculomotor Nuclei

90
Q
  1. A waxy protective substance produced by the glands found in the auditory canal?
    a) Perilymph
    b) Endolymph
    c) Cerulem
    d) Cerumen
A

c) Cerulem

91
Q
  1. The structure that separates the external ear from the middle ear?
    a) Semicircular Canals
    b) Tympanic Membrane
    c) Vestibule
    d) Cochlea
A

b) Tympanic Membrane

92
Q
  1. The number of ossicles present behind the eardrum?
    a) 4
    b) 3
    c) 2
    d) 1
A

b) 3

93
Q
  1. It is known as the fluid filled component of the inner ear; found behind the oval window?
    a) Saccule
    b) Utricle
    c) Vestibule
    d) Scala tympani
A

c) Vestibule

94
Q
  1. What are the two muscles found in the middle ear?
    a) Tensor veli palatani & Tensor tympani
    b) Stapes & Vestibule
    c) Stapedius & Malleus
    d) Tensor Tympani & Stapedius
A

d) Tensor Tympani & Stapedius

95
Q
  1. In humans, the auditory canal has a resonant frequency of how many Hz?
    a) 2500 Hz
    b) 3000 Hz
    c) 3500 Hz
    d) 4000 Hz
A

c) 3500 Hz

Physio (self) (17 decks)

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