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Physio (self) > 7th Physiology Lecture Exam - Endocrine (Batch 2025) COPY > Flashcards

7th Physiology Lecture Exam - Endocrine (Batch 2025) COPY Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following statements are true of adrenomedullary catecholamines?
    A. They are secreted in the blood and acts as hormones
    B. Majority of the circulating norepinephrine originates from the medullary cells
    C. Majority of circulating norepinephrine are released from postganglionic neuron
    D. The adrenal medulla is the sole source of catecholamine
A

A. They are secreted in the blood and acts as hormones

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2
Q
  1. Secretions of catecholamines from adrenal medulla are primarily regulated through?
    A. Ascending sympathetic signals in response to stress
    B. Initiation of the sympathetic response is by the cerebral cortex, limbic system, hypothalamus and brainstem
    C. The hypothalamus and brainstem received input from cerebral cortex, limbic system and brainstem
    D. The chromaffin cells received chemical signals via muscarinic receptors
A

C. The hypothalamus and brainstem received input from cerebral cortex, limbic system and brainstem

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3
Q
  1. Acetylcholine influences chromaffin cells activity by:
    A. Secretions from post ganglionic sympathetic neurons and binding to chromaffin cells
    B. Increasing the rate limiting enzyme in the chromaffin cell
    C. Stimulating the formation of the chromaffin granules
A

B. Increasing the rate limiting enzyme in the chromaffin cell

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4
Q
  1. During the enzymatic process of epinephrine synthesis, this diffuses out of the chromaffin granules and is methylated by PNMT?
    A. Dihydroxyphenylalanine
    B. Dopamine
    C. Norepinephrine
    D. Epinephrine
A

C. Norepinephrine

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5
Q
  1. Epinephrine is more potent the norepinephrine for?
    A. a1 receptors
    B. a2 receptors
    C. B1 receptors
    D. B2 receptors
A

D. B2 receptors

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6
Q
  1. Adrenomedullary response can precede actual stress mainly due to the involvement of the:
    A. Cerebral cortex
    B. Hypothalamus
    C. Limbic system
    D. Brainstem
A

A. Cerebral cortex

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following stimuli evoke a stronger adrenomedullary response than a sympathetic nervous response?
    A. Fear
    B. Exercise
    C. Pain
    D. Hypovolemia
A

D. Hypovolemia

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8
Q
  1. What would be the effect of cortisol percolating through the chromaffin cells before draining into the suprarenal vein?
    A. The formation of neurons and axons from medullary cells
    B. Stimulation of medullary cells to undergo neuronal differentiation
    C. Convert norepinephrine to epinephrine
    D. Inhibit conversion of norepinephrine form dopamine
A

C. Convert norepinephrine to epinephrine

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9
Q
  1. Sympathoadrenal response during exercise include?
    A. Inhibiting glucagon secretion and stimulating insulin secretion
    B. Decreasing hepatic glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis
    C. Constriction of the bronchial smooth muscle
    D. Decrease overall motility of GI and GU smooth muscles
A

D. Decrease overall motility of GI and GU smooth muscles

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10
Q
  1. Which of the following is increased when ACTH stimulates the zona fasciculata?
    A. Low density lipoprotein particles binding to LDL receptors
    B. Lysosomal lipase releases cholesterol from cholesterol esters
    C. Hormone sensitive lipase (HSL) converts stored cholesterol into free cholesterol
    D. Niemann-Pick C proteins transport free cholesterol from endolysosomes
A

C. Hormone sensitive lipase (HSL) converts stored cholesterol into free cholesterol

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11
Q
  1. 11B-HSO2 reversibly convert cortisol to cortisone in the cells that express:
    A. Glucocorticoid receptor
    B. Muscarinic receptor
    C. Mineralocorticoid receptor
    D. Nicotinic receptor
A

B. Muscarinic receptor

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12
Q
  1. Cortisol as a stress hormone, during the interdigestive period, regulates blood sugar by?
    A. Stimulating glycolysis
    B. Increasing glucose uptake in myocytes
    C. Decreasing glucose uptake in adipocytes
    D. Increasing protein synthesis
A

B. Increasing glucose uptake in myocytes

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13
Q
  1. Which of the following are inhibited by glucocorticoids?
    A. Prostaglandins
    B. Leukotrienes
    C. Thromboxane
    D. Phospholipase A2
A

D. Phospholipase A2

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14
Q
  1. Which one will increase the immune system with high cortisol levels?
    A. T-Lymphocytes
    B. Pro inflammatory cytokines
    C. Anti inflammatory cytokines
    D. Antibody production
A

C. Anti inflammatory cytokines

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15
Q
  1. What is the effect of cortisol in the GI tract?
    A. Decrease GI motility
    B. increase acid and enzyme production
    C. Decrease appetite
    D. Protect against ulcers
A

A. Decrease GI motility

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16
Q
  1. This is caused by excess ACTH acting on MC1R and often precedes all other symptoms of Addison’s disease?
    A. Dehydration
    B. Hypertension
    C. Hyperpigmentation
    D. Orthostasis
A

C. Hyperpigmentation

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17
Q
  1. Hypotension in Addison’s disease is due to?
    A. Aldosterone
    B. Volume depletion
    C. Cortisol
    D. Catecholamine
A

B. Volume depletion

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18
Q
  1. The effect of adrenocortical insufficiency in male includes:
    A. Hirsutism
    B. Amenorrhea
    C. Hyperprolactinemia
    D. Impotence
A

D. Impotence

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19
Q
  1. Which of the following criteria in interpreting rapid adrenocorticotropic hormone tests denotes abnormal adrenal function?
    A. An increase in the baseline cortisol value of 7 mcg/dl or more
    B. Cortisol value rises to 10 mcg/dl after 30-60mins
    C. Aldosterone baseline value less than 5 ng/100ml
    D. Aldosterone value that doubles after ACTH administration
A

D. Aldosterone value that doubles after ACTH administration

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20
Q
  1. Which one is the primary pharmacotherapy for Addison’s disease?
    A. Glucocorticoids
    B. Mineralocorticoids
    C. Anti TB medications
    D. Glucose supplementation
A

A. Glucocorticoids

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21
Q
  1. Subset of the endocrine system of intracellular enzymes or secreted enzymes that mostly inactivate precursors to highly active hormones?
    A. Atrial natriuretic peptide
    B. Erythropoietin
    C. Angiotensin II
    D. Insulin-like growth factor
A

C. Angiotensin II

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22
Q
  1. Control processes that leads to rupture of the follicle through the ovarian wall?
    A. Positive feedback loop
    B. Physiological response driven feedback loop
    C. Endocrine axis-driven feedback loop
    D. Negative feedback loop
A

A. Positive feedback loop

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23
Q
  1. Which hormone belong in the 2nd tier in the endocrine axis three tiered configuration?
    A. Releasing hormones from the hypothalamus
    B. Tropic hormones from the pituitary
    C. Hormones from the peripheral gland
    D. Ca++, Pi, Blood osmolarity
A

B. Tropic hormones from the pituitary

1: hypothalamus
2: pituitary gland
3: Organ

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24
Q
  1. Tertiary disease of the endocrine system are lesion in the?
    A. Hypothalamus
    B. Anterior Pituitary
    C. Posterior Pituitary
    D. Peripheral endocrine glands
A

A. Hypothalamus

1: Gland (Organ)
2: Pituitary
3: Hypothalamus

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25
Q
  1. Impose a daily rhythm to secretion of hypothalamic releasing hormones
    A. Paracellular neurons
    B. Magnocellular neurons
    C. Suprachiasmatic neurons
    D. Supraoptic nuclei
A

C. Suprachiasmatic neurons

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26
Q
  1. Damage to the pituitary stalk will have a decline in which pituitary tropic hormone?
    A. ACTH
    B. TSH
    C. Vasopressin
    D. FSH
A

C. Vasopressin

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27
Q
  1. Activity of a specific endocrine axis is maintained on a set point, which is?
    A. The same for individuals
    B. Determined by negative feedback
    C. Function autonomously
    D. Excludes hypothalamic function
A

B. Determined by negative feedback

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28
Q
  1. Which of the following has minimal influence on the set point of the endocrine function of the individual?
    A. Exercise
    B. Hypoglycemia
    C. Growth
    D. Puberty
A

C. Growth

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29
Q
  1. Endocrine deficiencies that are most severe?
    A. Primary
    B. Secondary
    C. Tertiary
    D. All of the above
A

A. Primary

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30
Q
  1. Requirement for hormonal action?
    A. Hormone/receptor internalization
    B. Proteasomal action on the receptor
    C. Generation of feedback inhibitors
    D. Inactivated intracellular messengers
A

A. Hormone/receptor internalization

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31
Q
  1. During the fasting state, blood glucose is maintained by?
    A. Glucose utilization
    B. Hepatic glucose production
    C. FFA production
    D. Muscle build up
A

B. Hepatic glucose production

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32
Q
  1. Dominant during the digestive phase of metabolism?
    A. Glucagon
    B. Epinephrine
    C. Insulin
    D. Cortisol
A

C. Insulin

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33
Q
  1. Absolutely dependent on glucose?
    A. Hepatocytes
    B. Erythrocytes
    C. Enterocytes
    D. Adipocytes
A

B. Erythrocytes

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34
Q
  1. Activation of Akt protein kinase will?
    A. Translocate Glut2 in myocytes and adipocytes
    B. Activate proteasomal degradation of protein
    C. Inhibition of de novo lipogenesis
A

B. Activate proteasomal degradation of protein

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35
Q
  1. Action of hepatocytes during the fasting state?
    A. Utilization of glucose for ATP
    B. Store glucose as glycogen
    C. Synthesis of glucose from precursors
    D. Make FFA from glucose
A

C. Synthesis of glucose from precursors

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36
Q
  1. Glucose during the fasting phase with adipocytes?
    A. Increase glucose uptake
    B. ATP utilization of glucose
    C. Utilization for G6P of glucose
    D. Use of alternative fuels
A

D. Use of alternative fuels

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37
Q
  1. FFA with hepatocytes during fasting phase?
    A. De novo lipogenesis
    B. Uptake of chylomicron remnants
    C. Esterify FFAs into intrahepatic TG
    D. Utilization to produce KB
A

D. Utilization to produce KB

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38
Q
  1. Glucose during fasting phase in myocytes?
    A. Use of alternative fuels
    B. Utilization for ATP
    C. Stored as glycogen
    D. Increase uptake
A

A. Use of alternative fuels

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39
Q
  1. Primary effect of glucagon?
    A. Enhance glycogenolysis in myocytes
    B. Increase fatty acyl oxidation in myocytes
    C. Increase hormone sensitive lipase in adipocytes
    D. Increase glycogenolysis in hepatocytes
A

D. Increase glycogenolysis in hepatocytes

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40
Q
  1. Stimuli that inhibits insulin secretion?
    A. Increase serum glucose
    B. Activation of a2 adrenergic receptors
    C. Increase levels of amino acids
    D. Release of incretin hormones
A

B. Activation of a2 adrenergic receptors

Pre-synapse: CNS
Vasodilation(Dec. NE/EPI/Insulin)
Sedation
Depression

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41
Q
  1. This hormone recruits several large antral follicles to begin gonadotropin-dependent growth during the first few days of the female menstrual cycle:
    A. Estrogen
    B. FSH
    C. LH
    D. Progesterone
A

B. FSH

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42
Q
  1. Which of the following structures is the source of progesterone and estrogen during the secretory phase of the menstrual cycle?
    A. Dominant follicle
    B. Growing antral follicle
    C. Primordial follicle
    D. Corpus luteum
A

D. Corpus luteum (7)

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43
Q
  1. The reproductive lifespan of a woman is determined by which of the following?
    A. Lifespan of corpus luteum
    B. Amount of estrogen secreted by ovaries
    C. Ovarian reserve of follicles
    D. Number of dominant follicle produced
A

C. Ovarian reserve of follicles

44
Q
  1. This process helps select the dominant follicle from the crop of recruited antral follicle:
    A. Decline in estrogen
    B. Decline in FSH
    C. Increase in LH
    D. Increase in progesterone
A

B. Decline in FSH

45
Q
  1. Significant ovarian steroidogenesis BEGINS at what stage of follicular development?
    A. Antral follicle
    B. Corpus luteum
    C. Dominant follicle
    D. Preantral follicle
A

C. Dominant follicle (5)

46
Q
  1. The cause of regression and death of the corpus luteum after 14 days in the absence of a pregnancy is a DECREASE in:
    A. FSH
    B. LH
    C. Estrogen
    D. Progesterone
A

B. LH

47
Q
  1. The MAIN PURPOSE of the secretory phase of the menstrual cycle is to:
    A. Recruit more antral follicles for gonadotropin-dependent growth
    B. Ovulate the mature dominant follicle
    C. Inhibit the gonadotropes from synthesizing more hormones
    D. Prepare the uterine endometrium for implantation and pregnancy
A

D. Prepare the uterine endometrium for implantation and pregnancy

48
Q
  1. A sudden drop of this hormone is the cause of premenstrual syndrome (PMS)
    A. Progesterone
    B. Estrogen
    C. FSH
    D. LH
A

A. Progesterone

49
Q
  1. Which of the following is an effect of progesterone?
    A. Causes proliferative changes in the endometrium
    B. Promotes development of ductal system in the breast
    C. Decrease frequency and intensity of uterine contractions
    D. Decrease secretion in endometrium and oviducts
A

C. Decrease frequency and intensity of uterine contractions

50
Q
  1. With the death of the corpus luteum after 14 days, shedding of the endometrium occurs and menstruation ensues because of the:
    A. Sudden decline in progesterone and estrogen
    B. Sudden decline of LH and FSH
    C. Rise in FSH secretion
    D. Rise in estrogen production
A

A. Sudden decline in progesterone and estrogen

51
Q
  1. One of the following is a physiologic effect of estrogen:
    A. Increase nitric oxide and cause vasodilation
    B. Promotes abdominal fat deposition
    C. Increase LDL and decreases HDL
    D. Promotes resorption and inhibits bone formation
A

A. Increase nitric oxide and cause vasodilation

52
Q
  1. M(l)enopause is characterized by AN INCREASE in which of the following?
    A. Estrogen
    B. Progesterone
    C. FSH
    D. LH
A

D. LH

53
Q
  1. This hormone is required for the Corpus luteum to function and persist:
    A. Estrogen
    B. Progesterone
    C. FSH
    D. LH
A

D. LH

54
Q
  1. If fertilization does occur, which of the following hormones “rescues” the corpus luteum from involution allowing it to persist for the first few months of pregnancy?
    A. Estrogen
    B. Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)
    C. Human placental lactogen (HPL)
    D. Progesterone
A

B. Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)

55
Q
  1. This is an absolute requirement for ovulation to occur:
    A. Release of inhibin
    B. Decline in progesterone
    C. LH surge
    D. Rise in FSH
A

C. LH surge

56
Q

56.What is the True statement regarding the thyroid gland?
A. It is drained by two sets of thyroid veins on each side
B. It receives a sympathetic innervation that is vasomotor
C. It receives a sympathetic innervation that is secretomotor
D. The lobes are connected by midventral lingula

A

B. It receives a sympathetic innervation that is vasomotor

57
Q
  1. What is the major (90%) iodothyronine produces by the thyroid gland?
    A. 3,5,3,5’ tetraiodothyronine
    B. 5,3,5,3’ tetraiodothyronine
    C. 3,3,5’ triiodothyronine
    D. 3,5,3’ triiodothyronine
A

A. 3,5,3,5’ tetraiodothyronine

58
Q
  1. What enzyme is produced in the glial cells in the CNS and thyrotropes of the pituitary which acts as a “thyroid axis sensor”?
    A. Type 2 deiodinase
    B. Type 4 deiodinase
    C. Type 3 deiodinase
    D. Type 1 deiodinase
A

A. Type 2 deiodinase

BRAIN/PITUITARY/BROWN FAT

59
Q
  1. What enzyme is produced in the thyroid and is responsible for conversion of T4 to T3 in the liver, kidneys and skeletal muscle?
    A. Type 3 deiodinase
    B. Type 1 deiodinase
    C. Type 4 deiodinase
    D. Type 2 deiodinase
A

B. Type 1 deiodinase

60
Q

60.This enzyme converts T4 to reverseT3 which is increased during hyperthyroidism.
A. Type 1 deiodinase
B. Type 2 deiodinase
C. Type 4 deiodinase
D. Type 3 deiodinase

A

D. Type 3 deiodinase

61
Q

61.What process is the ability to trap and incorporate iodine into thyroglobulin?
A. Incorporation
B. Acidification
C. Iodination
D. Organification

A

D. Organification

62
Q
  1. A patient with a thyroid condition is under your care underwent RAIU. To can confirm hyperthyroidism, what should be his RAIU result?
    A. more than 50% after 24 hours
    B. more than 15% after 24 hours
    C. More than 60% after 24 hours
    D. more than 25% after 24 hours
A

C. More than 60% after 24 hours

63
Q
  1. Your patient suffering from Grave’s disease. What will have RAIU result?
    A. 6 hours and 24 hours will be both low
    B. 6 hours is low and 24 hours is high
    C. 6 hours and 24 hours will be both high
    D. 6 hours is high and 24 hours is low
A

D. 6 hours is high and 24 hours is low

64
Q
  1. A patient came in with tremors, palpitations, bulging eyes and is sweaty. If you are considering Hyperthyroidism, what would be the result of his thyroid work-up?
    A. Low TSH, high T3 and T4
    B. Normal TSH, high T3 and low T4
    C. Normal TSH, low T3 and high T4
    D. High TSH, low T3 and T4
A

A. Low TSH, high T3 and T4

65
Q
  1. A patient came in with facial and pedal edema, coarse skin, brittle nails and noted to be constipated. You suspect a primary hypothyroidism. What will you expect her thyroid work-up to be ?
    A. High TSH, low T3 and high T4
    B. Low TSH, high T3 and low T4
    C. High TSH, both T3 and T4 are low
    D. Normal TSH , both T3 and T4 are low
A

C. High TSH, both T3 and T4 are low

66
Q
  1. What is the minimum daily Iodine requirement of pregnant women?
    A. 120 ug
    B. 90 ug
    C. 200 ug
    D. 150 ug
A

C. 200 ug

67
Q
  1. What is the average daily Iodine intake of a person?
    A. 150ug
    B. 400 ug
    C. 200 ug
    D. 100 ug
A

B. 400 ug

68
Q
  1. What is the most common cause of hypothyroidism in Iodine-sufficient areas?
    A. Congenital hypothyroidism
    B. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
    C. Iodine excess
    D. Ectopic thyroid
A

B. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

69
Q
  1. What protein binds most of the Thyroid hormones?
    A. Thyroxine-binding Globulin
    B. Lipoprotein
    C. Albumin
    D. Transthyretin
A

A. Thyroxine-binding Globulin

70
Q
  1. What is the effect of T3 to the cardiac output to ensure sufficient delivery of O2 to the tissues?
    A. Has limiting effect
    B. No effect
    C. Decreases
    D. Increases
A

D. Increases

71
Q

66.What is the effect of thyroid hormone to the heart rate and stroke volume?
A. Decreases
B. Increases
C. No effect
D. Has limiting effect

A

B. Increases

72
Q
  1. What is the effect of thyroid hormone on the lactate-glucose and fatty acid-triglycerides recycling?
    A. Increases
    B. Decreases
    C. Has limiting effect
    D. No effect
A

A. Increases

73
Q
  1. What will be the manifestation of a patient with Hypothyroidism?
    A. heat intolerance
    B. Irritable
    C. Sweaty
    D. cold intolerance
A

D. cold intolerance

74
Q
  1. What is the effect of T3 in the heart beta-
    adrenergic receptor numbers that will enhance sympathetic nervous system activity?
    A. Has limiting effect
    B. Increases
    C. Decreases
    D. No effect
A

B. Increases

75
Q
  1. What is the most common cause of
    hypothyroidism worldwide?
    A. Ectopic thyroid
    B. Hypopituitarism
    C. Congenital anomaly
    D. Iodine deficiency
A

Iodine deficiency

76
Q
  1. What hormone opposes the action of PTH thereby reducing serum calcium?
    A. Cholecalciferol
    B. Calcitriol
    C. 1,2-hydroxyvitamin D
    D. Calcitonin
A

D. Calcitonin

77
Q
  1. Which IS NOT considered as a process of removing calcium and Pi from the blood?
    A. Renal excretion
    B. Osteoblastic action
    C. Osteoclastic action
    D. Bone formation
A

C. Osteoclastic action

78
Q
  1. What hormone decreases serum calcium?
    A. Calcitonin
    B. Calcitriol
    C. Cholecalciferol
    D. 1,2-hydroxyvitamin D
A

A. Calcitonin

79
Q
  1. Aside the bone, what other organ does PTH targets?
    A. Intestine
    B. Kidney
    C. Parathyroid
    D. Skeletal muscle
A

B. Kidney

80
Q
  1. Which cells produce Calcitonin?
    A. Parafolicular cells of parathyroids
    B. Osteoclast
    C. C-cells of Thyroid
    D. Osteoblast
A

C. C-cells of Thyroid

81
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding calcium is a fact?
    A. hypocalcemia results to tetany
    B. hypocalcemia results to decreased neuromuscular activity
    C. hypercalcemia results to tetany
    D. hypercalcemia increases excitability of nerves
A

A. hypocalcemia results to tetany

82
Q
  1. An average adult ingests 1500mg of calcium daily and 200 mg will be absorbed which will be used in bone formation and metabolic processes. How much calcium will be excreted daily in the kidney ?
    A. 1500 mg
    B. 200 mg
    C. 1000 mg
    D. 500 mg
A

B. 200 mg

83
Q
  1. What regulates the level of PTH?
    A. Intracellular Ca++ level
    B. Ca++ in ECF level
    C. Amount of dietary Ca++
    D. Ca++ resorption in the kidneys
A

B. Ca++ in ECF level

84
Q
  1. What condition can decrease calcium resorption in the distal tubule?
    A. Hypocalcemia
    B. Metabolic alkalosis
    C. Phosphate loading
    D. Metabolic acidosis
A

D. Metabolic acidosis

85
Q
  1. Which is the following is NOT a process mediated by calcitonin in relation to Pi ?
    A. inhibit renal excretion
    B. Facilitates bone formation
    C. Increases renal excretion
    D. Decreases plasma Pi
A

A. inhibit renal excretion

86
Q
  1. Aside from bone formation, what is the other primary route of removal of Ca and Pi from the blood?
    A. Liver conjugation
    B. Intestinal excretion
    C. Osteoclastic activity
    D. Renal excretion
A

D. Renal excretion

87
Q
  1. Where does the FIRST hydroxylization of 7-dehydrocholesterol occur?
    A. Parathyroid glands
    B. Duodenum
    C. Kidney
    D. Liver
A

D. Liver

88
Q
  1. The Renal Hydroxylation represent what sequence of hydroxylation of 7-hydroxycholesterol?
    A. Fourth
    B. Third
    C. Second
    D. First
A

C. Second

89
Q
  1. What is the plant based Vitamin D?
    A. Cholecalciferol
    B. Vit D2
    C. Vit D3
    D. 1,2 hydroxyvitamin D
A

B. Vit D2

90
Q
  1. Which of the following choices is true regarding calcitonin?
    A. Increases serum calcium and Pi
    B. Primarily act on the bones and kidneys
    C. Induces bone resorption
    D. Produced in the parathyroid gland
A

B. Primarily act on the bones and kidneys

91
Q
  1. For optimal sperm development, the testes lies outside the body and its temperature is lower by (in degree centigrade)
    A. 4
    B. 3
    C. 1
    D. 2
A

D. 2

92
Q

87.What is the main function of the interstitial cells of Leydig?
A. Assist the spermatogonium to go to the lumen
B. Serve as structural support to spermatocytes
C. Provide nutrition to spermatogonia
D. Produce testosterone

A

D. Produce testosterone

93
Q

88.Aside from the tail of epididymis, where else can viable sperms can be stored for months?
A. Rete testis
B. Body of epididymis
C. Vas deferens
D. Seminal vesicles

A

C. Vas deferens

94
Q

89.Which of the following cells expresses both androgen receptors and FSH receptors?
A. Basal Cells
B. Sperm cells
C. Leydig cells
D. Sertoli Cells

A

D. Sertoli Cells

95
Q
  1. The effect of testosterone on the liver
    A. Decrease IDL
    B. Decrease VLDL
    C. Decrease LDL
    D. Decrease HDL
A

D. Decrease HDL

96
Q
  1. What effect do you expect when a body builder injects testosterone for muscle building ?
    A. Increased levels of LH
    B. Increased Leydig cell activity
    C. Increased Intratesticular androgen production
    D. Increased negative feedback on release of LH
A

D. Increased negative feedback on release of LH

97
Q
  1. What enzyme deficiency does a tall osteoporotic male have?
    A. 17-hydroxylase
    B. 5-alpha reductase
    C. Dihydrotestosterone
    D. Aromatase enzyme
A

D. Aromatase enzyme

98
Q
  1. What is the effect of Dihydrotestosterone ?
    A. Deposition of Visceral fat
    B. Increase Sebum formation
    C. Increase in VLDL in the liver
    D. Lowering of tone in male voice
A

B. Increase Sebum formation

99
Q
  1. What is the site of production of FSH?
    A. Ovaries
    B. Posterior pituitary
    C. Hypothalamus
    D. Anterior pituitary
A

D. Anterior pituitary

100
Q
  1. What cell represents the ovarian reserve?
    A. Mature preantral follicle
    B. Primary follicle
    C. Primordial follicle
    D. Mural granulosa cells
A

C. Primordial follicle

101
Q
  1. Which cell produces LDH, HDL and LH receptors?
    A. Preantral follicle
    B. Theca cells
    C. Mural granulosa cells
    D. Cumulus cells
A

B. Theca cells

102
Q

97.Which hormone is predominantly produced by Corpus luteum ?
A. LH
B. Estrogen
C. Progesterone
D. FSH

A

C. Progesterone

103
Q
  1. Which IS NOT true regarding Corpus luteum?
    A. After ovulation, remnant of the antral cavity
    B. Programmed to live for only around 28 days unless hCG sustains it
    C. Regression changes it to corpus albicans
    D. Regression is due to rise in prostaglandins in response to declining progesterone at the 2nd week of luteal phase
A

B. Programmed to live for only around 28 days unless hCG sustains it

104
Q
  1. Which hormone aims to produce a secretory endometrium with nutrients to NOURISH fertilized ovum when it implants ?
    A. Estrogen
    B. Inhibin
    C. Progesterone
    D. Estriol
A

C. Progesterone

105
Q
  1. Which is the most potent estrogen and is of ovarian origin?
    A. Estradiol
    B. estriol
    C. Androstenedione
    D. Estrone
A

A. Estradiol

Physio (self) (17 decks)

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