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8th-Physiology-Lecture-Exam-Nervous-System-Batch-2021 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Information from the environment is transcribed into neural signals by the
    A. Brain
    B. Peripheral nerves
    C. Sensory receptors
    D. Spinal cord
A

C. Sensory receptors

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2
Q
  1. Planning and implementation emotions and memory are some examples of which function of the nervous system?
    A. Expression of behavior
    B. Integrative and information processing
    C. Motor Response
    D. Sensory Detection
A

B. Integrative and information processing

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3
Q
  1. The function of neuroglia in impulse transmission is
    A. Cause release of neurotransmitter from synaptic terminals
    B. Forms a tight selective barrier impermeable in most substances
    C. Provides an environment conducive to nerve to nerve impulse transmission
    D. Connects with blood vessels to provide nourishment to neuron
A

D. Connects with blood vessels to provide nourishment to neuron

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4
Q

Latent varicella virus in the dorsal root ganglion can be transported to the skin and cause herpes zoster in an immunocompromised individual through which mechanism?
A. Axonal transport
B. Receptor mediated endocytosis
C. Synaptic Transmission
D. Vesicular Transport

A

A. Axonal transport

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5
Q
  1. The presence of one of the following is an abnormal finding in cerebrospinal fluid
    A. Calcium
    B. Chloride
    C. Red Blood Cells
    D. Sodium
A

C. Red Blood Cells

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6
Q
  1. Damage to this lobe of the brain can lead to cortical blindness
    A. Frontal
    B. Occipital
    C. Parietal
    D. Temporal
A

B. Occipital

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7
Q

The most important function of the peripheral system is
A. Communication line between the environment and higher centers
B. Contains different control and regulatory centers
C. Integrates and processes information gathered from environment
D. Decides action to be taken in response to stimulus

A

A. Communication line between the environment and higher centers

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8
Q
  1. When neurons are arranged into layers this is
    A. Cortex
    B. Ganglia
    C. Gray matter
    D. Nucleus
A

A. Cortex

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9
Q
  1. With the exception of the olfactory system, all sensory impulses are relayed to the cerebral cortex by the
    A. Brainstem
    B. Medulla
    C. Hypothalamus
    D. Thalamus
A

D. Thalamus

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10
Q

Coordinated movements and balcne are regulated by the
A. Basal Ganglia
B. Cerebellum
C. Cerebrum
D. Spinal Cord

A

B. Cerebellum

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11
Q
  1. What is the function of cerebrospinal fluid?
    A. Ensures adequate amounts of electrolytes for brain function
    B. Ensures adequate nutrition of neurons
    C. Help cushion the brain against trauma
    D. To prevent entry of high molecular weight substances
A

C. Help cushion the brain against trauma

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12
Q
  1. The axon hillock is the portion of the neuron where most action potentials are generated
    A. It receives impulses from other neurons
    B. It carries impulses away from the cell body
    C. It is rich in mitochondria and other organelles
    D. It contains high amounts of voltage gated sodium channels
A

D. It contains high amounts of voltage gated sodium channels

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13
Q
  1. Regeneration of PNS axons is more possible than those in the CNS Because this neuroglia can provide rows that can guide growth sprouts
    A. Ependymal cells
    B. Oligodendrocytes
    C. Satellite Cells
    D. Schwann Cells
A

D. Schwann Cells

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14
Q
  1. Chromatolysis or altered staining pattern in a transected axon reflects which of the following?
    A. Digestion of cellular debris
    B. Increases in axonal transport
    C. Increases in protein synthesis
    D. Programmed cell death
A

C. Increases in protein synthesis

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following is a characteristic of Type 1 (FA1) afferents?
    A. Action potentials start at the onset up to the end of the stimulus with wide receptive fields
    B. Action potentials start at the onset up to the end of the stimulus with small receptive fields
    C. Fires action potential only at the start and at the end of the stimulus with wide receptors
    D. Fires action potentials only a the start and at the end of the stimulus with small receptive fields
A

A. Action potentials start at the onset up to the end of the stimulus with wide receptive fields

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16
Q
  1. A lesion of the dorsal column medial lemniscus pathway at the level of the medial lemniscus will result to loss of somatosensory discriminatory abilities.
    A. On the contralateral side
    B. On the ipsilateral side
    C. On both sides
    D. None of these
A

A. On the contralateral side

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17
Q
  1. Acupuncture application of electrodes and other noxious stimuli can suppress pain sensation by
    A. Diversion of the persons attention to a more painful stimulus
    B. Increasing level of adaptation of nociceptors
    C. Activation of spinothalamic tract inhibitory receptive fields
    D. Increasing the individuals pain threshold
A

C. Activation of spinothalamic tract inhibitory receptive fields

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18
Q
  1. The somatosensory system differs from special senses through which of the following characteristics?
    A. Sensation transmitted easily adapt
    B. Sensory information transmitted is very limited
    C. Receptors are present only in the skin
    D. Receptors can be found all over the body and head
A

D. Receptors can be found all over the body and head

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19
Q
  1. Transection of 3rd order neuron in the ascending sensory pathway will prevent transmission of sensory impulses from
    A. Dorsal root ganglion to the spinal cord
    B. Medulla to spinal interneurons
    C. Thalamus to somatosensory cortex
    D. Spinal cord to thalamus
A

C. Thalamus to somatosensory cortex

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20
Q
  1. The release of neuropeptides involved in the non-opioid endogenous analgesia systems may be induced by which of the following?
    A. Morphine
    B. Naloxone
    C. Sleep
    D. Stress
A

C. Sleep

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21
Q
  1. Pain is relieved by rubbing a painful body part because according to the gate control theory of pain
    A. Large diameter fibers are activated that release GABA
    B. Calcium channels are blocked leading to less neurotransmitter release
    C. There is both presynaptic and postsynaptic inhibition of pain impulses
    D. All of these
A

D. All of these

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22
Q
  1. Transection of the anterolateral system will result to the loss of which of the following sensations?
    A. Fine touch
    B. Pressure
    C. Thermal
    D. Vibration
A

C. Thermal

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23
Q
  1. Injury to the somatosensory cortex will result to the loss of the following sensations EXCEPT
    A. Discriminatory touch
    B. Pain
    C. Stereognosis
    D. Position sense
A

B. Pain

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24
Q
  1. Testing for the presence of vibration sense in the clinics is testing the integrity of the
    A. Anterolateral pathway
    B. Dorsal column medial lemniscus pathway
    C. Thalamus
    D. Somatosensory cortex
A

B. Dorsal column medial lemniscus pathway

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25
Q
  1. Pain can oftentimes awaken a sleeping individual because of this central pain pathway
    A. Spinomesencephalic
    B. Spinoreticular
    C. Spinothalamic
    D. All of these
A

B. Spinoreticular

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26
Q
  1. Two-point discrimination of the spinal acuity is due to which of the following afferents?
    A. Type 1
    B. Type 2
    C. Type 3
    D. Type 4
A

A. Type 1

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27
Q
  1. Afferents signaling visceral pain also covey information from cutaneous receptors leading to this phenomenon
    A. Central pain state
    B. Hyperalgesia
    C. Neurotic pain
    D. Referred pain
A

D. Referred pain

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28
Q
  1. Which of the following characteristic characterizes second pain?
    A. Fast speed of transmission
    B. Transmitted A delta fibers
    C. Dull diffused and aching type of pain
    D. Terminates mostly in the somatosensory cortex
A

C. Dull diffused and aching type of pain

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29
Q
  1. Fibers of this central pain pathway terminates in the limbic system resulting to the motivational and effective response to pain such as crying shouting and aversive behavior
    A. Spinocerebellar
    B. Spinomesencephalic
    C. Spinoreticular
    D. Spinothlamic
A

B. Spinomesencephalic

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30
Q
  1. With regards to pain and thermal sensation transection of the spinal cord at the thoracic level will result to loss of pain and thermal sensation
    A. At both sides
    B. At the contralateral side
    C. At the ipsilateral side
    D. None of these
A

B. At the contralateral side

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31
Q
  1. Which of the following structure provide most of the refractive power of the eye?
    A. Lens
    B. Cornea
    C. Aqueous humor
    D. Vitreous humor
A

B. Cornea

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32
Q
  1. The structure of the eye through which light passes are collectively known as?
    A. Refractive media
    B. Transparent media
    C. Dioptric media
    D. Translucent media
A

C. Dioptric media

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33
Q

Which of the following statements is true of presbyopia?
A. It is due to increased elasticity of the lens
B. There is increased ability of the lens to bend light
C. Corrected by bifocal lens
D. The lens becomes thinner

A

D. The lens becomes thinner

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34
Q
  1. Which of the following refers to the ability of the eyes to adjust to different distances of the light source while maintaining focal length?
    A. Accommodation
    B. Adaptation
    C. Transduction
    D. Translocation
A

A. Accommodation

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35
Q
  1. Which of the following structures is responsible for the adjusting the optical focus of the eyes?
    A. Lens
    B. Cornea
    C. Pupils
    D. Iris
A

A. Lens

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36
Q
  1. Which of the following is true of the relationship between the ciliary body and the lens?
    A. When relaxed the lens flattens
    B. When relaxed the lens assumes a spherical shape
    C. When relaxed tension exerted on the lens decreases
    D. When constricted tension of the lens increases
A

A. When relaxed the lens flattens

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37
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is true of the focal point of myopia
    A. Posterior to the retina
    B. In front of retina
    C. Always focused on the retina
    D. In front of the optic disc
A

B. In front of retina

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38
Q
  1. Which of the following is true of focal point hyperopia?
    A. Near-sightedness
    B. Too long eyeball
    C. High refractive power of the lens system
    D. Corrected with the used of concave lens
A

C. High refractive power of the lens system

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39
Q
  1. Which of the following structures adjust to the amount of light that enters the eyes?
    A. Lens
    B. Cornea
    C. Iris
    D. Sclera
A

C. Iris

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40
Q

Which of the following is called the blind spot of the eye?
A. Fovea centralis
B. Optic Disc
C. Macula nuclear
D. Macula lutea

A

B. Optic Disc

41
Q

Which of the following layers of the retina is hit first by light
A. Inner limiting membrane
B. Outer limiting membrane
C. Inner nuclear
D. Outer nuclear

A

A. Inner limiting membrane

42
Q

Which of the following neurons is innervated by cranial nerve IV
A. Amacrine cells
B. Photoreceptor cells
C. Bipolar cells
D. Ganglion cells

A

A. Amacrine cells

43
Q

Which of the following muscles is innervated by cranial nerve IV?
A. Inferior oblique
B. Superior oblique
C. Lateral rectus
D. Medial rectus

A

B. Superior oblique

44
Q
  1. Which neural apparatus is responsible for the transduction of sound?
    A. Basilar membrane
    B. Resissner’s membrane
    C. Tympanic membrane
    D. Organ of Corti
A

D. Organ of Corti

45
Q
  1. Which of the following structures is responsible for determining the orientation of the head to gravity?
    A. Utricle and saccule
    B. Semicircular canals
    C. Organ of Corti
    D. Cochlea
A

A. Utricle and saccule

46
Q
  1. Which of the following is true of taste perception?
    A. A type of tastes is determined by type of receptor protein
    B. Salty and sour taste is activated by second messenger substances
    C. Sweet and bitter taste is activated by ion channels
    D. Chemoreceptors are specialized for several types of taste stimulus
A

A. A type of tastes is determined by type of receptor protein

47
Q
  1. Which of the following protects the ear from damaging loud noises?
    A. Vestibular reflexes
    B. Impedance matching
    C. Attenuation reflex
    D. Sound transduction
A

C. Attenuation reflex

48
Q
  1. Which of the following structures is responsible for detecting head rotation?
    A. Utricle and saccule
    B. Semicircular canals
    C. Organ of Corti
    D. Cochlea
A

B. Semicircular canals

49
Q

Which of the following structures is involved in reflex responses to the appearance of threatening object in the visual field?
A. Edinger-Wesphal nucleus
B. Lateral geniculate nucleus
C. Inferior colliculi
D. Superior colliculi

A

D. Superior colliculi

50
Q

Which of the following is not a primary taste sensation?
A. Sweet
B. Bitter
C. Fruity
D. Umami

51
Q

Which of the following is not true of the vestibular apparatus?
A. An ampulla is not found in each semicircular canal
B. Semicircular canal all join with the utricle
C. Utricle oriented vertically
D. Saccule connects with the cochlea

A

C. Utricle oriented vertically

52
Q
  1. Which area in the olfactory system is responsible for the primitive response to olfaction?
    A. Medial
    B. Lateral
    C. Inferior
    D. Superior
53
Q
  1. Which of the following is a function of the less old olfactory system?
    A. Licking of lips
    B. Salivation
    C. Liking the smell of fried chicken
    D. Feeling happy at the smell of fried chicken
A

C. Liking the smell of fried chicken

54
Q
  1. Which of the following cranial nerves is stimulated by the odor of noxious substances like alcohol and ammonia?
    A. CN I
    B. CN IV
    C. CN V
    D. CN VII
55
Q
  1. Which visual field disturbance do you expect in a patient with a lesion in the optic tract?
    A. Homonymous heminanopsia
    B. Quadrantic hemianopsia
    C. Cortical blindness
    D. Bitemporal hemianopsia
A

A. Homonymous heminanopsia

56
Q
  1. Which of these areas of the cerebral cortex is involved in providing the motivation and foresight to plan and initiate movements
    A. Prefrontal area
    B. Premotor area
    C. Primary motor cortex
    D. Primary somatosensory cortex
A

A. Prefrontal area

57
Q
  1. You are listening to a speaker during a product presentation, he keeps saying “okay” after each statement which causes you to be annoyed. This response is explained by which of the following?
    A. Long term potentiation
    B. Sensitization
    C. Associative conditioning
    D. Habituation
A

B. Sensitization

58
Q
  1. Given the following events
  2. Action potentials from the cerebellum go to the motor cortex and spinal cord
  3. Action potentials from the motor cortex go to the lower motor neurons and cerebellum
  4. Action potentials from the proprioceptors go to the cerebellum

Arrange the events in order they occur in the cerebellar comparator function
A. 3,1,2
B. 3,2,1
C. 2,3,1
D. 1,2,3

59
Q
  1. Contralateral excitation of the extensor motor neurons of the opposite leg which undergoes flexion reflex is called
    A. Inverse myotatic reflex
    B. Phasic stretch
    C. Cross- extensor reflex
    D. Withdrawal reflex
A

C. Cross- extensor reflex

60
Q
  1. This refers to the oderly recruitment of alpha motor neurons according to size from smallest to largest
    A. Size principle
    B. Spatial summation
    C. All or none principle
    D. Temporal summation
A

A. Size principle

61
Q
  1. Which of these activities is associated with the left cerebral hemisphere in most people?
    A. Mathematics and speech
    B. Sensory input from the left side of the body
    C. Musical ability
    D. Recognition of faces
A

A. Mathematics and speech

62
Q
  1. True of Golgi tendon organs
    A. In series relationship means that the tendon organs can detect the force level generated by the muscle
    B. They are supplied by group 1b efferent fibers
    C. They are located in the belly of the muscle
    D. Can only detect muscle tension due to active contraction of the muscle
A

A. In series relationship means that the tendon organs can detect the force level generated by the muscle

63
Q
  1. A simple stereotyped motor response to a stimulus
    A. Short term memory
    B. Muscle memory
    C. Coordinated movement
    D. Reflex
64
Q
  1. You heve your lecture in a classroom without sound proofing. However, in the long run you don’t notice the outside noise and you’re are able to focus on your lesson. This is explained by which of the following?
    A. Habituation
    B. Sensitization
    C. Long-term memory
    D. Association conditioning
A

A. Habituation

65
Q
  1. Which of the following allows for inner control of muscle tone
    A. Intrafusal muscle fibers
    B. Small motor units
    C. Extrafusal motor units
    D. Large motor units
A

B. Small motor units

66
Q
  1. General sensory inputs (pain, pressure temperature) to the cerebrum end in the
    A. Central sulcus
    B. Precentral gyrus
    C. Corpus callosum
    D. Posterior gyrus
A

A. Central sulcus

67
Q
  1. True of memory
    A. The two types of short term memory are long term potentiation and long term coordination
    B. Long term memory is converted from short term memory by long term depression
    C. Short term memory requires long term potentiation
    D. The three stages of memory include recall, short term and long term
A

C. Short term memory requires long term potentiation

68
Q

The indirect (extrapyramidal) system is concerned with
A. Trunk movements
B. All of the choices are correct
C. Proximal limb movement
D. Posture

A

B. All of the choices are correct

69
Q
  1. The inverse myotatic reflex is evoked by
    A. Intrafusal muscle spindle fibers
    B. Extrafusal muscle spindle fibers
    C. Alpha motor neurons
    D. Golgi tendon organs
A

D. Golgi tendon organs

70
Q
  1. The primary neurotransmitter in the basal ganglia is
    A. Gama amino butyric acid
    B. Acetylcholine
    C. Dopamine
    D. Glycine
A

C. Dopamine

71
Q
  1. You go on duty in the hospital as a clinical clerk. You notice that you find yourself listening intently to an overhead page because it usually means there’s an emergency. This type if response is explained by which of the following?
    A. Short term memory
    B. Associative memory
    C. Habituation
    D. Sensitization
A

B. Associative memory

72
Q
  1. This enables properly coordinated activity between two sides of the body
    A. Neural plasticity
    B. Cerebral cortex
    C. Spinal cord
    D. interhemispheric transfer
A

D. interhemispheric transfer

73
Q

True of intrafusal muscle fibers of the muscle spindle
A. In series relationship means that muscle spindles can detect the force generated by muscles
B. None of the choices are correct
C. Sensitivity of the muscle spindle to stretch is influenced by alpha motor neurons
D. Sensitivity of the muscle spindle to stretch influenced by gamma motor neurons

A

A. In series relationship means that muscle spindles can detect the force generated by muscles

74
Q
  1. The right and left hemispheres are connected by the commissure which allows the sharing of information between hemispheres the largest of which is the
    A. Corpus callosum
    B. Internal capsule
    C. Corona radiata
    D. Brainstem
A

A. Corpus callosum

75
Q
  1. Refers to inability to perform repetitive alternating movements
    A. Akinesia
    B. Dysdiadochokinesia
    C. Decorticate
    D. Hemibalismus
A

B. Dysdiadochokinesia

76
Q
  1. Given these areas of the cerebral cortex
  2. Broca area
  3. Premotor area
  4. Primary motor cortex
  5. Wernicke area
    If a person hears and understands a word and then says the word out loud, in what order are the areas used?
    A. 4,1,3,2
    B. 1,4,3,2
    C. 1,4,2,3
    D. 4,1,2,3
A

D. 4,1,2,3

77
Q
  1. The main connection between the right and left hemispheres of the cerebrum is the
    A. Corpus callosum
    B. Basal ganglia
    C. Thalamus
    D. Internal capsule
A

A. Corpus callosum

78
Q
  1. A reflex arc includes the following EXCEPT:
    A. Afferent fibers
    B. Cerebellum
    C. Interneurons
    D. Motor neurons
A

B. Cerebellum

79
Q

Which of the following is an example if neural plasticity?
A. All of the choices are correct
B. Brain activity is associated with a given function can be transferred to a different location
C. No new synapses are created after complete brain development
D. Gray matter in the brain does not change over time

A

B. Brain activity is associated with a given function can be transferred to a different location

80
Q
  1. The single alpha motor neuron and all the muscle fibers with which it synapses
    A. Reflex arc
    B. Motor unit
    C. Motor neuron
    D. Afferent somatosensory pathway
A

B. Motor unit

81
Q

An inherited autosomal dominant movement disorder traced to a defect in chromosome 4 is associated with degeneration
A. GABA-nergic neurons
B. Acetylcholine
C. Alpha motor neurons
D. Gamma motor neurons

A

A. GABA-nergic neurons

82
Q
  1. The speech areas in the hemisphere in most people
    A. Occipital lobe
    B. Right cerebral cortex
    C. Temporal lobe
    D. Right cerebral hemisphere
A

D. Right cerebral hemisphere

83
Q
  1. The major effect of the basal nuclei is
    A. To modulate pain sensations
    B. To act as a comparator for motor coordination
    C. To affect emotion and emotional response to odors
    D. To decrease muscle tone and inhibit unwanted muscular activity
A

D. To decrease muscle tone and inhibit unwanted muscular activity

84
Q
  1. A 54-year-old right handed male was admitted at the emergency department for weakness of the right upper and lower extremity. Where is the somatosensory dominance of the patient located?
    A. Right cerebellar hemisphere
    B. Left cerebellar hemisphere
    C. Left cerebral hemisphere
    D. Right cerebral hemisphere
A

C. Left cerebral hemisphere

85
Q
  1. This neurologic structure is involved in influencing the rate range force and direction of movements as well as muscle tone an d posture
    A. Medulla oblongata
    B. Cerebellum
    C. Cerebrum
    D. Brainstem
A

B. Cerebellum

86
Q
  1. Cigarette smoke, both mainstream and sidestream
    A. Contains potent inhibitors of carcinogenesis
    B. Conatins carcinogens, co-carcinogens and mutagens
    C. All of the above
    D. None of the above
A

C. All of the above

87
Q
  1. Of the 4,800 different compound of cigarette smoke A. There are approximately 1,010 particles per ml of
    mainstream smoke
    B. 100 of these particles are toxic, mutagenic, tumor
    promoter and co-carcinogenic
    C. All of the above
    D. None of the above
A

C. All of the above

88
Q
  1. The active constituents of cigarette smoking responsible for tobacco related health rish are the following
    A. Nitric oxide, acetic acid and cellulose
    B. Nitrosamines, PAH, Nicotine
    C. All of the above
    D. None of the above
A

B. Nitrosamines, PAH, Nicotine

89
Q
  1. Newer studies on cigarettes smoke implicates the following compounds
    A. Short and long lived free radicals
    B. Reactive oxygen species
    C. All of the above
    D. None of the above
A

A. Short and long lived free radicals

90
Q
  1. Risk of cardiovascular disease caused by cigarette smoke increases with
    A. Age of initiation
    B. Total number of smoking years
    C. All of the above
    D. None of the above
A

C. All of the above

91
Q
  1. Cigarette smoke is known to increase oxidative stress in the body by the following mechanism
    A. Increased production of plasma anti-oxidants
    B. Decreased oxidized DNA product and oxidative Arachidonic acid product
    C. All of the above
    D. None of the above
  2. Adverse effect of smoking on both active and passive smokers on their endothelial cell functions are the following.
    A. Increased endothelial nitric oxide formation
    B. Upregulation of expression of endothelial CAMs
    C. All of the above
    D. None of the above
A

B. Decreased oxidized DNA product and oxidative Arachidonic acid product
C. All of the above

92
Q
  1. Adverse effect of smoking on both active and passive smokers on their endothelial cell functions are the following.
    A. Increased endothelial nitric oxide formation
    B. Upregulation of expression of endothelial CAMs
    C. All of the above
    D. None of the above
A

B. Upregulation of expression of endothelial CAMs

93
Q
  1. The interplay between cigarette smoke and body enzymes in tobacco related cancers include the following effects
    A. Formation of DNA adducts and induction of mutations
    B. Chromosomal damage and inactivation of tumor
    suppressor genes
    C. All of the above
    D. None of the above
A

C. All of the above

94
Q
  1. With cigarette smoking, increased risk for human cancer may
    be due to the following
    A. Inactivation of p53 enzyme
    B. Activation of proto-oncogenic K-ras
    C. All of the above
    D. None of the above
A

C. All of the above

95
Q
  1. In aging, the physiologic effects are included except
    A. Decreased perception of environmental stimuli
    B. Decreased cardiac output
    C. Decrease insulin and parathormone
    D. Reduced respiratory vital capacity
A

C. Decrease insulin and parathormone

96
Q
  1. The following are true regarding the cellular mechanism of
    aging according to Hayflick
    A. Cells have limited capacity to proliferate
    B. At certain chornological age they stop dividing
    C. At the Hayflick limit, cells enter a period of quiescence
    D. Loss of regenerative capacity predominates
A

A. Cells have limited capacity to proliferate

97
Q
  1. In aging, the mechanism of degeneration includes the following
    A. Generation of reactive oxygen species
    B. Non-enzymatic glycosylation of proteins
    C. All of the above
    D. None of the above
A

A. Generation of reactive oxygen species

98
Q
  1. The effects of reactive oxygen species include the following
    effects
    A. DNA mutations and aberrant protein synthesis
    B. Oxidative damage to phospholipids
    C. Structural damage and functional elimination of molecules
    D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

99
Q
  1. In the process of non- enzymatic glycosylation of proteins the
    following effects are seen
    A. Impaired glucose tolerance leading to prolonged periods of elevated blood glucose
    B. Narrowing of blood vessels, thickening of basement
    membranes
    C. Release of inflammatory mediators and generation of ROS
    D. All of the above
A

A. Impaired glucose tolerance leading to prolonged periods of elevated blood glucose

Physio (self) (17 decks)

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