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Physio (self) > 8th-Physiology-Lecture-Exam-Nervous-System-Batch-2025 > Flashcards

8th-Physiology-Lecture-Exam-Nervous-System-Batch-2025 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Signal generation involved in the
    function of the vestibular apparatus
    involves conversion of
    a. Mechanical signals to
    electrical signals
    b. Electrical signals to chemical
    signals
    c. Chemical signals to electrical
    signals
    d. Mechanical signals to
    chemical signals
A

a. Mechanical signals to electrical signals

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2
Q
  1. A 63 y/o man presents with muscle
    rigidity, resting tremor, and difficulty
    walking, consistent with Parkinson
    disease. The involved
    neurotransmitter resulting in the
    patients difficulty in initiating
    movement is in the
    a. GABA
    b. Acetylcholine
    c. Substantia nigra
    d. Dopamine
A

d. Dopamine

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following structures is
    primarily involved in controlling the
    necessary instantaneous interplay
    between agonist and antagonist
    muscle groups?
    a. Cerebellum
    b. Supplementary motor cortex
    c. Primary motor cortex
    d. Basal ganglia
A

a. Cerebellum

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4
Q
  1. Which group of neurons function in
    association with the pontine nuclei to
    control the antigravity muscles?
    a. Substantia nigra
    b. Flocullonodular
    c. Vestibular nuclei
    d. Basal ganglia
A

c. Vestibular nuclei

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5
Q
  1. When doing the corneal reflex in a
    patient with Bell’s palsy, what finding
    will you expect?
    a. Loss of vision
    b. Pupillary dilatation
    c. Inability to detect pain
    sensation
    d. Difficulty blinking the eyes
A

d. Difficulty blinking the eyes

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6
Q
  1. The ability to vocalize words
    properly what the patient has
    decided to say is the function of
    which are of the body?
    a. Medulla
    b. Primary motor cortex
    c. Wernicke’s area
    d. Broca’s area
A

d. Broca’s area

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7
Q
  1. Nerve fibers that directly innervate
    the skeletal muscle fibers leave the
    cord by way of which of the following
    structures?
    a. White matter
    b. Posterior horn
    c. Anterior horn
    d. Gray matter
A

c. Anterior horn

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8
Q
  1. Excitation of the cerebral cortex by
    this structure is necessary for almost
    all cortical activity
    a. Caudate nucleus
    b. Thalamus
    c. Substantia nigra
    d. Basal ganglia
A

b. Thalamus

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9
Q
  1. Withdrawal of an affected limb from
    painful stimulus is characterized as
    which of the following reflexes?
    a. Reciprocal inhibition
    b. Crossed-extensor reflex
    c. Extensor reflex
    d. Flexor reflex
A

d. Flexor/ Withdrawal reflex

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10
Q
  1. In Parkinson’s Disease, the
    bradykinesia observed is due to
    increased activity of neurons in the
    internal segment of the globus
    pallidus resulting to:
    a. Increased activation of the
    brainstem
    b. Increased activation of the
    motor cortex
    c. Increased synthesis of
    dopamine
    d. Less activation of motor
    cortical areas
A

d. Less activation of motor
cortical areas

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following observations
    would suggest that an upper motor
    neuron lesion rather than a lower
    motor neuron lesion is present?
    a. Hyporeflexia
    b. Profound muscle weakness
    c. Spasticity
    d. Profound muscle wasting
A

c. Spasticity

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12
Q
  1. True statement about regulation and
    coordination of muscle movement
    a. All of the statements are correct
    b. Basal ganglia is involved in timing of motor activities and smooth progression from one movement to another
    c. Proper motor movement requires proper functioning of the basal ganglia and cerebellum
    d. Cerebellum plays a major role in controlling relative intensities of individual motion components
A

c. Proper motor movement requires proper functioning of the basal ganglia and cerebellum

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13
Q
  1. The thought process of movement
    begins with the motor image of the
    total muscle movement that is to be
    performed. Which of the following is
    responsible for this thought process?
    a. Primary motor cortex
    b. Premotor area
    c. Area 42
    d. Wernicke’s area
A

b. Premotor area

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14
Q
  1. These are mainly short-term
    memories that are used during the
    course of intellectual reasoning but
    are terminated as each stage of the
    problem is resolved.
    a. Intermediate memory
    b. Working memory
    c. Intermediate long-term memory
    d. Long-term memory
A

b. Working memory

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15
Q
  1. What is the other name for the most
    important output pathway from the
    motor cortex is referred to as the
    pyramidal tracts?
    a. Spinothalamic tract
    b. Corticocerebellar tracts
    c. Corticobulbar tracts
    d. Corticospinal tract
A

d. Corticospinal tract

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16
Q
  1. Which part of the cerebellum is
    responsible for planning and initiation of movement?
    a. Vestibulocerebellum
    b. Spinocerebellum
    c. Cerebrocerebellum (Neocerebellum)
    d. Flocculonodular lobe
A

c. Cerebrocerebellum
(Neocerebellum)

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17
Q
  1. During a withdrawal response of the
    right arm, antagonistic muscles of
    the right arm are inhibited allowing
    for the unopposed contraction of
    flexor muscles. The pattern of neural
    signaling involved in this case is
    a. Reflex stimulation
    b. Reciprocal inhibition
    c. Diverging circuitry
    d. Crossed-extensor reflex
A

b. Reciprocal inhibition

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18
Q
  1. True statement about the basal
    ganglia regulation of movement?
    a. All of the statements are correct
    b. Interaction between the basal ganglia and cortex essentially are composed
    of negative feedback loops
    c. There are dopamine pathways from the caudate nucleus and putamen
    d. Major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the basal ganglia is dopamine
A

b. Interaction between the
basal ganglia and cortex
essentially are composed
of negative feedback loops

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19
Q
  1. Neuronal circuits in the interneuron
    pool of the spinal cord conduct
    impulses in which of the following
    patterns?
    a. Repetitive-discharge
    b. Diverging
    c. All of the patterns are
    correct
    d. Converging
A

c. All of the patterns are
correct

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20
Q
  1. Formation of thought and even most
    choices of words enabling a person
    to communicate through language is
    the function of which cortical area?
    a. Wernicke’s area
    b. Broca’s area
    c. Primary motor cortex
    d. Primary sensory cortex
A

a. Wernicke’s area

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21
Q
  1. Which of the following are identified
    interneurons which function as
    inhibitory cells to surrounding motor
    neurons allowing for lateral
    inhibition?
    a. Muscle spindle
    b. Reed-sternberg cells
    c. Golgi tendon
    d. Renshaw cells
A

d. Renshaw cells

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22
Q
  1. This is a parasympathetic function of
    the 7th cranial nerve
    a. Pupillary constriction
    b. Bronchodilation
    c. Salivation and lacrimation
    d. Decreased heart rate
A

c. Salivation and lacrimation

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23
Q
  1. Learning rapid hand and physical
    skills such as suturing depends on
    physically repeating the required
    task over and over again rather than
    symbolically rehearsing the
    movement in the mind. This type of
    learning is based on which of the
    following?
    a. None of the choices is
    correct
    b. Skill memory
    c. Declarative memory
    d. Machine learning
A

b. Skill memory

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24
Q
  1. These structures are arranged at
    right angles to one another so that
    they represent all three planes in
    space to reference the position of
    the head.
    a. Utricle
    b. Semicircular ducts
    c. Cochlea
    d. Macula
A

b. Semicircular ducts

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25
Q
  1. Which of the ff is a sign of Bell’s
    palsy?
    a. Inability to wrinkle
    forehead
    b. Inability to identify different
    scents
    c. Inability to move arms and
    legs
    d. Unilateral sensory loss of
    lower and upper extremities
A

a. Inability to wrinkle
forehead

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26
Q
  1. The sensory portion of the 7th
    cranial nerve is tested through which
    of the ff?
    a. Testing for taste in the
    anterior ⅔ of the tongue
    b. Testing for pain by pinching
    the cheeks
    c. Asking the subject to smell
    different solutions
    d. Testing for gag reflex
A

a. Testing for taste in the
anterior ⅔ of the tongue

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27
Q
  1. Which component of the utricle
    mainly lies on the horizontal plane
    important in determining orientation
    of the head when the head is upright
    tested by turning the patient’s head?
    a. Semicircular canals
    b. Cochlea
    c. Utricle
    d. Saccule
A

c. Utricle

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28
Q
  1. Integration of sensorimotor signals
    responsible for the generation of
    spinal cord reflexes is located in
    which of the ff areas?
    a. Gray matter of the cerebral
    cortex
    b. White matter area of the
    spinal cord
    c. Gray matter of the spinal
    cord
    d. Gray matter of the brainstem
A

c. Gray matter of the spinal
cord

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29
Q
  1. In the majority of patients who
    develop Bell’s palsy, what is the
    prognosis?
    a. Poor; signs and symptoms
    are irreversible and may
    remain
    b. Good; may resolve with or
    without treatment
    c. Prognosis depends on the
    cause of the condition
    d. Guarded; symptoms may
    improve or may worsen
A

b. Good; may resolve with or
without treatment

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30
Q
  1. Facilitation of the synaptic pathways
    to retain incoming information that
    causes important consequences
    such as pain and pleasure is
    referred to as
    a. Habituation
    b. Negative memory
    c. Excitation
    d. Memory sensitization
A

d. Memory sensitization

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31
Q
  1. Akinesia, one of the signs of
    Parkinson’s disease means:
    a. Abnormal twitching of
    muscles
    b. Muscle stiffness
    c. Shuffling gait
    d. Difficulty in starting
    movement
A

d. Difficulty in starting
movement

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32
Q
  1. The structural capability of synapses
    to transmit signals are increased
    during establishment of which type
    of memory?
    a. Working memory
    b. Short term memory
    c. Long-term memory
    d. Intermediate long-term
    memory
A

c. Long-term memory

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33
Q
  1. In Parkinson’s disease there is:
    a. Increased activity of the direct pathway and decreased activity of indirect
    pathway
    b. Increased activity of both direct and indirect pathway
    c. Diminished activity of both direct and indirect pathway
    d. Diminished activity of the direct pathway and increased activity of
    indirect pathway
A

d. Diminished activity of the direct pathway and increased activity of indirect pathway

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34
Q
  1. You were walking barefoot when
    your right foot stepped on a thumb
    tack. You noticed that you reflexively
    pulled the right leg away while your
    left leg extended to maintain your
    upright position. This type of reflex
    pattern is referred to as
    a. Flexor reflex
    b. Crossed-extensor reflex
    c. Asymmetric tonic neck reflex
    d. Withdrawal reflex
A

b. Crossed-extensor reflex

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35
Q
  1. Parkinson’s disease is due to which
    of the following:
    a. Loss of neural connections of
    the cerebellum
    b. Hypersecretion of
    catecholamines in the basal
    ganglia
    c. Loss of dopaminergic
    neurons in the substantia
    nigra
    d. Loss of cholinergic
    stimulation to the basal
    ganglia
A

c. Loss of dopaminergic
neurons in the substantia
nigra

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36
Q
  1. One of the ff is a manifestation of
    Parkinson’s disease
    a. Dysmetria
    b. Tremors at rest
    c. Ataxia
    d. Dysdiadochokinesia
A

b. Tremors at rest

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37
Q
  1. One of facilitated neural pathways as
    a result of changing basic sensitivity
    of synaptic transmissions between
    neurons as a result of previous
    neural activity which results in
    memory are called
    a. Facilitation
    b. Desensitization
    c. Memory traces
    d. Habituation
A

c. Memory traces

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38
Q
  1. A type of negative memory involving
    the capability of the brain to learn to
    ignore information that is of no
    consequence is
    a. Inhibition
    b. Amnesia
    c. Learning
    d. Habitation
A

d. Habitation

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39
Q
  1. Degeneration of
    dopamine-containing neurons in the
    substantia nigra leads to which of
    the ff?
    a. Suppression of the direct
    pathway and facilitate the
    indirect pathway from the
    striatum to the basal
    ganglia output nuclei
    b. Suppressed activity in the
    subthalamic nucleus
    c. Produce dyskinesias such as
    chorea
    d. Decrease activity in basal
    ganglia output nuclei
A

a. Suppression of the direct
pathway and facilitate the
indirect pathway from the
striatum to the basal
ganglia output nuclei

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40
Q
  1. Which of the ff structures is/are
    involved in proper activation of
    muscles of the mouth, tongue, larynx
    and vocal cords including timing and
    intonation of articulated words?
    a. Sensory cortex
    b. Cerebellum
    c. Basal ganglia
    d. All of the choices are
    correct
A

d. All of the choices are
correct

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41
Q
  1. Which of the following structures
    helps transmit electrical signals to
    the neuron’s cell body?
    a. Neurofilaments
    b. Golgi apparatus
    c. Dendritic Spines
    d. Microtubules
A

c. Dendritic Spines

42
Q
  1. Which neural apparatus is
    responsible for the transduction of
    sound?
    a. Basilar membrane
    b. Resissner’s membrane
    c. Tympanic membrane
    d. Organ of Corti
A

d. Organ of Corti

43
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a
    primary taste sensation?
    a. Sweet
    b. Bitter
    c. Fruity
    d. Umami
A

c. Fruity

44
Q
  1. Which of the following sensations
    would be perceived when the pulse
    frequency of SA fibers is increased?
    a. Steady pressure
    b. Increased pressure
    c. Tapping sensation
    d. Vibration
A

a. Steady pressure

45
Q
  1. .Where is the somatosensory cortex
    located?
    a. Superior bank of the lateral
    fissure
    b. Central Sulcus
    c. Postcentral gyrus
    d. Insular Cortex
A

c. Postcentral gyrus

46
Q
  1. Which division of dendrites is
    described to have daughter
    branches extending from a more
    proximal branch?
    a. Primary Dendrites
    b. Secondary Dendrites
    c. Higher-order Dendrites
    d. Lower-order Dendrites
A

c. Higher-order Dendrites

47
Q
  1. Which is the most important sensory
    pathway for somatic pain and
    thermal sensations?
    a. Spinothalamic tract
    b. Spinoreticular tract
    c. Spinomesenphalic tract
    d. Corticospinal tract
A

a. Spinothalamic tract

48
Q
  1. Which statement CORRECTLY
    describes the C axons?
    a. Responsible for first pain
    b. Produce a dull, diffuse and
    burning sensation
    c. Conduct signals faster than
    Aδ fibers do
    d. Heat-sensitive
A

b. Produce a dull, diffuse and
burning sensation

49
Q
  1. Which nuclei in the DC-ML pathway
    receives information from the upper
    part of the body and arm?
    a. Nucleus gracilis
    b. Internal Arcuate fibers
    c. Nucleus cuneatus
    d. Medial Lemniscus
A

c. Nucleus cuneatus

50
Q
  1. Which sensory modality is
    RELATIVELY UNAFFECTED by
    lesions of the somatosensory
    cortex?
    a. Nociception
    b. Stereognosis
    c. Kinesthesia
    d. Graphestesia
A

a. Nociception

51
Q
  1. Which term is defined as conscious
    awareness of our body parts with
    regards to position and movement?
    a. Graphestesia
    b. Stereognosis
    c. Kinesthesia
    d. Nociception
A

c. Kinesthesia

52
Q
  1. Which phenomenon explains
    sunburn?
    a. Gate control theory of pain
    b. Neuropathic pain
    c. Mechanical allodynia
    d. Referred pain
A

c. Mechanical allodynia

53
Q
  1. Which of the following response
    patterns is associated with Pacinian
    Corpuscles?
    a. FA1
    b. FA2
    c. SA1
    d. SA2
A

b. FA2

54
Q
  1. Which sensory afferrent will start
    firing action potentials at the onset of
    the stimulus and continue to fire until
    the stimulus ends?
    a. Fast-Adapting Fibers
    b. Slow-Adapting Fibers
    c. Type 1 units
    d. Type 2 units
A

b. Slow-Adapting Fibers

55
Q
  1. Which of the following refers to the
    ability of the eye to adjust to different
    distances of light source while
    maintaining focal length?
    a. Adaptation
    b. Accommodation
    c. Transduction
    d. Translocation
A

b. Accommodation

56
Q
  1. Which outcome is NOT EXPECTED
    after transection of the spinothalamic
    tract and accompanying ventral
    spinal cord?
    a. Loss of motivational-affective
    component of pain
    b. Loss of pain in contralateral
    side of the transection
    c. Loss of sensory-discriminative
    component of pain
    d. Loss of pain in the ipsilateral
    side of the transection
A

d. Loss of pain in the ipsilateral
side of the transection

57
Q
  1. Which division of the somatosensory
    system is responsible for monitoring
    the INTERNAL state of the body?
    a. Exteroceptive Division
    b. Proprioceptive Division
    c. Enteroceptive Division
    d. Trigeminal Division
A

c. Enteroceptive Division

58
Q
  1. Which statement CORRECTLY
    describes the perception of taste?
    a. Type of taste is determined
    by type of receptor protein
    b. Salty and sour taste is
    activated by second
    messenger substances
    c. Sweet and bitter taste is
    activated by ion channels
    d. Chemoreceptors are
    specialized for several types
    of taste stimulus
A

a. Type of taste is determined
by type of receptor protein

59
Q
  1. Which visual field disturbance do
    you expect in a patient with a lesion
    in the optic chiasm?
    a. Homonymous hemianopsia
    b. Quadrantic hemianopsia
    c. Cortical blindness
    d. Bitemporal hemianopsia
A

d. Bitemporal hemianopsia

60
Q
  1. Where is the somatosensory II
    cortex located?
    a. Superior bank of the lateral
    fissure
    b. Central Sulcus
    c. Postcentral gyrus
    d. Insular Cortex
A

a. Superior bank of the lateral
fissure

61
Q
  1. What area in the olfactory system is
    responsible for the primitive
    response to olfaction?
    a. Medial
    b. Lateral
    c. Inferior
    d. Superior
A

a. Medial

62
Q
  1. Which of the following layers of the
    retina is hit first by light?
    a. Inner limiting membrane
    b. Outer limiting membrane
    c. Inner nuclear
    d. Outer nuclear
A

a. Inner limiting membrane

63
Q
  1. Which principle states that the
    quality of a sensation is conveyed to
    the CNS by a specific set of
    afferents that have a distinct set of
    targets in the nervous system?
    a. Labeled line
    b. Selective attention
    c. 2-point discrimination
    d. Receptive field
A

a. Labeled line

64
Q
  1. Which tract is MOSTLY involved in
    the sensation of temperature and
    pain?
    a. Lateral Corticospinal Tract
    b. Posterolateral Tract
    c. Anterior Spinothalamic Tract
    d. Lateral Spinothalamic Tract
A

d. Lateral Spinothalamic Tract

65
Q
  1. Which of the following structures is
    involved in reflex responses to the
    appearance of a threatening object
    in the visual field?
    a. Edinger-Westphal nucleus
    b. Lateral geniculate nucleus
    c. Inferior colliculi
    d. Superior colliculi
A

d. Superior colliculi

66
Q
  1. Which of the following structures is
    responsible for adjusting the optical
    focus of the eye?
    a. Lens
    b. Cornea
    c. Iris
    d. Pupils
A

a. Lens

67
Q
  1. Which neuronal biosynthetic
    apparatus is described as stacks of
    rough endoplasmic reticulum?
    a. Soma
    b. Schwann Cell
    c. Golgi apparatus
    d. Nissl Bodies
A

d. Nissl Bodies

68
Q
  1. Which of the ff terms encompass
    structure of the eye through which
    light passes?
    a. Translucent media
    b. Dioptric media
    c. Refractive media
    d. Transparent media
A

b. Dioptric media

69
Q
  1. Which of the following nuclei in the
    DC-ML pathway receives
    information from the lower part of the
    body and leg?
    a. Nucleus gracilis
    b. Internal Arcuate fibers
    c. Nucleus cuneatus
    d. Medial Lemniscus
A

a. Nucleus gracilis

70
Q
  1. What cranial nerve is stimulated by
    the odor of noxious substances like
    alcohol?
    a. CN I
    b. CN IV
    c. CN V
    d. CN VII
A

c. CN V

71
Q
  1. Which of the following is the point
    where interneuron communication
    occurs?
    a. Node of Ranvier
    b. Synapse
    c. Soma
    d. Dendritic spines
A

b. Synapse

72
Q
  1. Which tract is MOSTLY involved in
    the sensation of crude touch and
    pressure?
    a. Lateral Corticospinal Tract
    b. Posterolateral Tract
    c. Anterior Spinothalamic
    Tract
    d. Lateral Spinothalamic Tract
A

c. Anterior Spinothalamic
Tract

73
Q
  1. Which structure will maintain the
    motivational-affective component of
    pain after destruction of the VPL or
    VPM nuclei?
    a. Trigeminal nucleus
    b. DC-ML
    c. Spinomesencephalic tract
    d. Medial thalamus
A

d. Medial thalamus

Destruction of the VPL or VPM nuclei diminishes sensation on the contralateral side of the body or face.
The sensory qualities that are lost reflect those that are transmitted mainly by the dorsal column–medial lemniscus pathway and its trigeminal equivalent. The sensory- discriminative component of pain sensation is also lost.
However, the motivational-affective component of pain is still present if the medial thalamus is intact.

74
Q
  1. Which of the ff structures of the eye
    has the highest refractive power?
    a. Aqueous humor
    b. Cornea
    c. Lens
    d. Vitreous humor
A

Cornea

1: Cornea
2: Lens
3: Aqueous/ Vitreous humor

75
Q
  1. Which tract is MOSTLY responsible
    for motor communication to the
    brain?
    a. Dorsal Column-Medial
    Lemniscus Pathway
    b. Spinothalamic Tract
    c. Lateral Corticospinal Tract
    d. Posterolateral Tract
A

c. Lateral Corticospinal Tract

76
Q
  1. Which of the following is a function
    of the less old olfactory system?
    a. Licking of lips
    b. Salivation
    c. Liking the smell of fried
    chicken
    d. Feeling happy at the smell of
    fried chicken
A

c. Liking the smell of fried
chicken

77
Q
  1. Which extraocular muscle of the eye
    is innervated by cranial nerve IV?
    a. Lateral rectus
    b. Medial rectus
    c. Inferior oblique
    d. Superior oblique
A

d. Superior oblique

78
Q
  1. Which response pattern is
    associated with Meissner’s
    Corpuscle?
    a. FA1
    b. FA2
    c. SA1
    d. SA2
A

a. FA1

79
Q
  1. What structure prevents solutes in
    blood from non-selectively crossing
    into the ECF of the CNS?
    a. Choroid Plexus
    b. Blood Brain Barrier
    c. Blood Retinal Barrier
    d. Blood Cerebrospinal Fluid
    Barrier
A

b. Blood Brain Barrier

80
Q
  1. Which structure represents the main
    termination site for ascending
    somatosensory information in the
    diencephalon?
    a. Dorsal Column–Medial
    Lemniscus Pathway
    b. Trigeminal Nuclear Complex
    c. Anteroposterior Nuclear
    Complex
    d. Ventroposterior Nuclear
    Complex
A

d. Ventroposterior Nuclear
Complex

81
Q
  1. Which statements DO NOT describe
    Nociceptors?
    a. It has the ability to sense
    tissue-damaging stimuli
    b. It originates mostly as free
    nerve endings
    c. It has distinct morphological
    specialization
    d. It has the ability to become
    sensitized
A

c. It has distinct morphological
specialization

82
Q
  1. Which cells are derived from
    erythromyeloid stem cells and are
    responsible for immune responses
    within the CNS?
    a. Microglia
    b. Satellite cells
    c. Ependymal cells
    d. Astrocytes
A

a. Microglia

Microglia are derived from erythromyeloid stem cells that migrate into the CNS early in development. hey play an important role in immune responses within the CNS.

Satellite cells (PNS) encapsulate dorsal root and cranial nerve ganglion cells and regulate their microenvironment in a fashion similar to that of astrocytes.

Ependymal cells form the epithelium lining the ventricular spaces of the brain, which contain (cerebrospinal fluid) CSF.

Astrocytes (named for their star shape) help regulate the microenvironment of the CNS, both under normal conditions and in response to damage to the nervous system.

83
Q
  1. Which of the following structures is
    responsible for detecting head
    rotation?
    a. Utricle and Saccule
    b. Semicircular canals
    c. Organ of Corti
    d. Cochlea
A

b. Semicircular canals

For kinetic / dynamic equilibrium
o Detection of angular / rotatory acceleration

84
Q
  1. Which pathway is responsible for
    controlling the function of organs,
    smooth muscle, and glands?
    a. Somatic Motor Neuron
    Pathway
    b. Autonomic Motor Pathway
    c. Spinocerebellar Pathway
    d. Dorsal Column–Medial
    Lemniscus Pathway
A

b. Autonomic Motor Pathway

85
Q
  1. What area is known as the blind
    spot of the eye?
    a. Fovea centralis
    b. Optic disc
    c. Macula densa
    d. Macula lutea
A

b. Optic disc

86
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is
    NOT true regarding dermatomes?
    a. The pattern of innervation is determined during embryological development.
    b. Receives its densest innervation from the corresponding spinal cord segment.
    c. A given dorsal root ganglion supplies a specific cutaneous region
    d. Transection of a single dorsal root causes liberal sensory loss in the corresponding dermatome
A

d. Transection of a single dorsal root causes liberal sensory loss in the corresponding dermatome

87
Q
  1. Which term is defined as the ability
    to recognize objects when they are
    handled?
    a. Graphestesia
    b. Stereognosis
    c. Nociception
    d. Kinesthesia
A

b. Stereognosis

88
Q
  1. Which of the ff statements correctly
    describe the perilymph?
    a. Closely resembles
    cerebrospinal fluid
    b. Resembles intracellular fluid
    c. Located in the scala media
    d. Contains high K+ and low
    Na+
A

a. Closely resembles
cerebrospinal fluid

89
Q
  1. Which division of the somatosensory
    system would provide information
    about skin contact with objects?
    a. Exteroceptive Division
    b. Proprioceptive Division
    c. Enteroceptive Division
    d. Trigeminal Division
A

a. Exteroceptive Division

90
Q
  1. Which statement CORRECTLY
    describes the focal point in myopia?
    a. In front of the optic disc
    b. Posterior to retina
    c. Always focused on the retina
    d. In front of retina
A

d. In front of retina

91
Q
  1. Which fiber is the most common
    afferent for nociception?
    a. C mechanosensitive fibers
    b. Aδ cold-sensitive
    c. C mechanoheat-sensitive fibers
    d. C cold-sensitive
A

c. C mechanoheat-sensitive fibers (C- polymodal fiber)

92
Q
  1. Which of the cytoplasmic organelles
    is the most abundant in dendrites?
    a. Microtubules and Microfilaments
    b. Nissl Bodies and Golgi Apparatus
    c. Micrtotubules and Nissl Bodies
    d. Microfilaments and Golgi Apparatus
A

a. Microtubules and Microfilaments

93
Q
  1. Which pain sensation is caused by
    damage to neural structures?
    a. Neuropathic pain
    b. Referred pain
    c. Phantom limb pain
    d. Radiating pain
A

a. Neuropathic pain

94
Q
  1. Which of the ff CORRECTLY
    describes Type 1 receptive fields?
    a. Small receptive fields with well-defined borders
    b. Wider receptive fields with poorly defined borders
    c. Has a single point of maximal sensitivity
    d. Covers most or all of a finger
A

a. Small receptive fields with well-defined borders

95
Q
  1. What structure is responsible for determining the orientation of the head to gravity?
    a. Utricle and Saccule
    b. Semicircular canals
    c. Organ of Corti
    d. Cochlea
A

a. Utricle and Saccule

96
Q
  1. Which of the following response
    patterns is associated with Ruffini
    Endings?
    a. FA1
    b. FA2
    c. SA1
    d. SA2
A

d. SA2

FA 1: Meissner’s Corpusles (Light touch)
FA 2: Pacinian Corpusles (Pressure)
SA 1: Merkel’s disk (Light touch)
SA 2: Ruffini Endings (Stretch)

97
Q
  1. Which phenomenon explains the reduction in painful stimuli after a harmless stimuli is applied?
    a. Mechanical allodynia
    b. Phantom limb pain
    c. Gate control theory of pain
    d. Neuropathic pain
A

a. Mechanical allodynia

allodynia: elicitation of painful sensations by stimuli that were innocuous before an injury

Phantom limb pain: perception of pain in amputated limb

Gate control theory of pain: innocuous stimuli, such as rubbing a hurt area, can block or reduce painful sensations.

Neuropathic pain: Pain caused by damage to neural structures

98
Q
  1. Which response pattern is
    associated with Merkel’s disks?
    a. FA1
    b. FA2
    c. SA1
    d. SA2
A

c. SA1

FA 1: Meissner’s Corpusles (Light touch)
FA 2: Pacinian Corpusles (Pressure)
SA 1: Merkel’s disk (Light touch)
SA 2: Ruffini Endings (Stretch)

99
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is TRUE of the divisions of the trigeminal nuclear complex?
    a. This complex is composed of 4 sensory divisions.
    b. Motor neurons project to skeletal muscles of the
    head via the trigeminal nerve.
    c. Proprioceptive information is not conveyed via the trigeminal nerve.
    d. The mesencephalic nucleus contains third-order neurons.
A

b. Motor neurons project to skeletal muscles of the
head via the trigeminal nerve.

100
Q
  1. Which of the following protects
    the ear from damaging loud sounds?
    a. Vestibular reflex
    b. Impedance matching
    c. Attenuation reflex
    d. Sound transduction
A

c. Attenuation reflex

Physio (self) (17 decks)

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