SFA MODULE 6 (DIGESTIVE) Flashcards

1
Q

What does congenital esophageal atresia cause?

A

No fluid or food entering the stomach

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2
Q

The early stage of vomiting causes:

A

metabolic alkalosis.

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3
Q

Which of the following is the primary site for absorption of nutrients?

A

ileum

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4
Q

Which of the following is/are related to post-hepatic jaundice?

A

Pruritic skin and light-colored stools

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5
Q

What is the definition of dysphagia?

A

Difficulty in swallowing

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6
Q

Which of the following applies to cleft palate?

A

The hard and soft palates do not fuse during the first trimester of pregnancy.

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7
Q

Although many factors may precipitate pancreatitis, the two major causes are:

A

gallstones and alcohol abuse

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8
Q

What is the most common type of hepatitis transmitted by blood transfusion?

A

HCV

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9
Q

Small, hidden amounts of blood in stool are referred to as:

A

occult blood

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10
Q

Bile pigment gallstones are more common in individuals dealing with:

A

alcoholic cirrhosis

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11
Q

Which of the following stimulates increased peristalsis and secretions in the digestive tract?

A

Vagus nerve

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12
Q

Which of the following is the most frequent location of peptic ulcers?

A

Proximal duodenum

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13
Q

The telescoping of one section of bowel inside another section is called:

A

intussusceptions

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14
Q

Predisposing factors to cholelithiasis include excessive:

A

bilirubin or cholesterol concentration in the bile

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15
Q

When a portion of the proximal stomach and the paraesophageal junction move above the diaphragm, this is called a:

A

sliding hernia

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16
Q

Identify a major reason making it difficult to prevent the spread of hepatitis B.

A

Infection is often asymptomatic.

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17
Q

What is frequently the first manifestation of stress ulcers?

A

Hematemesis

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18
Q

Which of the following applies to hepatitis A infection?

A

It is transmitted by the fecal-oral route

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19
Q

What is the major effect when a gallstone obstructs the cystic duct?

A

Severe colicky pain in upper right quadrant

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20
Q

Which type(s) of hepatitis increase(s) the risk of hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

HBV and HCV

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21
Q

Bilirubin is a product of:

A

hemolysis of red blood cells (RBCs) and breakdown of hemoglobin.

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22
Q

What pain is typical of diverticulitis?

A

Lower left quadrant

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23
Q

A viral infection of the parotid gland is commonly known as:

A

mumps.

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24
Q

What is a typical early sign of cancer in the ascending colon?

A

Occult blood in the stool

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25
Which of the following occurs with hepatitis B?
The liver is inflamed and enlarged
26
Which of the following is a typical indicator of an intestinal obstruction caused by paralytic ileus?
Severe steady abdominal pain
27
What is the primary cause of increased bleeding tendencies associated with cirrhosis?
Deficit of vitamin K and prothrombin
28
What is a common sign of acute gastritis?
Vomiting and anorexia
29
What are the typical changes occurring with Crohn’s disease?
Inflamed areas of the wall of the ileum alternating with thick fibrotic or normal areas
30
Which term refers to an inflammation usually related to infection of the bile ducts?
Cholangitis
31
What is the initial pathological change in alcoholic liver disease?
Accumulation of fat in hepatocytes with hepatomegaly
32
Pancreatic cancer may be diagnosed early if obstruction of bile or pancreatic secretions develops when the tumor is located:
at the head of the pancreas.
33
What is/are common location(s) for oral cancer?
Floor of the mouth or tongue borders
34
To which site does colon cancer usually first metastasize?
liver
35
A patient with acquired pyloric stenosis would likely:
vomit undigested food from previous meals
36
Gastroesophageal reflux disease involves:
periodic flow of gastric contents into the esophagus
37
The visceral peritoneum:
forms the outer covering of the stomach.
38
Which of the following would a perforated gastric ulcer likely cause?
Chemical peritonitis
39
How does a volvulus cause localized gangrene in the intestine?
The mesenteric arteries are compressed in the twisted section of intestine
40
At what stage of alcoholic liver disease can the damage be reversed?
initial stage
41
How does pelvic inflammatory disease frequently lead to bacterial peritonitis?
Infection spreads through the fallopian tubes directly into the peritoneal cavity.
42
Which of the following is a major cause of primary hepatocellular cancer?
Long-term exposure to certain chemicals
43
Which of the following is NOT usually present during the icteric stage of viral hepatitis?
esophageal varices
44
Which type of hepatitis virus requires the presence of hepatitis B virus so as to replicate?
HDV
45
Which of the following applies to the act of swallowing?
It requires coordination of cranial nerves V, IX, X, and XII.
46
Obstruction of the biliary tract by gallstones is referred to as:
choledocholithiasis.
47
What is the cause of inflammatory bowel disease?
Idiopathic
48
What usually initiates acute appendicitis?
Obstruction of the lumen of the appendix
49
Why does herpes simplex infection tend to recur?
The virus persists in latent form in sensory nerve ganglia
50
A congenital condition in which parasympathetic innervation is missing from a section of the colon, impairing motility is referred to as:
Hirschsprung’s disease
51
The three pairs of salivary glands that secrete into the oral cavity are: Alpha, beta, gamma Parotid, sublingual, submandibular Gastric, tonsils, palatine Gastric, parietal, chief
Parotid, sublingual, submandibular
52
The three phases of the swallowing process are: Mastication, eruption, dentition Cardiac, gastric, pyloric Buccal, pharyngeal, esophageal Mastication, dontination, buccal
Buccal, pharyngeal, esophageal
53
Which of the following is an accessory organ of the GI system that is responsible for secreting insulin? Pancreas Adrenal gland Liver Stomach
pancreas
54
The component of the digestive tract whose function is to break down materials chemically through acid and enzymatic attack is the: Small intestine Large intestine Stomach Liver
stomach
55
From superior end downward, the three parts of the small intestine are: Ileum, duodenum, jejunum Duodenum, jejunum, ileum Jejunum, ileum, duodenum Duodenum, ileum, jejunum
Duodenum, jejunum, ileum
56
When doing a laparoscopy, this instrument would be best suited to grasp a loop of bowel. Tenaculum Aggressive tip Debakey tip Dolphin tip dissector
Debakey tip
57
muscle that elevates the palate during swallowing?
Levator veli palatini
58
Which of the following are functions of the digestive system? Ingestion, mechanical processing, digestion Secretion, absorption, compaction Excretion All of the above
all of them
59
The function of the villi and microvilli in the small intestine is to: Decrease the amount of exposed surface Increase the total area of enzyme retention Increase the total area for absorption All of the above
increase the total area for absorption
60
problem caused by excessive alcohol consumption or prolonged use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (also known as NSAIDs) such as aspirin or ibuprofen.
gastritis
61
The process whereby the stomach muscles contract to propel food through the digestive tract is called:
peristalsis
62
Histologically, the stomach lining comprises: An inner cellular layer of simple columnar epithelium Cells within the epithelium that secrete mucous Shallow gastric pits that contain rapidly dividing mucous cells All of the above
all of the above
63
Symptoms may include: abdominal pain, loss of appetite, fatigue, bloody diarrhea, mucus in the stool, cramping, urgency and bloating.
colitis
64
Synthesis and secretion of bile is a major digestive function of the:
liver
65
segments of the large intestine EXCEPT the:
Ascending colon Cecum Sigmoid colon
66
The hepatic flexure of the large intestine occurs between the:
Ascending colon and transverse colon
67
Which of the following lists the layers of the digestive tract in the correct order, from the interior outward?
Mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, serosa
68
Usually presents as a pain in the right upper quadrant or epigastric region. It may also correlate with eating greasy, fatty, or fried foods. Diarrhea, vomiting, and nausea are common.
Cholecystitis
69
Resection of the descending colon would be considered a
left hemi-colectomy
70
Which of the following structures could not be seen when looking directly into the oral cavity? Lingual frenulum Uvula Palatine tonsil Larynx
larynx
71
Bile enters the gastrointestinal tract at the:
duodenum
72
Resection of the cecum would be considered a:
right hemi colectomy
73
The terminal portion of the small intestine is the:
cecum
74
Pain first, vomiting next and fever last has been described as the classic presentation of this condition.
appendicitis
75
lists the four regions of the stomach in the correct order, from superior to inferior end?
Cardia, fundus, body, pylorus
76
Resection of the sigmoid colon and rectum would be considered a:
proctocolectomy
77
Which of the following conditions is characterized by incompetence of the esophageal sphincter?
Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)