SFA MODULE 10 (MUSCOLOSKELETAL) Flashcards
The elbow is ____________ to the wrist.
Distal
Lateral
ventral
Proximal
Proximal
Which of the following can be found in cartilage but not bone tissue:
Lacunae
Protein fibers
Blood vessels
Chondroitin
chondroitin
These cells are located in bone tissue:
Chondroblasts
Osteocytes
Fibroblasts
Carbonates
osteocytes
The dense connective tissue covering outer surface of bone diaphyses is termed:
Periosteum
Perichondrium
Endosteum
Articular cartilage
Periosteum
Which of the following bones is considered a seasmoid bone:
Sternum
Ethmoid
Femur
Patella
patella
these two components in bone are responsible for the hardness and pliability of bone:
Osteoclasts & collagen
Mineralized salts & osteocytes
Mineralized salts & collagen
Collagen & elastic fibers
Mineralized salts & collagen
A fracture in teh shaft of a long bone would be a break in the:
Epiphysis
Diaphysis
Metaphysis
Epiphyseal plate
Diaphysis
These structures are at the center of compact bone lamellae and carry blood vessels along the bone length:
Haversian canals
Canaliculi
Perforating canals
Osteocytes
Haversian canals
The cell type that is responsible for maintaining bone matrix once it has formed is:
Osteoclasts
Chondrocytes
Osteocytes
Fibroblasts
Osteocytes
“Articulations” refers to:
Broken bones
The study of individual bones
Bone growth and remodeling
Joints
Joints
Which of the following is flexible connective tissue that covers bones at the joints?
Adipose
Cartilage
Epithelial
Muscle
Cartilage
Which of the following terms describes the motion of bending the forearm toward the body?
Abduction
Eversion
Flexion
Pronation
Flexion
If the foot is abducted, it is moved in which direction?
Inward
Outward
Upward
Downward
Outward
A patient has a fracture in which the radius in bent but not displaced, and the skin is intact. This type of fracture is known as which of the following?
Closed, greenstick
Complex, comminuted
Simple, pathologic
Open, spiral
Closed, greenstick
Which of the following is the large bone found superior to the patella and inferior to the ischium?
Calcaneus
Femur
Symphysis pubis
Tibia
Femur
The surgeon directs the medical assistant to complete a request form for an x-ray study of the calcaneus. The procedure will be performed on which of the following structuers?
Heel
Lower leg
Thight
Pelvis
Heel
The surgery of excision arthroplasty of the base of the proximal phalynx for a hallux valgus is named after:
Mayo
McBride
Steinder
Keller
Keller
One of the following is a disease caused by Osteoclast dysfunction:
Osteoporosis
Rickets
Renal osteodystrophy
Osteogenesis imperfecta
Osteoporosis
In congenial dislocation of the hip, the clinical sign of Crown IV which shows that the hip:
Will not dislocate on its own
Less than 50% chance of dislocating
50 to 75% chance of dislocating
100% chance of dislocating
100% chance of dislocating
Osteochondritis known as Sever’s disease involves:
Talus
Lunate
Tarsal navecular
Calcaneus
Calcaneus
A small boy who was brought to the emergency department by his parents is found to have spiral fracture of the femur, with a variety of ecchymoses. Most likely cause of injury includes:
Automobile hit & run
Fall from tree
Child abuse
Fall from cycle
Child abuse
Lachman’s test is meant for:
Anterior cruciate ligament
Posterior cruciate ligament
Medial meniscus
Medial collateral ligament
ACL
The contracture of muscles leading to deformity of hand & wrist following tight bandaging is describedby:
Dupuytren
Volkmann
Waston-Jones
Watterson
Volkmann
Commonest donor site for autologous bone graft is:
Fibula
Rib
Greater trochanter
Iliac crest
Iliac crest
The activity of __________ results in producing new bones matrix, while that of __________ can remove bone matrix.
Osteocytes, osteoblasts
Osteoblasts, osteocytes
Osteoclasts, osteocytes
Osteoclasts, osteoblasts
Osteoblasts, osteocytes
The component bones of the pectoral girdle include:
Ilium and pubis
Clavicle and scapula
Scapula and humerus
radius and ulna
Clavicle and scapula
Among the prominent bone markings of the scapula are the:
Supraspinous fossa, patellar fossa, iliac fossa
Superior border, medial angle, inferior
Coracoid process, acromion process, scapular spine
Olecranon process, coronoid process, styloid process
Coracoid process, acromion process, scapular spine
The two proximal carpals that articulate with the radius in making the wrist joints are the:
Scaphoid and lunate
Triangular and scaphoid
Triangular and pisiform
Lunate and pisiform
Scaphoid and lunate
Among the prominent bone markings of the tibia are the:
Interochanteric line, interochanteric crest, patellar surface
Anterior crest, tibial tuberosity, medial malleolus
Lateral malleolus, anterior crest, interosseous crest
Medical malleolus, lateral malleolus, tibial crest
Medical malleolus, lateral malleolus, tibial crest
Which is not part of the appendicular skeleton?
Vertebral column
Patella
Clavicle
Acromion
Vertebral column
A patient is performing the movement of flexion of the hip joint when she does this:
Moves the limb away from the midline in the coronal plane
Moves the limb posteriorly in the paramedian plane
Moves the limb anteriorly in the paramedian plan
Moves the limb towards the median sagittal plane
Moves the limb anteriorly in the paramedian plan
Inversion of the foot is a movement when the sole faces?
Downwards & posteriorly
Medially
Laterally
Downwards & laterally
Medially
Comes from a donor (cadaver). Bone-bank bone is collected from people who have agreed to donate their organs after they die. This graft does not have bone-growing cells or proteins, yet it is readily available and eliminates the need to harvest bone from your hip.
Osteogenesis
Disc
Autograft
Allograft
Allograft
Comes from man-made plastic, ceramic, or bioresorbable compounds. Often called cages, this graft material is packed with shavings of living bone tissue taken from your spine during surgery.
Osteogenesis
Autograft
Allograft
Bone graft substitute
Bone graft substitute
Following a total knee replacement, this can be a risk associated with the surgery.
Deep vein thrombosis
Fracture
Loss of motion
All of the above
All of the above
Which of the following may precipitate an attack of gout?
A sudden increase in serum uric acid levels
Severe Hypercalcemia
Mild trauma to the toes
Development of a tophus
A sudden increase in serum uric acid levels
What are the two types of bone tissue?
Compact and Cancellous
Describe a Colles’ fracture.
The distal radius is broken
What is a common effect of long-term use of glucocorticoids to treat rheumatoid arthritis?
What limits joint movement in osteoarthritis?
the osteophytes and irregular cartilage surface
Which statement applies to menisci?
they prevent excessive movement of joints
osteoporosis is predisposed by
sedentary lifestyle, long-term intake of glucocorticoids, calcium deficit
What is a typical characteristic of the pain caused by osteoarthritis?
Increased with weight bearing and acitivity
What is the likely immediate result of fat emboli from a broken femur?
Pulmonary inflammation and obstruction
Ankylosis and deformity develop in rheumatoid arthritis because:
replacement of cartilage misalign the joints
Which factors delay healing of bone fractures?
1. Lack of movement of the bone
2. Prolonged inflammation and ischemia
3. Presence of osteomyelitis
4. Close approximation of bone ends
prolonged inflammation and ischemia
Bones classified as “irregular” would include:
the mandible bone
The inflammation surrounding a fracture site during the first few days may complicate healing by causing:
severe ischemia and tissue necrosis
A dislocation is:
separation of bones in the joint with a loss of contact
Fluid-filled sacs composed of synovial membrane located between structures such as tendons and ligaments and act as additional cushions are called:
Bursae
The type of compound fracture in which there are multiple fracture lines and bone fragments is referred to as a/an:
comminuted fracture
A sprain is a tear in a:
ligament
Immovable joints are called:
synarthroses
The most common type of joint, which are freely movable, are called:
Diarthroses
Systemic effects of rheumatoid arthritis are manifested as:
nodules in various tissues, severe fatigue, and anorexia
How does the joint appear during an exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis?
Red, Warm, Swollen, and tender to touch
Which of the following cells produce new bone?
Osteoblasts
What is the typical joint involvement with rheumatoid arthritis?
Bilateral small joints, symmetrical progression to other joints
Rickets results from:
a deficit of vitamin D and phosphate
What is the basic pathology of rheumatoid arthritis?
Systemic inflammatory disorder due to an autoimmune reaction
Paget’s disease often leads to which of the following?
Cardiovascular disease
During the fracture healing process, the hematoma:
is the structure into which granulation tissue grows
What is the distinguishing feature of primary fibromyalgia syndrome?
specific trigger points for pain presentation
When a fracture is healing, the procallus or fibrocartilaginous callus:
serves as a splint across the fracture site
Which of the following would identify an open or compound fracture?
open skin and tissue at the site of the fracture
What is a sign of a dislocation?
deformity of the joint
Which of the following is characteristic of osteoarthritis?
pain upon weight-bearing activity at the joint
What is a common outcome of fibrosis, calcification, and fusion of the spine in ankylosing spondylitis?
compression fractures of the vertebrae
