Sexual Disorders Test Bank

Question 1

Persistent disruptions in the ability to experience sexual arousal, desire, or orgasms, or pain associated with intercourse, is called

a) sexual dysfunction.
b) sexual function.
c) paraphilia.
d) all of the above.

Answer 1

a) sexual dysfunction.

Question 2

Persistent and troubling attractions to unusual sexual activities or objects is called

a) sexual dysfunction.
b) sexual function.
c) paraphilia.
d) all of the above.

Answer 2

c) paraphilia.

Question 3

In contrast to the general Victorian view, the contemporary Western world believes that __________ of sexual expression contributes to problems.

a) an excess
b) inhibition
c) the amount
d) the type

Answer 3

b) inhibition

Question 4

Which of the following foods was originally developed as food that would lessen sexual interest?

a) Doritos
b) Nabisco Animal Crackers
c) Kellogg’s Corn Flakes
d) Hostess Twinkies

Answer 4

c) Kellogg’s Corn Flakes

Question 5

Research suggests that gender differences in sexuality are

a) consistent across cultures.
b) vary greatly by culture.
c) vary slightly by culture.
d) more of a result of culture than biology.

Answer 5

a) consistent across cultures.

Question 6

Which of the following categories is NOT included in the DSM-5 for sexual disorders?

a) sexual dysfunctions
b) paraphilias
c) sexual functions
d) they are all included in the DSM-5

Answer 6

c) sexual functions

Question 7

Which of the following is NOT a subcategory of paraphilia in the DSM-5?

a) fetishistic disorder
b) sexual arousal disorder
c) transvestic disorder
d) exhibitionistic disorder

Answer 7

b) sexual arousal disorder

Question 8

Which of the following is considered to be a paraphilia, according to the DSM-5?

a) premature ejaculation
b) genito-pelvic pain disorder
c) sexual sadism disorder
d) delayed ejaculation disorder

Answer 8

c) sexual sadism disorder

Question 9

According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, _________ percent of women will be diagnosed with a sexually transmitted illness by the age of 19.

a) 10
b) 25
c) 40
d) 60

Answer 9

b) 25

Question 10

Which of the following did NOT contribute to recent changes in sexual experiences?

a) the Internet
b) AIDS
c) sexually transmitted infections
d) all of the above contributed to recent changes in sexual experiences

Answer 10

d) all of the above contributed to recent changes in sexual experiences

Question 11

Which age group has the highest number of new HIV cases being diagnosed each year?

a) 15-19
b) 20-24
c) 25-29
d) 30-34

Answer 11

b) 20-24

Question 12

The majority of heterosexual couples report having sexual intercourse

a) less than 3 times per month.
b) at least once per week
c) more than 3 times per week
d) not at all

Answer 12

b) at least once per week

Question 13

The preference for a male or female partner − or both − is called

a) sexual identification.
b) gender identity.
c) sexual orientation.
d) sexual proclivity.

Answer 13

c) sexual orientation.

Question 14

The sense of oneself as being male or female is called

a) sexual identification.
b) gender identity.
c) sexual orientation.
d) sexual proclivity.

Answer 14

b) gender identity.

Question 15

Homosexuality was listed as a disorder in the DSM until the

a) 1950s
b) 1970s
c) 1980s
d) 1990s

Answer 15

b) 1970s

Question 16

A person who is homosexually aroused, is persistently distressed by this arousal, and wishes to become heterosexual was considered in the DSM-III to have the diagnosis of __________.

a) ego-dystonic homosexuality
b) pathological homosexuality
c) psychosomatic homosexuality
d) sexual identity disorder

Answer 16

a) ego-dystonic homosexuality

Question 17

People who feels deep within themselves, usually from early childhood, that they are of the opposite gender are given the diagnosis of

a) gender distortion disorder.
b) gender dysphoria.
c) sexual distortion disorder.
d) all of the above are possible diagnostic labels

Answer 17

b) gender dysphoria.

Question 18

Gender dysphoria almost always begin in

a) childhood.
b) adolescence.
c) early adulthood.
d) middle age.

Answer 18

a) childhood

Question 19

Which of the following diagnoses is among the most debated in the DSM-5?

a) sexual aversion disorder
b) gender dysphoria
c) vaginismus
d) female sexual arousal disorder

Answer 19

b) gender dysphoria

Question 20

Inclusion of the label gender dysphoria in the DSM-5 has been controversial in part because

a) no effective treatments are available.
b) inclusion fosters social prejudice.
c) diagnosis is highly subjective.
d) the label has been misused in court.

Answer 20

b) inclusion fosters social prejudice.

Question 21

In sex-reassignment surgery,

a) opposite-sex genitals are constructed and hormones are taken.
b) genital transplants are inserted from donors.
c) hormones are taken but genitals are left intact.
d) secondary features (e.g., Adam’s apple, chin, nose) are altered, but genitals are left intact.

Answer 21

a) opposite-sex genitals are constructed and hormones are taken.

Question 22

Cross-gender behavior is

a) unique to the U.S.
b) universal.
c) present in people but not animals.
d) all of the above.

Answer 22

b) universal.

Question 23

Which of the following is NOT a phase in the sexual response cycle?

a) resolution
b) excitement
c) anticlimax
d) desire

Answer 23

c) anticlimax

Question 24

In the human sexual response cycle, what is the name of the phase in which blood flows to the genitalia and pleasurable sensations build?

a) desire
b) excitement
c) orgasm
d) anticipatory

Answer 24

b) excitement

Question 25

Which of the following lists the correct order for the four responses in the human sexual response cycle?

a) desire, excitement, orgasm and resolution
b) desire, excitement, resolution and climax
c) excitement, desire, orgasm and resolution
d) desire, orgasm, excitement and resolution

Answer 25

a) desire, excitement, orgasm and resolution

Question 26

Elizabeth is slipping into her nightgown and watching her husband get into bed. She is fantasizing about what they will soon be doing together. In which phase of the human sexual response cycle is Elizabeth at this moment?

a) resolution
b) orgasm
c) desire
d) excitement

Answer 26

c) desire

Question 27

Barbara is concerned about her husband’s premature ejaculation, which occurs before she reaches orgasm. From her perspective, which of the following phases of the sexual response cycle is problematic in Barbara’s husband?

a) orgasm
b) excitement
c) resolution
d) desire

Answer 27

a) orgasm

Question 28

Occasional symptoms of sexual dysfunction

a) are fairly common.
b) typically cause marked distress.
c) are labeled only if they reoccur.
d) require immediate treatment.

Answer 28

a) are fairly common.

Question 29

Hannah reports that she has a low sex drive and sometimes has trouble reaching orgasm. However, when asked by her doctor, she does not report distress or impairment from these symptoms. The most likely diagnosis for Hannah would be

a) female orgasmic disorder.
b) sexual aversion disorder.
c) Hannah would not receive a clinical diagnosis.
d) dyspareunia.

Answer 29

c) Hannah would not receive a clinical diagnosis

Question 30

Jane is finding that her interest in sex has diminished greatly. She not only avoids having sexual contact with her husband, but has even stopped fantasizing and masturbating. Jane would likely be diagnosed as having which of the following DSM-5 disorders?

a) female orgasm disorder
b) female sexual interest/arousal disorder
c) hypoactive sexual desire disorder
d) none of the above

Answer 30

b) female sexual interest/arousal disorder

Question 31

Female orgasmic disorder is defined as

a) lack of orgasm and no desire.
b) lack of orgasm without direct clitoral stimulation.
c) lack of orgasm despite normal sexual excitement and stimulation.
d) orgasm during masturbation only, if at all.

Answer 31

c) lack of orgasm despite normal sexual excitement and stimulation.

Question 32

Delayed ejaculation disorder

a) is the most common sexual disorder in men.
b) is associated with childhood sexual abuse.
c) is a problem that is situationaly bound.
d) is defined as persistent difficulty in ejaculating.

Answer 32

d) is defined as persistent difficulty in ejaculating.

Question 33

When Sheila attempts to have sexual intercourse, the outer part of her vagina has an involuntary spasm, and it becomes impossible for her to have intercourse. Which of the following DSM-5 diagnoses would fit Sheila’s problem?

a) vaginismus
b) dyspareunia
c) female orgasmic disorder
d) sexual aversion disorder

Answer 33

a) vaginismus

Question 34

Joan experiences pain during sexual intercourse. The frequency of pain has been so great that she now dreads the prospect of possible sexual encounters, despite experiencing sexual arousal while observing films depicting sexual acts other than intercourse. Joan most likely is suffering from

a) female orgasmic disorder.
b) genito-pelvic pain/penetration disorder
c) imperforate hymen.
d) vaginismus.

Answer 34

b) genito-pelvic pain/penetration disorder

Question 35

In men, a persistently deficient or absent sexual fantasies and desires is called __________ in the DSM-5.

a) male hypoactive sexual desire disorder
b) hyperactive sexual desire disorder
c) asexuality disorder
d) none of the above

Answer 35

a) male hypoactive sexual desire disorder

Question 36

Which of the following is NOT a DSM-5 criterion for sexual interest/arousal disorder in women?

a) diminished interest in sexual activity
b) increase in sexual fantasies without arousal
c) absence of sexual arousal
d) absence of genital sensations during most sexual encounters

Answer 36

b) increase in sexual fantasies without arousal

Question 37

Persistent or recurrent pain during sexual intercourse is called __________ in the DSM-5.

a) genito-pelvic pain/penetration disorder
b) genital pain disorder
c) sexual intercourse pain disorder
d) sexual id pain disorder

Answer 37

a) genito-pelvic pain/penetration disorder

Question 38

Which of the following is a current or proximal cause of sexual dysfunctions, according to Masters and Johnson?

a) psychosexual trauma
b) fear of performance
c) excessive intake of alcohol
d) homosexual inclinations

Answer 38

b) fear of performance

Question 39

Sexual desire can be affected in part by

a) anger towards one’s partner.
b) communication problems.
c) certain medications such as SSRIs.
d) all of the above

Answer 39

d) all of the above

Question 40

Which of the following psychological disorders are associated with an increased risk of sexual dysfunction?

a) borderline personality disorder and specific phobias
b) bipolar disorder and antisocial personality disorder
c) depression and anxiety
d) generalized anxiety disorder and dependent personality disorder

Answer 40

c) depression and anxiety

Question 41

Studies indicate that __________ can interfere with specific sexual arousal.

a) erotic films
b) low general physiological arousal
c) low blood pressure
d) relaxation

Answer 41

b) low general physiological arousal

Question 42

In a study of the role of self-blame and erectile dysfunction, men who were given an internal explanation for their low arousal after watching erotic films

a) reported and showed less physiological arousal.
b) reported and showed more physiological arousal.
c) reported more, but showed less physiological arousal.
d) believed they had an erectile dysfunction.

Answer 42

a) reported and showed less physiological arousal.

Question 43

Masters and Johnson found that many individuals who have sexual dysfunction

a) were college-educated.
b) had low socioeconomic status.
c) had negative views of sexuality.
d) were encouraged to express their sexuality at a young age.

Answer 43

c) had negative views of sexuality.

Question 44

Bill and Deborah are in sex therapy. One exercise that they are directed to practice involves touching each other and feeling comfortable with contact, but without any sexual intercourse. This intervention is called

a) sensate focus.
b) sensuality training.
c) physical redirecting.
d) cognitive restructuring

Answer 44

a) sensate focus.

Question 45

During the first few days of Masters and Johnson’s sex therapy,

a) couples are instructed to have sex as often as possible and to practice the techniques they are being taught.
b) couples are instructed not to make any changes in their sexual relationship until the assessment period is over.
c) couples are instructed not to engage in any sexual activity.
d) instructions about sexual activities vary depending on the particular dysfunction being treated

Answer 45

c) couples are instructed not to engage in any sexual activity.

Question 46

In sex therapy, the sensate focus exercise involves

a) having sexual intercourse without taking on the spectator role.
b) engaging in intercourse as often as possible to sensitize each other’s bodies.
c) nonsexual touching.
d) caressing without engaging in intercourse.

Answer 46

d) caressing without engaging in intercourse.

Question 47

Directed masturbation is often used

a) to train individuals who have difficulty achieving orgasm.
b) as a means for redirecting attention from inappropriate sexual stimuli.
c) for excessive sexual appetite.
d) as part of a program of treatment for sex offenders.

Answer 47

a) to train individuals who have difficulty achieving orgasm.

Question 48

For women with sexual dysfunctions in the context of marital relationship distress, which of the following has been found to improve many aspects of sexual functioning?

a) SSRI medications
b) behavioral marital couples therapy
c) anti-anxiety medications
d) psychoanalysis

Answer 48

b) behavioral marital couples therapy

Question 49

The squeeze technique is used in the treatment of

a) vaginismus.
b) male orgasmic disorder.
c) dyspareunia.
d) premature ejaculation.

Answer 49

d) premature ejaculation.

Question 50

The most common medical interventions for erectile dysfunction include

a) sildenafil (Viagra) and related medications.
b) silicone rod implants.
c) antidepressants such as SSRIs.
d) none of the above – there are no known medical interventions for erectile dysfunction.

Answer 50

a) sildenafil (Viagra) and related medications.

Question 51

Viagra, a medication for improved erectile function, acts primarily by

a) increasing the level of dopamine, which is associated with sexual arousal.
b) relaxing smooth muscles, allowing increased blood flow to the penis.
c) stimulating the amygdala in the limbic system.
d) inhibiting the response of the serotonin system.

Answer 51

b) relaxing smooth muscles, allowing increased blood flow to the penis.

Question 52

Which of the following disorders is most associated with legal consequences?

a) gender identity disorder
b) schizophrenia
c) paraphilias
d) dyspareunia

Answer 52

c) paraphilias

Question 53

Those with fetishistic disorder are sexually aroused by

a) inanimate objects.
b) exposing themselves to people while masturbating.
c) observing other people engaging in sexual activity.
d) children.

Answer 53

a) inanimate objects.

Question 54

Transvestic disorder

a) typically disappears by adulthood.
b) is part of gender identity disorder.
c) occurs equally in men and women.
d) refers to sexual arousal from cross-dressing

Answer 54

d) refers to sexual arousal from cross-dressing

Question 55

Ben can become sexually aroused only when he is wearing women’s clothing. He especially enjoys having sexual relations with his wife while he is wearing her garments. Which of the following diagnoses would fit Ben’s case?

a) transvestic disorder
b) transsexualism
c) voyeuristic disorder
d) exhibitionistic disorder

Answer 55

a) transvestic disorder

Question 56

Someone who derives sexual pleasure from contact with prepubertal children would be diagnosed with

a) fetishistic disorder.
b) exhibitionistic disorder.
c) pedophilic disorder .
d) gender dysphoria.

Answer 56

c) pedophilic disorder .

Question 57

Child molesters are usually

a) women, contrary to popular belief.
b) other children.
c) strangers who molest children out of anger, not for sexual gratification.
d) men and someone whom the child knows.

Answer 57

d) men and someone whom the child knows.

Question 58

Child molesters frequently deny that they are forcing themselves on the victim because

a) they leave no physical marks.
b) they threaten the child to deny the incident.
c) there is rarely physical force, but instead coercion.
d) the child may not understand the significance of being molested.

Answer 58

c) there is rarely physical force, but instead coercion.

Question 59

The incest taboo

a) is limited to Western societies.
b) is virtually universal in human societies.
c) produces guilt in the assailant.
d) generalizes to pedophilic urges.

Answer 59

b) is virtually universal in human societies.

Question 60

Those with voyeuristic disorder (peeping Toms) are typically

a) disturbed, confused, and do not understand social codes.
b) angry, violent, controlling, and hostile toward women in general.
c) rigidly moralistic, ashamed of their uncontrollable sexual urges.
d) fearful of actual sexual contact with a woman.

Answer 60

d) fearful of actual sexual contact with a woman.

Question 61

Which of the following would be most stimulating to a voyeur?

a) a woman undressing privately, unaware that he is watching.
b) a prostitute undressing for him.
c) a beautiful but proper woman undressing for his exclusive benefit.
d) a couple having sexual relations in the same room as him, while he observes but does not participate.

Answer 61

a) a woman undressing privately, unaware that he is watching.

Question 62

Most exhibitionists

a) do not seek physical contact with their victims.
b) seek to persuade the woman to have physical contact without using force.
c) seek to force physical contact with their victims, but stop short of rape.
d) go on to commit rape.

Answer 62

a) do not seek physical contact with their victims.

Question 63

Frotteuristic disorder involves

a) the sexually oriented touching of an unsuspecting person.
b) the exposing of oneself to others to achieve sexual stimulation.
c) incestuous behavior.
d) none of the above.

Answer 63

a) the sexually oriented touching of an unsuspecting person.

Question 64

Sexual sadism is defined by an intense desire to obtain sexual gratification by __________ while sexual masochism is defined by an intense desire to obtain sexual gratification through __________.

a) inflicting pain or humiliation on another; subjecting oneself to pain or humiliation
b) subjecting oneself to pain or humiliation; inflicting pain or humiliation on another
c) watching another undress; exposing oneself
d) exposing oneself; watching another undress

Answer 64

a) inflicting pain or humiliation on another; subjecting oneself to pain or humiliation

Question 65

Speculations about the role of hormones in paraphilias center on

a) androgens.
b) progesterone.
c) estrogen.
d) all of the above

Answer 65

a) androgens.

Question 66

Mark was an exhibitionist, getting sexual gratification only from exposing his genitals to unsuspecting women at bus stops. He went to Dr. Grind, a psychoanalyst, for treatment. What would Dr. Grind view as the cause of Mark’s problem?

a) fear of actually having a sexual relationship with a woman
b) childhood experience in which he was caught masturbating and found the experience arousing
c) castration anxiety leading to extreme hatred of women
d) serious marital problems and religious prohibitions

Answer 66

a) fear of actually having a sexual relationship with a woman

Question 67

A behavioral hypothesis regarding the etiology of paraphilias is based on __________ theory.

a) classical conditioning
b) Oedipal
c) systematic desensitization
d) modeling

Answer 67

a) classical conditioning

Question 68

Which is commonly offered as a psychological possibility for the development of paraphilias?

a) high need for sexual novelty.
b) social acceptance of unconventional sex.
c) accidental classical conditioning.
d) lack of interest in conventional sex.

Answer 68

c) accidental classical conditioning.

Question 69

Ethan engaged in exhibitionism. After one occasion, he remarked to his therapist that his victim “kept looking at me, like she wanted it.” This is an example of

a) minimizing sexual intent.
b) minimizing consequences.
c) misattributing blame.
d) justifying the cause.

Answer 69

c) misattributing blame.

Question 70

After exhibiting, Ethan said of his victim, “She smiled, so I guess she was amused.” This is an example of

a) minimizing sexual intent.
b) minimizing consequences.
c) attributing blame.
d) justifying the cause.

Answer 70

b) minimizing consequences.

Question 71

Carlos had a shoe fetish that he wished to overcome. His therapist had him view slides of shoes while giving him mild electric shocks. This is an example of

a) aversion therapy.
b) systematic desensitization.
c) orgasmic reorientation.
d) electroconvulsive shock therapy (ECT).

Answer 71

a) aversion therapy.

Question 72

Which is a common component of psychological treatment of paraphilias?

a) support groups modeled on Alcoholics Anonymous
b) challenging distorted beliefs
c) reinforcing appropriate sex
d) exercise and diet to reduce urges

Answer 72

b) challenging distorted beliefs

Question 73

Bryant, as part of his treatment for committing incest, was trained to experience empathy for his victims. He was likely receiving

a) object-relations psychodynamic therapy.
b) behavioral therapy.
c) cognitive therapy.
d) family therapy.

Answer 73

c) cognitive therapy.

Question 74

Megan’s Law involves

a) notification of members of a community when a convicted sex offender is released and moving into that neighborhood.
b) additional compensation for victims’ families following sex crimes.
c) more rigid conviction standards for sex offenders.
d) intensive therapy for sex offenders following their first offense.

Answer 74

a) notification of members of a community when a convicted sex offender is released and moving into that neighborhood.

Question 75

Which of the following disorders is most likely to develop in the aftermath of rape?

a) paranoid personality disorder
b) posttraumatic stress disorder
c) bipolar disorder
d) masochistic personality disorder

Answer 75

b) posttraumatic stress disorder

Question 76

Most rapists

a) have a high degree of hostility toward women.
b) are shy and reserved.
c) can be readily distinguished from non-rapists on the basis of physical characteristics.
d) are also voyeurs.

Answer 76

a) have a high degree of hostility toward women.

Question 77

A meta-analysis of studies in which men viewed videos containing violent sexual activities indicated that after watching these videos,

a) men were more likely to commit violence toward women in the weeks following the viewing of the videos.
b) men were less likely to report that violence toward women was acceptable.
c) men were more likely to report that violence toward women was acceptable.
d) men were more sexually aroused after watching violent sexual activities than non-violent sexual activities.

Answer 77

c) men were more likely to report that violence toward women was acceptable.

Question 78

Rapists who enter therapy for their behavior do best when

a) the groups are highly confrontational.
b) they complete the therapy program.
c) they receive support from their family.
d) they begin dating again

Answer 78

b) they complete the therapy program.

Question 79

All of the following are reasons why women often do not report rapes EXCEPT

a) believing the police would be of little assistance.
b) fearing that the rapist or his family and friends may seek revenge.
c) fearing that people will think she has a paraphilia.
d) considering rape to be a private and personal matter.

Answer 79

c) fearing that people will think she has a paraphilia.

Question 80

All of the following are criteria in the DSM-5 diagnosis for erectile disorder EXCEPT

a) decrease in penile rigidity interferes with pleasure or penetration.
b) duration of symptoms for at least three months.
c) inability to maintain an erection for completion of sexual activity.
d) symptoms do not resolve with the use of medications.

Answer 80

d) symptoms do not resolve with the use of medications.

Question 81

Tyler has noticed that over the course of his last two years of graduate school, he has been experiencing very little sexual desire. He states that he rarely, if ever, fantasizes about sex. If Tyler finds this distressing, the most likely diagnosis would be

a) Male hypoactive sexual desire disorder.
b) Male sexual interest/desire disorder.
c) Inhibited sexual desire disorder.
d) Erectile dysfunction.

Answer 81

a) Male hypoactive sexual desire disorder.

Question 82

The criteria for premature ejaculation specify that ejaculation must occur within _______ minute(s) during at least _____ % of sexual occasions.

a) 1, 75
b) 5, 50
c) 1, 50
d) 5, 75

Answer 82

a) 1, 75

Question 83

Sexual attraction to prepubescent children is known as _________________.

a) Sexual aggression disorder
b) Pedophilic disorder
c) Exhibitionistic disorder
d) Sexual aversion disorder

Answer 83

b) Pedophilic disorder

Question 84

Which of these diagnoses does not include a criterion specifying that the victim be non-consenting?

a) Sexual masochistic disorder
b) Voyeuristic disorder
c) Exhibitionistic disorder
d) Frotteuristic disorder

Answer 84

a) Sexual masochistic disorder