Random Test Bank

Question 1

The philosophical ideal of the U.S. government is to allow citizens the maximum degree of __________ consistent with preserving order in the community at large.

a) liberty
b) justice
c) independence
d) discipline

Answer 1

a) liberty

Question 2

Frank suffers from schizophrenia. He has allegedly severely beaten another man in the park after an argument. While he is being examined by a psychologist to see if he is fit to stand trial, he is mandated to a mental health institution. This is an example of

a) civil commitment.
b) mandated reporting.
c) criminal commitment.
d) psychiatric commitment.

Answer 2

c) criminal commitment.

Question 3

Criminal and civil commitment can be best distinguished by

a) whether the one being committed is insane.
b) whether a crime has been committed by the individual.
c) the severity of the symptoms and the crime committed.
d) the type of police intervention necessary.

Answer 3

b) whether a crime has been committed by the individual.

Question 4

When a disordered mind may be regarded as unable to formulate and carry out a criminal purpose, it is called

a) insanity.
b) injustice.
c) liberty of illness.
d) justified commitment.

Answer 4

a) insanity.

Question 5

The definition of “insanity” comes from __________

a) psychologists.
b) the American Psychological Association.
c) court proceedings.
d) all of the above.

Answer 5

c) court proceedings.

Question 6

A legal argument based on the notion that the defendant should not be held responsible for an illegal act if it is attributable to mental illness or intellectual disability that interferes with rationality is called

a) insanity defense.
b) legal illness defense.
c) commitment hearing.
d) none of the above

Answer 6

a) insanity defense.

Question 7

The insanity defense is used in less than __________ percent of legal cases.

a) .1
b) 1
c) 5
d) 8

Answer 7

b) 1

Question 8

Some version of the insanity defense has been used since the

a) Middle Ages.
b) 7th century B.C.E.
c) 20th century
d) 21st century

Answer 8

b) 7th century B.C.E.

Question 9

A pathological impulse or drive that the person could not control compelled that person to commit a criminal act. This type of crime would be addressed by the

a) Irresistible impulse rule.
b) M’Naghten rule.
c) American Law Institute Guidelines.
d) Insanity Defense Reform Act.

Answer 9

a) Irresistible impulse rule.

Question 10

When a person did not know the nature and quality of the criminal act in which he or she engaged, or, if the person did know it, the person did not know what he or she was doing wrong is an issue that is addressed by the

a) Irresistible impulse rule.
b) M’Naghten rule.
c) American Law Institute Guidelines.
d) Insanity Defense Reform Act.

Answer 10

b) M’Naghten rule.

Question 11

When a person’s criminal act is a result of severe mental illness or defect that prevents the person from understanding the nature of his or her crime, it is addressed by the

a) Irresistible impulse rule.
b) M’Naghten rule.
c) American Law Institute Guidelines.
d) Insanity Defense Reform Act.

Answer 11

d) Insanity Defense Reform Act.

Question 12

If a person can be found legally guilty of a crime – thus maximizing the chances of incarceration – and the person’s mental illness plays a role in how he or she is dealt with, it is addressed by the notion of

a) Guilty but mentally ill.
b) Irresistible impulse.
c) M’Naghten rule.
d) Insanity Plea.

Answer 12

a) Guilty but mentally ill.

Question 13

George killed his two children because he believed he heard voices telling him that if he did not kill them, his neighbor would. His defense attorney argued that due to George’s insanity at the time of the crime, he should not be held responsible for the crime and should thus be acquitted of the crime. Which of the following best describes the plea that George’s defense attorney made?

a) Not Guilty but Mentally Ill
b) The Durham test
c) Not Guilty by Reason of Insanity
d) Guilty but Mentally Insane

Answer 13

c) Not Guilty by Reason of Insanity

Question 14

If an individual is acquitted on a Not Guilty by Reason of Insanity plea, he or she is

a) committed to a forensic hospital for an indefinite amount of time.
b) generally placed in a maximum security prison.
c) able to walk free, but with strict requirements for outpatient psychiatric treatment.
d) placed in a psychiatric hospital until he or she is deemed ready to reenter society.

Answer 14

a) committed to a forensic hospital for an indefinite amount of time.

Question 15

If an individual is judged to be Guilty but Mentally Ill, he or she

a) is always put in the general prison population.
b) may be committed to a prison hospital or other type of suitable psychiatric facility.
c) is placed in a psychiatric hospital until he or she is deemed ready to reenter society.
d) will receive inpatient psychiatric treatment at a local psychiatric hospital before being moved into the general prison population.

Answer 15

b) may be committed to a prison hospital or other type of suitable psychiatric facility.

Question 16

Insanity defense trials typically involve

a) considerable flexibility in determining who is responsible for criminal actions.
b) subjective determinations of competency at the time of a crime.
c) individuals with antisocial personality and no other significant mental disorders.
d) all of the above.

Answer 16

b) subjective determinations of competency at the time of a crime.

Question 17

The M’Naghten rule states that the insanity defense is appropriate if a person

a) has an irresistible impulse leading him or her to commit a crime.
b) has a diagnosable mental illness.
c) is not competent to stand trial.
d) did not know right from wrong at the time of the criminal act.

Answer 17

d) did not know right from wrong at the time of the criminal act.

Question 18

According to the American Law Institute guidelines, which of the following mental disorders would not qualify for the insanity defense?

a) paranoid schizophrenia
b) dissociative identity disorder
c) post-traumatic stress disorder
d) antisocial personality disorder

Answer 18

d) antisocial personality disorder

Question 19

A primary purpose of the American Law Institute guidelines for defining the insanity defense was to

a) avoid specifying symptoms of mental illness that might later become obsolete.
b) be more specific and informative to lay jurors.
c) allow greater leeway for expert witnesses to define the concept of mental illness.
d) open the defense to the full range of mental illnesses.

Answer 19

b) be more specific and informative to lay jurors.

Question 20

A major result of the Insanity Defense Reform Act was

a) to require that a documented, preexisting mental condition exist at the time of a crime in order to use an insanity defense.
b) to clarify what specific crimes may be associated with insanity.
c) to restrict the insanity defense to multiple offenders.
d) to eliminate the irresistible impulse as a plausible insanity defense.

Answer 20

d) to eliminate the irresistible impulse as a plausible insanity defense.

Question 21

The Insanity Defense Reform Act shifted the burden of proof onto the

a) defense.
b) prosecution.
c) expert witness.
d) judge.

Answer 21

a) defense.

Question 22

According to the Insanity Defense Reform Act, a person who is deemed not guilty by reason of insanity

a) must be suffering from at least a moderate mental illness.
b) may be hospitalized for longer than the maximum allowable time for their crime.
c) must lack the overall capacity to appreciate the wrongfulness of their behavior.
d) all of the above.

Answer 22

b) may be hospitalized for longer than the maximum allowable time for their crime.

Question 23

What verdict has been proposed most recently for mentally ill persons who commit crimes?

a) guilty (no allowance made for mental illness)
b) not guilty by reason of insanity
c) not guilty by reason of temporary insanity
d) guilty but mentally ill

Answer 23

d) guilty but mentally ill

Question 24

What is the rationale for laws that provide for legal verdicts of “guilty but mentally ill?”

a) to prevent the truly insane from being treated as criminals.
b) to provide treatment options for convicted criminals while still holding them responsible for their actions.
c) to deal with mentally ill vagrants.
d) to permit consideration of whether the accused could appreciate the wrongfulness of his or her actions.

Answer 24

b) to provide treatment options for convicted criminals while still holding them responsible for their actions.

Question 25

Patrick was found guilty of murdering his wife. Psychiatrists testified that Patrick had paranoid schizophrenia and that his delusions led directly to the criminal act. If his state allows the guilty but mentally ill verdict, what sentence would Patrick likely receive?

a) Psychiatric commitment until a psychiatrist determines that he is cured of his mental illness.
b) Psychiatric commitment until a psychiatrist determines that he is no longer dangerous.
c) A criminal sentence but with psychiatric care provided during the incarceration.
d) The same criminal sentence as a non-mentally ill person convicted of murder.

Answer 25

c) A criminal sentence but with psychiatric care provided during the incarceration.

Question 26

The case of Jeffrey Dahmer exemplifies

a) the plea of not guilty by reason of insanity.
b) the distinction between mentally ill and insane.
c) the aggressive behaviors of antisocial personality disorder.
d) how a psychologically healthy person can be temporarily insane.

Answer 26

b) the distinction between mentally ill and insane.

Question 27

The Jones v. United States case illustrated which problem with the insanity defense?

a) Mentally ill people may still be guilty of crimes.
b) People deemed to be insane may be treated for longer than they would have been imprisoned.
c) Committed patients have a right to refuse treatment.
d) People may have been insane at the time of the crime but still competent to stand trial.

Answer 27

b) People deemed to be insane may be treated for longer than they would have been imprisoned.

Question 28

What is the distinction between insanity and competency to stand trial?

a) Insanity is more serious than incompetency.
b) Competency, but not insanity, concerns persons accused of a crime.
c) Someone found competent to stand trial cannot also be found insane.
d) Insanity and competency concern different points in time during which the person’s mental state is being questioned.

Answer 28

d) Insanity and competency concern different points in time during which the person’s mental state is being questioned.

Question 29

You are an attorney appointed to represent a poor client accused of rape who has a history of mental illness. During your first several meetings, the man is completely incoherent. Which of the following issues should you address first?

a) competency to stand trial
b) possibility of mens rea
c) a possible insanity defense
d) possible civil commitment

Answer 29

a) competency to stand trial

Question 30

The difference between “insanity” and “competency” is that

a) insanity involves a person’s state at the time of the crime.
b) insanity is a legal, not a mental health, category
c) insanity has less serious consequences.
d) the criteria for insanity are more clear-cut.

Answer 30

a) insanity involves a person’s state at the time of the crime.

Question 31

Simon has been diagnosed with schizophrenia. He is accused of murder, and his lawyers have suggested that he is not competent to stand trial. He is then administered Haldol:, his symptoms remit significantly and he stops experiencing paranoid ideas and delusions. What is likely to happen next?

a) He would continue to be considered incompetent to stand trial as the medication produced the effects.
b) He would not be tried in court.
c) His lawyers would have to reconsider their insanity defense.
d) He would be considered competent to stand trial.

Answer 31

d) He would be considered competent to stand trial.

Question 32

The competency to stand trial issue is based on the basic legal principle

a) that a person must be able to help in their own defense and understand the charges against them.
b) that mentally ill persons may not be responsible for their crimes.
c) of innocent until proven guilty.
d) of free will and the knowledge of right and wrong.

Answer 32

a) that a person must be able to help in their own defense and understand the charges against them.

Question 33

When someone is determined incompetent to stand trial, what typically happens to him or her?

a) They are released.
b) They are treated and, if later found competent, then tried for the original crime.
c) They are treated and then released.
d) They are treated while serving time in prison for the crime.

Answer 33

b) They are treated and, if later found competent, then tried for the original crime.

Question 34

The standard of proof of beyond a reasonable doubt requires __________ percent certainty to convict.

a) 50
b) 75
c) 90
d) 95

Answer 34

d) 95

Question 35

In the Jackson v. Indiana case, it was decided that a person judged incompetent to stand trial could be committed to a prison hospital

a) for an indeterminate period, as long as the accused is still considered a danger to others.
b) for an indeterminate period, as long as the accused is still judged to be insane.
c) only until it is determined whether or not the accused will ever become competent.
d) only if the competence of the accused is dependent on medication (“synthetic sanity”).

Answer 35

c) only until it is determined whether or not the accused will ever become competent.

Question 36

Corey has been remanded to a psychiatric hospital to determine if he is competent to stand trial. He has been diagnosed with schizophrenia and is responding well to treatment with psychotropic medications. He is less delusional and his speech is more organized. Based on this, he is deemed competent and is scheduled to stand trial. This is an example of

a) synthetic sanity.
b) being guilty but mentally ill.
c) misdiagnosis.
d) temporary insanity.

Answer 36

a) synthetic sanity.

Question 37

What is “synthetic sanity?”

a) Faking of sanity by a deranged person
b) Sanity measured only by psychological tests
c) Sanity induced by psychotropic drugs
d) Appearance of sanity under courtroom stress

Answer 37

c) Sanity induced by psychotropic drugs

Question 38

Brian has been diagnosed with schizophrenia. He is accused of stealing from a jewelry store and is currently being treated in a psychiatric hospital to assess his competency. Which of the following are correct regarding Brian’s situation?

a) Brian cannot be forced to take Haldol, an antipsychotic medication.
b) Brian can be deemed competent even if his competency is the result of medication alone.
c) The effects of Brian’s current antipsychotic medications can be explained to the jury.
d) All of the above

Answer 38

d) All of the above

Question 39

The prosecution and defense in the trial of Andrea Yates agreed

a) that she knew right from wrong.
b) she was not mentally ill at the time of the murders.
c) that she killed her children.
d) All of the above are correct.

Answer 39

c) that she killed her children.

Question 40

The first trial of Andrea Yates caused great public debate because

a) the jury found her to be sane and guilty.
b) the jury found her to be insane and guilty.
c) the defense tried to use the rarely accepted “guilty by reason of insanity” defense.
d) she was taking care of her children while diagnosed with schizophrenia.

Answer 40

a) the jury found her to be sane and guilty.

Question 41

Saks’ argument about dissociative identity disorder as an insanity defense is that

a) the body that commits the crime should be held responsible, regardless of whether the “person” was conscious of the crime being committed.
b) the person, not the body, is responsible for a crime.
c) dissociative identity disorder is usually faked by criminals pleading insanity and thus should not be an allowable defense.
d) since therapy for dissociative identity disorder is not usually effective, confinement to a prison mental hospital is illogical.

Answer 41

b) the person, not the body, is responsible for a crime.

Question 42

Horace Kelly, a 39-year-old man who had been found guilty of two rapes and the killing of an 11-year-old boy, was found guilty and sentenced to death. What happened that made the Court rule that the execution would be considered cruel and unusual punishment?

a) His mental health had deteriorated to the point that he was a “walking vegetable.”
b) His family begged for mercy.
c) He was the only child left alive of a dying mother.
d) He had been abused as a child.

Answer 42

a) His mental health had deteriorated to the point that he was a “walking vegetable.”

Question 43

In which Supreme Court ruling did the state of Virginia define intellectual disability as consisting of an IQ score of 70 or less along with difficulties in self-care and social interaction?

a) Mannis v. Virginia
b) Atkins v. Virginia
c) Robinson v. Illinois
d) all of these cases apply to the decision.

Answer 43

b) Atkins v. Virginia

Question 44

Most states hold that a person can be involuntarily committed to a mental hospital

a) if found to be mentally ill.
b) if found to be mentally ill and a danger to themselves or others.
c) only if he or she has committed a crime.
d) only if he or she has committed a violent crime.

Answer 44

b) if found to be mentally ill and a danger to themselves or others.

Question 45

Despite her objections, the police took Elizabeth directly to a mental hospital after they found her in an obviously deranged state, attempting to kill herself. What is the procedure the doctors used to keep her in the hospital after she arrived?

a) voluntary commitment
b) criminal commitment
c) formal commitment
d) civil commitment

Answer 45

d) civil commitment

Question 46

An informal civil commitment

a) applies only if there is no imminent danger.
b) can be used only if the person agrees.
c) is a short-term emergency procedure that can be accomplished without involving the courts.
d) requires a court order.

Answer 46

c) is a short-term emergency procedure that can be accomplished without involving the courts.

Question 47

Which of the following statements is true regarding violence and the mentally ill?

a) Nearly 25% of the violence in the United States is linked to mental illness.
b) 90% of psychotic patients are non-violent.
c) People with mental illnesses who are violent typically lash out in crowded public places.
d) None of the above.

Answer 47

b) 90% of psychotic patients are non-violent.

Question 48

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the relationship between mental illness and dangerousness?

a) Most mentally ill people are violent at some point during their illness.
b) More crimes are committed by mentally ill people than any other group.
c) Among mentally ill people, violence is most common among those with schizophrenia.
d) People with mental illness who were not substance abusers were no more likely to engage in violence than non-mentally ill people who were not substance abusers.

Answer 48

d) People with mental illness who were not substance abusers were no more likely to engage in violence than non-mentally ill people who were not substance abusers.

Question 49

Mike has attacked his wife several times in the past and appears likely to do so again very soon. He can be locked up now (before he attacks her) if

a) someone overhears his threats.
b) she has not been warned.
c) she has a court order.
d) he is deemed mentally ill.

Answer 49

d) he is deemed mentally ill.

Question 50

The prediction of dangerousness is probably best in which of the following situations?

a) When the person is experiencing hallucinations.
b) If there is violence in the person’s distant past, and it was a single but very serious act.
c) Following extended hospitalizations.
d) After a period of relative calm.

Answer 50

b) If there is violence in the person’s distant past, and it was a single but very serious act.

Question 51

Outpatient commitment

a) is a method of forcibly hospitalizing unwilling people with mental illnesses.
b) seeks to reduce violence in patients discharged from hospitals by requiring treatment compliance.
c) allows hospitalized patients to live independently with a case manager who visits the patient every week.
d) is often accompanied by decreased medication compliance.

Answer 51

b) seeks to reduce violence in patients discharged from hospitals by requiring treatment compliance.

Question 52

What is the emphasis of recent court decisions in involuntary civil commitment cases?

a) holding professionals accountable for predicting dangerousness
b) holding professionals accountable for violating confidentiality
c) protecting the safety of the public
d) protecting the rights of the mentally ill

Answer 52

d) protecting the rights of the mentally ill

Question 53

The Tarasoff case led to the ruling that a therapist who learns that a client is threatening to harm someone must

a) take steps to have the person committed.
b) physically detain the client.
c) warn the intended victim of the client’s threat.
d) break confidentiality and notify police or other authorities that the person is dangerous

Answer 53

c) warn the intended victim of the client’s threat.

Question 54

Issues that have come up after the original Tarasoff ruling have included

a) protection when the threat of harm is implicit, not just when explicit threats have been made.
b) warning family members of harmfulness, not just the one towards whom threats have been made.
c) both a and b
d) identifying potentially dangerous individuals to newspapers.

Answer 54

c) both a and b

Question 55

The most recent extension of the Tarasoff ruling (2004) states

a) that therapists no longer have a duty to warn possible victims except in cases where the patient has explicitly described the means he/she would use to commit the violence.
b) that therapists have a duty to warn a possible victim if the threat is reported by a family member of the patient.
c) the duty to warn only extends to licensed clinical psychologists and not to social workers or other types of mental health workers.
d) that therapists have a duty to warn a possible victim if the threat is reported by a friend or co-worker of the patient.

Answer 55

b) that therapists have a duty to warn a possible victim if the threat is reported by a family member of the patient.

Question 56

An arrangement whereby a patient is allowed to leave the hospital, but must live in a halfway house or other supervised setting and report frequently to a mental health agency, is called

a) outpatient commitment.
b) conditional placement commitment.
c) justified supervision of behavior commitment.
d) none of the above.

Answer 56

a) outpatient commitment.

Question 57

Following civil commitment, patients must be placed in

a) mental hospitals.
b) settings that provide medication treatment.
c) the most restrictive setting to which the patient will consent voluntarily.
d) the least restrictive setting in which they will be prevented from harming themselves or others.

Answer 57

d) the least restrictive setting in which they will be prevented from harming themselves or others.

Question 58

In the Wyatt v. Stickney case on the “right to treatment,” the court ruled that

a) private mental hospitals must provide a minimum level of care to patients who cannot pay full fees.
b) patients involuntarily committed to a psychiatric hospital must receive treatment.
c) every American should have access to affordable mental health care.
d) therapists cannot refuse treatment to those who request it.

Answer 58

b) patients involuntarily committed to a psychiatric hospital must receive treatment.

Question 59

The “right to treatment” refers to the right of

a) all people to affordable health care.
b) professionals to make treatment decisions.
c) committed people to receive adequate care.
d) society to have dangerous people treated.

Answer 59

c) committed people to receive adequate care.

Question 60

In the case of O’Connor v. Donaldson, Donaldson was involuntarily committed to a psychiatric hospital for 14 years. He sued the hospital psychiatrists, arguing that they had denied his right to

a) live in the least restrictive setting.
b) a fair trial.
c) refuse treatment.
d) treatment.

Answer 60

d) treatment.

Question 61

Which of the following is true regarding the right to refuse treatment?

a) It does not apply if a person is judged to be at risk for becoming dangerous to others.
b) It does not apply if a person is a danger to themselves or to others.
c) It applies only to those in the least restrictive environment.
d) It applies to criminal commitment but not civil commitment.

Answer 61

b) It does not apply if a person is a danger to themselves or to others.

Question 62

Whenever there is reason to believe that an accused person’s mental condition might interfere with his or her upcoming trial, the court may request that the case be handled

a) in absentia.
b) regardless.
c) with a psychiatrist present.
d) all of these answers are correct.

Answer 62

a) in absentia.

Question 63

The argument against patients’ right to refuse treatment has been typically based upon the notion that

a) untreated patients may become dangerous.
b) involuntarily committed patients should not have a say in their treatment, since they are usually guilty of a crime.
c) patients may be too disturbed to make sound judgments about their treatment.
d) the type of treatment prescribed should be determined by the courts, not the patient.

Answer 63

c) patients may be too disturbed to make sound judgments about their treatment.

Question 64

Which of the following is true regarding the deinstitutionalization of large numbers of mentally ill persons?

a) It occurred after adequate community services were widely available.
b) It resulted in the discovery that most inpatients appeared insane only because of the negative effects of institutionalization.
c) It has been recognized as harmful; current policy is to reinstitutionalize most of these patients.
d) It created a large population of impoverished, homeless mentally ill.

Answer 64

d) It created a large population of impoverished, homeless mentally ill.

Question 65

Deinstitutionalization has been described as an improper label because

a) most patients end up in treatment in outpatient clinics, thus visiting other institutions.
b) most patients who are deinstitutionalized remain mentally ill.
c) patients typically end up in other institutions such as nursing homes, prisons, and mental health departments of nonpsychiatric hospitals.
d) few patients are actually discharged from the hospital.

Answer 65

c) patients typically end up in other institutions such as nursing homes, prisons, and mental health departments of nonpsychiatric hospitals.

Question 66

Deinstitutionalization policies have inadvertently led to which of the following outcomes?

a) the release of many dangerous individuals.
b) higher numbers of mentally ill in other institutions, such as jails and nursing homes.
c) insufficient research participants.
d) increased costs of treatment.

Answer 66

b) higher numbers of mentally ill in other institutions, such as jails and nursing homes.

Question 67

Mental health professionals are constrained by

a) the law.
b) ethical principles.
c) professional guidelines.
d) all of the above.

Answer 67

d) all of the above.

Question 68

Fifty years ago, medical research with human subjects

a) was generally more ethical than mental health research.
b) was monitored by review boards in the institutions where the research was being conducted.
c) was used as a way of punishing mentally ill prisoners.
d) frequently led to serious, harmful consequences to participants.

Answer 68

d) frequently led to serious, harmful consequences to participants.

Question 69

Human subjects committees and institutional review boards for reviewing the ethics of proposed experiments are made up of

a) behavioral scientists.
b) citizens of the community.
c) lawyers.
d) all of the above.

Answer 69

d) all of the above.

Question 70

When subjects in research studies are told about the potential risks and are free to decline participation, it is called

a) informed consent.
b) freedom of choice.
c) parens patriae.
d) mens rea.

Answer 70

a) informed consent.

Question 71

Audrey agreed to participate in a research experiment being conducted by a professor in psychology. She was told that the experiment would last two hours and would be somewhat boring but was not expected to be harmful in any way. After one hour, Audrey got tired of the tasks she was asked to do and told the experimenter she had changed her mind and wanted to quit. Can the experimenter tell her she has to continue?

a) Yes, because Audrey used one hour of the experimenter’s time that will be wasted if she quits now.
b) Yes, since Audrey agreed to participate knowing that the experiment would be boring.
c) No, because Audrey has the right to stop at any time for any reason.
d) No, because the experimenter failed to obtain informed consent.

Answer 71

c) No, because Audrey has the right to stop at any time for any reason.

Question 72

Which of the following does the text identify as a common problem in obtaining informed consent from research participants?

a) Being informed may change their behavior during the study.
b) Researchers may withhold critical information.
c) The benefits may not justify the risks.
d) Participants may not understand what they are told.

Answer 72

d) Participants may not understand what they are told.

Question 73

Confidentiality is based on __________, whereas a privileged communication is __________.

a) state law; decided on by the individual therapist.
b) the ethical code of a profession; based on law.
c) the therapist’s obligation not to disclose information; the client’s obligation not to disclose opinions about the therapist.
d) verbal report in therapy; a written report of the therapist’s impression of a client.

Answer 73

b) the ethical code of a profession; based on law.

Question 74

Which of the following rights of clients has a legal (not just ethical) basis?

a) confidentiality
b) informed consent
c) privileged communication
d) choice of goals

Answer 74

c) privileged communication

Question 75

Which of the following relationships does not typically involve privileged communication?

a) medical doctor − patient
b) pastor − confessor
c) friend − confidante
d) husband − wife

Answer 75

c) friend − confidante