Anxiety Disorders Test Bank

Question 1

Jenny began to have sudden attacks of anxiety and dread and thus began to avoid public situations. Which disorder did Jenny probably have?

a) Panic disorder
b) Mood disorder
c) Specific phobic disorder
d) Avoidance disorder

Answer 1

a) Panic disorder

Question 2

The difference between anxiety and fear is that

a) anxiety is a response to immediate danger, while fear is defined as apprehension over an anticipated problem.
b) anxiety is immediate and fear is anticipated.
c) anxiety is apprehension over an anticipated problem, while fear is defined as a response to immediate danger.
d) anxiety is always adaptive, whereas fear is not.

Answer 2

c) anxiety is apprehension over an anticipated problem, while fear is defined as a response to immediate danger.

Question 3

Dylan is walking through the jungles of Africa, and he suddenly comes across a ferocious tiger. Which of the following reactions is most adaptive in this scenario?

a) anxiety
b) anger
c) panic
d) fear

Answer 3

d) fear

Question 4

Anxiety often involves __________ arousal, and fear involves __________ arousal.

a) high; low
b) high; moderate
c) moderate; low
d) moderate; high

Answer 4

d) moderate; high

Question 5

To improve performance on laboratory tests, it is best for participants to

a) experience a great deal of anxiety.
b) experience a small degree of anxiety.
c) experience no anxiety.
d) experience a small amount of anxiety as well as fear.

Answer 5

b) experience a small degree of anxiety.

Question 6

Which of the following is NOT an anxiety disorder?

a) panic disorder
b) phobic disorder
c) generalized fear disorder
d) social anxiety disorder

Answer 6

c) generalized fear disorder

Question 7

In the DSM-5, all of the following are separate chapters EXCEPT

a) anxiety disorders.
b) obsessive-compulsive and related disorders.
c) panic disorders.
d) trauma- and stress-related disorders.

Answer 7

c) panic disorders.

Question 8

As a group, anxiety disorders

a) are unlikely to be comorbid.
b) are one of the least costly psychiatric disorders to society.
c) cause few interpersonal problems.
d) are the most common type of psychiatric diagnosis.

Answer 8

d) are the most common type of psychiatric diagnosis.

Question 9

Which of the following statements is true?

a) Those with anxiety disorders have no greater risk for medical illness than those without anxiety disorders.
b) Those with anxiety disorders are more likely to be employed than those without anxiety disorders.
c) All of the anxiety disorders are associated with decrements in quality of life.
d) None of the anxiety disorders are associated with decrements in interpersonal concerns.

Answer 9

c) All of the anxiety disorders are associated with decrements in quality of life.

Question 10

Anxiety disorders all share

a) high fear and high anxiety.
b) excessively frequent or severe anxiety that results in marked impairment or distress.
c) the same set of anxiety symptoms.
d) panic.

Answer 10

b) excessively frequent or severe anxiety that results in marked impairment or distress.

Question 11

John is persistently and excessively afraid of snakes. Whenever he sees a snake, he feels intense anxiety and thus avoids them at all costs. John realizes, however, that this fear is unrealistic. John most likely has

a) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
b) social anxiety disorder.
c) a specific phobia.
d) panic disorder.

Answer 11

c) a specific phobia.

Question 12

Animal phobias typically begin in

a) infancy.
b) childhood.
c) adolescence.
d) adulthood.

Answer 12

b) childhood.

Question 13

Ted is fearful of interactions with others and avoids eating in public. Ted most likely has

a) specific phobia.
b) panic disorder with agoraphobia.
c) social anxiety disorder.
d) paranoia.

Answer 13

c) social anxiety disorder.

Question 14

An individual diagnosed with social anxiety disorder

a) exhibits paranoid symptoms, believing others are plotting to hurt him or her.
b) exhibits anxiety about having panic attacks in public.
c) is terrified of being in public places and may become housebound.
d) becomes extremely anxious when in certain situations that involve activities done in the presence of other people.

Answer 14

d) becomes extremely anxious when in certain situations that involve activities done in the presence of other people.

Question 15

Julie has social anxiety disorder. Given this information, it would not be surprising if she also met DSM-5 criteria for

a) schizophrenia.
b) borderline personality disorder.
c) avoidant personality disorder.
d) obsessive compulsive personality disorder.

Answer 15

c) avoidant personality disorder.

Question 16

What was the rationale behind the DSM-5 change in the name of the diagnosis “social phobia” to “social anxiety disorder”?

a) Social phobias tend to be more pervasive and cause more interference with daily routines than other phobias.
b) A social phobia was termed “social anxiety disorder” in the DSM-III.
c) Many people with social phobias also meet criteria for Avoidant Personality Disorder.
d) Social phobias cause minimal impairment and tend to be of short duration.

Answer 16

a) Social phobias tend to be more pervasive and cause more interference with daily routines than other phobias.

Question 17

Bill is fearful of most social situations, whereas Andreas is only fearful of giving speeches. Given this, one could infer that

a) Bill’s fear began at an earlier age.
b) Bill may be more likely to abuse alcohol.
c) Andrea has less impairment.
d) All of the above.

Answer 17

d) All of the above.

Question 18

Social anxiety disorder generally begins during:

a) early childhood
b) middle childhood
c) adolescence
d) early adulthood

Answer 18

c) adolescence

Question 19

Depersonalization and derealization are common symptoms of which disorder?

a) obsessive-compulsive disorder
b) specific phobia
c) social anxiety disorder
d) panic disorder

Answer 19

d) panic disorder

Question 20

Agoraphobia is characterized by a fear of

a) being in unfamiliar places.
b) being embarrassed by saying or doing something foolish in front of others.
c) strangers misinterpreting their symptoms as a heart attack.
d) having a panic attack in places in which escape would be difficult or embarrassing.

Answer 20

d) having a panic attack in places in which escape would be difficult or embarrassing.

Question 21

Edna does not currently have panic disorder. However, she cannot leave her house and had required home sessions when she began therapy. It is likely that

a) Edna has agoraphobia, but does not meet criteria for panic disorder.
b) Edna does not have agoraphobia.
c) Edna is faking her symptoms.
d) Edna has more severe panic but is able to cope with the symptoms.

Answer 21

a) Edna has agoraphobia, but does not meet criteria for panic disorder.

Question 22

Panic attacks

a) occur only in people with panic disorder, by definition.
b) can occur in people who do not have panic disorder.
c) occur in greatest frequency among people with schizophrenia.
d) occur primarily in people with agoraphobia.

Answer 22

b) can occur in people who do not have panic disorder.

Question 23

The DSM-5 differs from the DSM-IV-TR in that

a) agoraphobia is a distinct disorder rather than a subtype of panic disorder.
b) agoraphobia is a subtype of panic disorder rather than a distinct disorder.
c) agoraphobia is a subtype of phobic disorders rather than a distinct disorder.
d) none of the above.

Answer 23

a) agoraphobia is a distinct disorder rather than a subtype of panic disorder.

Question 24

The worries of people with GAD

a) are generally limited to physiological concerns.
b) are similar to worries of most people, just more excessive.
c) typically are driven by another Axis-I disorder.
d) all of the above.

Answer 24

b) are similar to worries of most people, just more excessive.

Question 25

GAD is not diagnosed if

a) the person only worries about concerns driven by another psychological disorder.
b) the symptoms are present for over a year.
c) the patient reports excessive worrying and feeling on edge.
d) the patient experiences pervasive anxiety and worry.

Answer 25

a) the person only worries about concerns driven by another psychological disorder.

Question 26

More than __________ of people with one anxiety disorder meet the criteria for another anxiety disorder at some point in their lifetime.

a) 25%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 100%

Answer 26

b) 50%

Question 27

The most common disorder comorbid with anxiety disorders is

a) borderline personality disorder.
b) obsessive compulsive disorder.
c) avoidant personality disorder.
d) major depression.

Answer 27

d) major depression.

Question 28

Women are more likely to be diagnosed with anxiety disorders because they are more

a) likely to face their fears directly.
b) physiologically vulnerable.
c) willing to report their symptoms.
d) exposed to social discrimination.

Answer 28

c) willing to report their symptoms

Question 29

According to the text, which of the following is NOT a theory on why women are more likely to develop anxiety disorders than men?

a) Women may show more biological reactivity to stress than men.
b) Women tend to be more nervous than men in general.
c) Men may be raised to believe more in personal control over situations.
d) Men may experience more social pressure than women to face fears.

Answer 29

b) Women tend to be more nervous than men in general.

Question 30

If you lived in Taiwan or Japan, you would

a) be more likely to be diagnosed with an anxiety disorder.
b) be less likely to be diagnosed with an anxiety disorder.
c) be more likely to have kayak-angst.
d) never receive a formal psychiatric diagnosis.

Answer 30

b) be less likely to be diagnosed with an anxiety disorder.

Question 31

In Japan, taijin kyofusho involves

a) the fear of embarrassing others.
b) the fear of going outside.
c) the fear of rice.
d) the fear of closed spaces

Answer 31

a) the fear of embarrassing others.

Question 32

In Eastern Asia, the fear that one’s genitals will recede into the body is called

a) koro.
b) kayak-angst.
c) shenkui.
d) susto.

Answer 32

a) koro.

Question 33

In Latin America, the fright-illness is also known as

a) susto.
b) koro.
c) kayak-angst.
d) shenkui

Answer 33

a) susto.

Question 34

Heritability estimates tend to be the highest for

a) panic disorder.
b) GAD.
c) PTSD.
d) arachnophobia.

Answer 34

a) panic disorder.

Question 35

Individuals with anxiety disorders

a) have weak fear circuits.
b) have fear circuits that do not activate correctly when they are fearful or anxious.
c) have an overactive fear circuit.
d) have an underactive amygdala.

Answer 35

c) have an overactive fear circuit.

Question 36

Factors that may increase risk for more than one anxiety disorder include all of the following EXCEPT

a) behavioral conditioning.
b) genetic vulnerability.
c) culture of origin.
d) neuroticism.

Answer 36

c) culture of origin.

Question 37

Mowrer’s two-factor model of anxiety disorders involves classical conditioning and

a) imitation.
b) operant conditioning.
c) observation.
d) none of the above.

Answer 37

c) observation.

Question 38

Imagine that a man is bitten by a dog and then develops a phobia of dogs. The dog bite would be considered the

a) UCS
b) UCR
c) CS
d) CR

Answer 38

a) UCS

Question 39

Josie has panic disorder, while Herbie does not have an anxiety disorder. They are both shown pictures of sad and angry faces. The researchers studying Josie and Herbie’s brain responses while they look at the pictures will most likely note that

a) Josie’s amygdala is more active than Herbie’s.
b) Josie’s amygdala is less active than Herbie’s.
c) Herbie’s fear circuit is more active than Josie’s.
d) none of the above.

Answer 39

a) Josie’s amygdala is more active than Herbie’s.

Question 40

Dana’s baby, Sophie, participated in a study that indicated that Sophie had high levels of behavioral inhibition. Compared with babies who demonstrated low levels of behavioral inhibition, Sophie is likely to develop

a) panic disorder.
b) social anxiety disorder.
c) OCD.
d) agoraphobia.

Answer 40

b) social anxiety disorder.

Question 41

Behavioral inhibition is defined as the

a) tendency to experience neuroticism.
b) inability to inhibit one’s behavioral reactions.
c) tendency to become agitated and cry when faced with novel stimuli.
d) inability to regulate symptoms of anxiety.

Answer 41

c) tendency to become agitated and cry when faced with novel stimuli.

Question 42

In terms of the social environment’s role in the development of anxiety disorders, which of the following statements is true?

a) negative life events often buffer against the development of anxiety disorders.
b) negative life events often precede the onset of anxiety disorders.
c) negative life events are unrelated to the onset of anxiety disorders.
d) none of the above.

Answer 42

b) negative life events often precede the onset of anxiety disorders.

Question 43

To protect against feared consequences of anxiety, people will often engage in

a) safety behaviors.
b) protection behaviors.
c) avoidant behaviors.
d) recessive behaviors.

Answer 43

a) safety behaviors.

Question 44

People with low __________ appear to be at greater risk for developing anxiety disorders.

a) perceived control
b) perceived defense mechanisms
c) anxiety thresholds
d) defense disorders

Answer 44

a) perceived control

Question 45

An individual with a snake phobia would be most likely to pay attention to the word

a) orange.
b) venom.
c) sad.
d) table.

Answer 45

b) venom.

Question 46

Neuroticism is best defined as the tendency to

a) feel depressed.
b) feel anxious.
c) react to events with greater than average negative affect.
d) react in a pessimistic way.

Answer 46

c) react to events with greater than average negative affect.

Question 47

Lola is low in neuroticism. Compared with people who have high levels of neuroticism, Lola

a) is more likely to experience anxiety and depression.
b) is less likely to develop an anxiety disorder.
c) is probably characterized by a tendency to react to events with negative effect.
d) is more likely to have OCD.

Answer 47

b) is less likely to develop an anxiety disorder.

Question 48

Which of the following puts people at greater risk for developing anxiety disorders?

a) having a perception that they have no control over their environment.
b) having a comorbid diagnosis of schizophrenia.
c) having low levels of neuroticism.
d) having low levels of activity in the fear circuit.

Answer 48

a) having a perception that they have no control over their environment.

Question 49

Which of the following might buffer someone against developing an anxiety disorder?

a) repeated early life experiences of having control.
b) previous experiences of control during highly threatening circumstances.
c) being controlled by an understanding parent.
d) both a and b.

Answer 49

d) both a and b.

Question 50

Dr. Francis randomly assigned puppies to one of two conditions. Group 1 grew up with the ability to choose when they would receive dog biscuits, while Group 2 had no control over when they would receive the dog biscuits. In this scenario, Group 2 would be

a) more likely to be aggressive.
b) less prone to neuroticism.
c) more likely to show high levels of behavioral inhibition.
d) more likely to display high levels of anxiety.

Answer 50

d) more likely to display high levels of anxiety.

Question 51

Researchers training those with GAD to focus on a positive set of words over a long period of time using the dot probe task have found that participants

a) are more likely to report anxiety following the trainings.
b) do not experience any changes in their levels of anxiety following the trainings.
c) report less anxiety in both interview and self-report measures following the trainings.
d) report less anxiety in interview measures but more anxiety in self-report measures.

Answer 51

c) report less anxiety in both interview and self-report measures following the trainings.

Question 52

The second factor of Mowrer’s two-factor model explains why

a) a man’s dog phobia never ceases.
b) a man develops a dog phobia.
c) a man reduces his fear of dogs.
d) a man who develops a dog phobia is able to expose himself to dogs.

Answer 52

a) a man’s dog phobia never ceases.

Question 53

Laboratory studies, like those using the dot probe task, have provided evidence for the theory that

a) chronic anxiety creates negative cognitions.
b) fixating on dots for long periods of time may create anxiety.
c) the way we focus our attention can influence anxious mood.
d) none of the above.

Answer 53

c) the way we focus our attention can influence anxious mood.

Question 54

One problem with Mowrer’s original two-factor model of phobias is that phobias tend to develop

a) following traumatic experiences.
b) only with respect to certain stimuli.
c) equally in all age groups.
d) in people not otherwise anxious.

Answer 54

b) only with respect to certain stimuli.

Question 55

Which of the following has NOT been proposed as a way that the development of anxiety through conditioning could take place?

a) direct experience
b) repressed memories
c) seeing someone else harmed
d) verbal instruction

Answer 55

b) repressed memories

Question 56

What is a reason why people typically do not fear coconuts, flowers, or strawberries?

a) During evolution, exposure to such stimuli was not life threatening.
b) They are not poisonous.
c) They are not as common as stimuli such as blood or spiders.
d) People developed prepared learning in response to such stimuli.

Answer 56

a) During evolution, exposure to such stimuli was not life threatening.

Question 57

After viewing tapes of monkeys apparently showing fear of snakes, lambs, and flowers, monkeys who viewed these tapes were only fearful of snakes. This provides only partial support for __________ but better support for __________.

a) modeling; classical conditioning
b) vicarious learning; avoidance learning
c) modeling; prepared learning
d) prepared learning; diathesis

Answer 57

c) modeling; prepared learning

Question 58

Doug was frightened by a rat coming into his bedroom when he was a child, and he now has a rat phobia. However, despite having been severely shocked by putting her finger in an electric outlet, Martha has no fear of light sockets. This inconsistency is explained by the theory of

a) prepared learning.
b) systematic desensitization.
c) irrational beliefs.
d) avoidance conditioning

Answer 58

a) prepared learning.

Question 59

Ivan reported a traumatic history with dogs, resulting in his fear of dogs. However, Sven also reported a traumatic history with dogs, but does not have a fear of dogs. This provides support for

a) a diathesis for phobia.
b) a preparedness view of phobia.
c) a psychoanalytic theory of phobia.
d) the two-factor theory.

Answer 59

a) a diathesis for phobia.

Question 60

Which of the following is an example of a safety behavior?

a) seeking treatment.
b) avoiding snakes.
c) exposing oneself to a feared stimulus in a controlled environment.
d) avoiding eye contact.

Answer 60

d) avoiding eye contact.

Question 61

Why is avoidance behavior so often maintained?

a) People do not want to overcome their fears.
b) Such behavior reduces the amount of fear a person experiences.
c) Friends and family members generally encourage it.
d) People fail to use safety behaviors.

Answer 61

b) Such behavior reduces the amount of fear a person experiences.

Question 62

Regina has social anxiety disorder. Now, in an effort to overcome her social fear, she is awkward, frequently commits faux pas by avoiding eye contact, and struggles to respond effectively when given compliments. This is an illustration of

a) a predisposing biological factor.
b) preparedness.
c) social skill deficits in social anxiety disorder.
d) cognitive bias in social anxiety disorder.

Answer 62

c) social skill deficits in social anxiety disorder.

Question 63

Both Lindsay and Nicole just completed a solo in a musical competition. The judges awarded them both 9 out of 10. Lindsay has social anxiety disorder and Nicole does not. Based on this information,

a) Lindsay is less likely to worry about how others perceived her performance.
b) Nicole is more likely to have higher standards than Lindsay.
c) Lindsay is more likely to think she sang more poorly than Nicole.
d) None of the above.

Answer 63

c) Lindsay is more likely to think she sang more poorly than Nicole.

Question 64

There is evidence that social anxiety disorder is related to placing more attention to __________ cues and less attention to __________ cues.

a) external; internal
b) social; personal
c) internal; external
d) personal; social

Answer 64

c) internal; external

Question 65

In regard to panic, the locus coeruleus

a) is likely to be under-sensitive.
b) decreases panic by decreasing activity.
c) shows increased activity.
d) exhibits lower glucose metabolism.

Answer 65

c) shows increased activity.

Question 66

When triggering panic attacks experimentally through the use of drugs, researchers have found that

a) such drugs produce panic in people without a history of panic attacks as often as they produce panic in people with a history of panic attacks.
b) more than a dozen different types of drugs can trigger panic attacks among people with a history of panic attacks.
c) it is nearly impossible to actually replicate the physiological symptoms that occur during a real panic attack.
d) people with a history of panic attacks are more likely to report physiological symptoms than emotional symptoms.

Answer 66

b) more than a dozen different types of drugs can trigger panic attacks among people with a history of panic attacks.

Question 67

Panic attacks can be triggered by which of the following?

a) caffeine.
b) exercise.
c) adrenaline.
d) all of the above.

Answer 67

d) all of the above.

Question 68

According to the cognitive perspective, social anxiety is related to all of the following EXCEPT:

a) unrealistic negative beliefs about the consequences of their social behaviors.
b) attention to how they are doing in social interactions and their own internal sensations.
c) formation of negative visual images of how others will react to them.
d) all of the above.

Answer 68

d) all of the above.

Question 69

The fear circuit that is particularly important in explaining panic disorder is called the

a) locus coeruleus
b) amygdala
c) hippocampus
d) thalamus

Answer 69

a) locus coeruleus

Question 70

Classical conditioning of panic attacks in response to bodily sensations is called

a) interoceptive conditioning.
b) systematic desensitization.
c) two-factor model.
d) exposure.

Answer 70

a) interoceptive conditioning.

Question 71

As opposed to people without a history of panic disorder, those with a history of panic disorder

a) are quicker to extinguish their conditioned fears.
b) are slower to extinguish their conditioned fears.
c) fail to develop conditioned fears.
d) none of the above.

Answer 71

b) are slower to extinguish their conditioned fears.

Question 72

A major psychological hypothesis regarding the onset of panic involves

a) a fundamental problem with breathing control.
b) difficulties in relaxing.
c) a concern with, and misinterpretation of, bodily sensations.
d) excessive attempts to relax that fail.

Answer 72

c) a concern with, and misinterpretation of, bodily sensations.

Question 73

The Anxiety Sensitivity Index

a) has been important in determining panic-proneness.
b) measures fear of bodily sensations.
c) allows tests of the concern with control over bodily symptoms as a hypothesis of panic.
d) all of the above.

Answer 73

c) allows tests of the concern with control over bodily symptoms as a hypothesis of panic.

Question 74

The principal cognitive explanation for the etiology of agoraphobia is the

a) fear-of-fear hypothesis.
b) interoceptive conditioning
c) two-factor model
d) operant conditioning

Answer 74

a) fear-of-fear hypothesis.

Question 75

What is the main symptom of GAD?

a) increased heart rate.
b) fear of dying.
c) worry.
d) dizziness.

Answer 75

c) worry.

Question 76

In the cognitive view, which anxiety disorder develops when anxiety is reinforced by distracting people from other, more powerful, negative emotions and images?

a) phobias
b) panic disorder
c) generalized anxiety disorder
d) obsessive-compulsive disorder

Answer 76

c) generalized anxiety disorder

Question 77

According to Borkovec and colleagues, worry

a) serves as an avoidance mechanism.
b) is adaptive.
c) increases psychophysiological signs of arousal.
d) helps people remember traumatic images.

Answer 77

a) serves as an avoidance mechanism.

Question 78

A common focus of most effective psychological treatments for the anxiety disorders is

a) response prevention.
b) exposure.
c) muscle relaxation.
d) behavioral activation

Answer 78

b) exposure.

Question 79

While a therapist might consider adding cognitive therapy to treatment of _________, research suggests that outcomes are no better when cognitive therapy is added in the treatment of ________

a) depression, social anxiety disorder.
b) anxiety disorders; depression.
c) specific phobias, social anxiety disorder.
d) social anxiety disorder; specific phobias.

Answer 79

d) social anxiety disorder; specific phobias.

Question 80

Based on research of effective treatments for social anxiety disorder, a therapist should consider

a) exposure and cognitive therapy.
b) exposure only.
c) systematic desensitization.
d) cognitive therapy only.

Answer 80

a) exposure and cognitive therapy.

Question 81

Social interactions and role-play situations are used in the treatment of

a) specific phobias.
b) social anxiety disorder.
c) panic disorder.
d) obsessive-compulsive disorder.

Answer 81

b) social anxiety disorder.

Question 82

The goal of panic control therapy for panic disorder is to help clients

a) re-experience the trauma that led to the panic attacks.
b) relax when symptoms of a panic attack appear.
c) experience attacks fully so the panic extinguishes.
d) view their symptoms as harmless and controllable.

Answer 82

d) view their symptoms as harmless and controllable.

Question 83

Which of the following has NOT been shown to be effective for the treatment of panic disorder?

a) Panic control therapy
b) Psychodynamic therapy
c) Internet-based cognitive therapy
d) Logo therapy

Answer 83

d) Logo therapy

Question 84

The first widely used exposure treatment for anxiety disorders was called

a) systematic desensitization
b) flooding
c) operant conditioning
d) reinforcement training

Answer 84

a) systematic desensitization

Question 85

Exposure treatment is effective in __________ of clients.

a) 20-30%
b) 40-50%
c) 55-65%
d) 70-90%

Answer 85

d) 70-90%

Question 86

The effects of ___________ appear to endure when follow-up assessments are conducted six months after treatment.

a) CBT
b) flooding
c) reinforcement
d) psychoanalysis

Answer 86

a) CBT

Question 87

Extinction involves

a) completely erasing any conscious memory of a specific phobia.
b) a system like an eraser.
c) learning new associations to stimuli that inhibit activation of the fear response.
d) flooding of memories.

Answer 87

c) learning new associations to stimuli that inhibit activation of the fear response.

Question 88

__________ is sometimes used to simulate feared situations such as flying.

a) Virtual reality
b) Visual simulation
c) Memory flooding
d) Operant conditioning

Answer 88

a) Virtual reality

Question 89

In-vivo exposure to feared objects simulates

a) real life.
b) memories of trauma.
c) social anxiety disorder.
d) anxiety developed in the womb.

Answer 89

a) real life.

Question 90

Which of the following statements is true regarding treatment for GAD?

a) Success rates are generally higher for GAD treatment than they are for other anxiety disorders.
b) Success rates are generally lower for GAD treatment than they are for other anxiety disorders.
c) Success rates are about the same for GAD treatment as they are for other anxiety disorders.
d) Success rates for GAD are more variable than they are for other anxiety disorders.

Answer 90

b) Success rates are generally lower for GAD treatment than they are for other anxiety disorders.

Question 91

Which of the following is a prominent behavioral technique for the treatment of GAD?

a) cognitive restructuring
b) imaginal exposure
c) relaxation training
d) SSRIs

Answer 91

c) relaxation training

Question 92

Which of the following treatments has been shown to be more effective than either medication or supportive psychotherapy in treating posttraumatic stress disorder?

a) Progressive muscle relaxation.
b) Exposure that focuses on trauma-related events.
c) EMDR.
d) Group psychotherapy with other trauma victims.

Answer 92

b) Exposure that focuses on trauma-related events.

Question 93

Treatment of acute stress disorder is

a) unnecessary, as most people recover anyway with time.
b) dangerous, as reliving the event increases the trauma.
c) important, as it reduces the risk of developing PTSD.
d) difficult, as it is hard to recreate the original trauma.

Answer 93

c) important, as it reduces the risk of developing PTSD.

Question 94

The two types of medications most commonly used to treat anxiety are

a) mood stabilizers and antidepressants.
b) antidepressants and benzodiazepines.
c) benzodiazepines and anticonvulsants.
d) anticonvulsants and beta-blockers.

Answer 94

b) antidepressants and benzodiazepines.

Question 95

Some of the most commonly prescribed medications for social anxiety disorder are __________, which are proposed to work by ____________.

a) mood stabilizers; inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin.
b) beta blockers; diminishing the effects of endogenous opiates.
c) mood stabilizers; diminishing agitation.
d) beta blockers; diminishing the effects of adrenaline on the body.

Answer 95

d) beta blockers; diminishing the effects of adrenaline on the body.

Question 96

Which of the following medications, when used in combination with exposure therapy, may bolster learning and thus aid in treatment of specific phobias?

a) SSRIs
b) beta blockers
c) D-cycloserine
d) TCAs

Answer 96

c) D-cycloserine

Question 97

SSRI stands for

a) selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.
b) selective serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibiters.
c) systematics serotonin reuptake infusion.
d) none of the above.

Answer 97

a) selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.

Question 98

The combination of medication and CBT for anxiety disorders leads to __________ treatment outcomes.

a) improved
b) no difference in
c) a worsening of
d) none of the above

Answer 98

a) improved

Question 99

The diagnosis of Generalized Anxiety Disorder requires that symptoms be present for at least

a) 6 months
b) 3 months
c) 2 months for adolescents, 6 months for adults
d) 3 months for adults, 6 months for children

Answer 99

a) 6 months

Question 100

The diagnosis of Generalized Anxiety Disorder requires that_______ criteria be met in children than in adults.

a) fewer
b) more
c) the same number of
d) different

Answer 100

a) fewer

Question 101

The central feature of Generalized Anxiety Disorder in children is ________.

a) uncontrollable worry
b) panic attacks
c) social anxiety
d) avoidance

Answer 101

a) uncontrollable worry