Diagnosis and Assessment Test Bank Flashcards
1
Q
Diagnostic systems allow clinicians and scientists to:
a) conduct psychotherapy.
b) communicate accurately with one another about cases and research.
c) understand the role of cultural bias.
d) all of the above.
A
b) communicate accurately with one another about cases and research.
2
Q
Having a diagnosis provides clinicians with information about all of the following EXCEPT:
a) rates.
b) causes.
c) treatment protocols.
d) stigma.
A
d) stigma
3
Q
One would expect items on a depression assessment measure to have
a) interrater reliability.
b) alternate-form reliability.
c) internal consistency reliability.
d) external reliability.
A
c) internal consistency reliability
4
Q
If Shaniqua wants to be sure her bathroom scale has test-retest reliability, she should
a) weigh herself today and then eat a lot; get on the scale again and see if her weight changes.
b) get on and off the scale repeatedly and see if it shows the same weight each time.
c) ask others to weight themselves later that day.
d) buy a second scale and see if they both give her the same weight when she steps on them.
A
b) get on and off the scale repeatedly and see if it shows the same weight each time.
5
Q
If Jose wants to know if the scale he uses to weigh his tomatoes at the grocery store has alternate-form reliability, he could
a) take them home and weigh them again in an hour.
b) weigh the tomatoes on two other scales in the produce department and see if they weighed the same.
c) ask another shopper what she thinks the tomatoes weigh.
d) take the tomatoes and put them on and off the scale several times and see if they weigh the same each time.
A
b) weigh the tomatoes on two other scales in the produce department and see if they weighed the same
6
Q
An example of a test that has predictive validity is
a) an eye exam.
b) a midterm exam.
c) an IQ test.
d) a preference test.
A
c) an IQ test.
7
Q
Jim was given an intelligence test in March and readministered the same test one year later. His score both times was the same. This indicates that the intelligence test has
a) high test-retest reliability.
b) high interrater agreement.
c) internal consistency.
d) none of the above.
A
a) high test-retest reliability
8
Q
Generally, it is impossible for measures to be
a) reliable but not valid.
b) valid but not reliable.
c) neither reliable nor valid.
d) both reliable and valid.
A
b) valid but not reliable
9
Q
Britney was taking a test to measure levels of depression. All of the items covered typical symptoms of depression. This inventory would be said to have
a) high construct validity.
b) high content validity.
c) high criterion validity.
d) high statistical validity.
A
b) high content validity.
10
Q
Jackson appears to have social phobia. This diagnosis was made by looking at his scores on a particular measure of social fear. Scores like his in the past have been shown to be related to social phobia, and also correlated with a variety of measures of social and occupational disability associated with social phobia. The measure Jackson took would be said to have
a) high construct validity.
b) high content validity.
c) high criterion validity.
d) high statistical validity.
A
a) high construct validity.
11
Q
The letters in the abbreviation DSM refer to
a) Diseases and Symptoms of the Mind.
b) Diagnostic and Statistical Manual.
c) Diseases and Symptoms Manual.
d) Disorders and Symptoms Manual.
A
b) Diagnostic and Statistical Manual.
12
Q
The DSM-5 was released in
a) 2016.
b) 2015.
c) 2014.
d) 2013.
A
d) 2013.
13
Q
Schizophrenia was once known as
a) psychonaturalism.
b) schizoid prixat.
c) tripolar disorder.
d) dementia praecox.
A
d) dementia praecox.
14
Q
The highest priority of the DSM-5 is that it
a) is reliable.
b) is useful to clinicians.
c) is shorter than the DSM-IV-TR.
d) is bilingual.
A
b) is useful to clinicians
15
Q
The DSM-5 codes are similar to those in the WHO and the __________.
a) ICD.
b) APA.
c) ADA.
d) PPA.
A
a) ICD
16
Q
The DSM-5 is organized according to
a) comorbidity.
b) shared etiology.
c) severity.
d) both a and b.
A
d) both a and b.
17
Q
Which of the following is NOT a new diagnosis in the DSM-5?
a) Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder.
b) Premenstrual dysphoric disorder.
c) Illness anxiety disorder.
d) Bipolar disorder.
A
d) Bipolar disorder.
18
Q
Culture shapes all of the following EXCEPT:
a) language used to describe symptoms.
b) expression of symptoms.
c) commonness of the symptoms.
d) etiology of the symptoms.
A
d) etiology of the symptoms.
19
Q
The DSM-5 has approximately __________ times as many disorders as the first edition of the DSM I.
a) two
b) three
c) four
d) five
A
b) three
20
Q
In 1994, the DSM-IV was published by the
a) American Psychopathological and Statistical Association.
b) World Health Organization.
c) Congress of Mental Science.
d) American Psychiatric Association.
A
d) American Psychiatric Association
21
Q
In 2000, the DSM-IV-TR was published
a) to clarify issues surrounding prevalence rates, course, and etiology.
b) to describe diagnoses in objective terms.
c) to include response to treatment in the descriptions of diagnoses.
d) for use by laypersons as well as professionals.
A
a) to clarify issues surrounding prevalence rates, course, and etiology.
22
Q
Major improvements since the DSM-III include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) more specific diagnostic criteria.
b) more extensive descriptions of diagnosis on Axes I and II.
c) decrease in diagnostic categories.
d) more emphasis on laboratory findings and results from physical exams.
A
c) decrease in diagnostic categories.
23
Q
Previous editions of the DSM were criticized for their
a) lack of attention to childhood disorders.
b) lack of attention to cultural and ethnic variations in psychopathology.
c) inability to accurately diagnose individuals with schizophrenia.
d) overemphasis on mood disorders.
A
b) lack of attention to cultural and ethnic variations in psychopathology.
24
Q
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
a) Culture can have a large influence on which symptoms of a given disorder are expressed.
b) For most diagnoses in the DSM-5, it is advised not to consider cultural context.
c) All symptoms of psychiatric disorders manifest themselves in similar ways across cultures.
d) The DSM-II was the first edition of the DSM to consider cultural and ethnic variations in psychopathology.
A
a) Culture can have a large influence on which symptoms of a given disorder are expressed
25
In the DSM 5 culture-bound syndromes
a) are coded on Axis II.
b) are listed in the appendix of the DSM.
c) are only found in cultures outside the United States.
d) are very, very rare.
b) are listed in the appendix of the DSM.
26
Which of the following is a culture-bound syndrome listed in the DSM- 5 that involves individuals in Japan, Taiwan, and South Korea shutting themselves in their room for at least six months and refusing to socialize with anyone?
a) ghost sickness
b) Dhat
c) Hikikomori
d) Koro
c) Hikikomori
27
The DSM-5 includes approximately __________ different diagnostic categories.
a) 350
b) 500
c) 100
d) 50
a) 350
28
Some critics of the DSM-5 believe that
a) there are not enough different diagnoses.
b) the DSM-5 has pathologized too many problems without good justification.
c) there is not enough comorbidity in diagnoses.
d) another diagnostic category should be added titled “Conditions that may be a focus of clinical attention in elderly populations.”
b) the DSM-5 has pathologized too many problems without good justification.
29
Comorbidity refers to
a) the likelihood that a given psychological disorder will result in death.
b) how long a person is expected to live with a given psychological disorder.
c) the presence of a second diagnosis.
d) the absence of an clinical disorder.
c) the presence of a second diagnosis.
30
Which of the following is a risk of having too many diagnoses?
a) The risk of fitting into too many diagnostic categories.
b) Lack of reliability between diagnostic clinicians.
c) Externalization of diagnoses by clients.
d) All of these are risks of having too many diagnoses.
d) All of these are risks of having too many diagnoses.
31
The DSM-5 is an example of which approach to classification?
a) Categorical
b) Dimensional
c) Quantitative
d) Atheoretical
a) Categorical
32
Which of the following is an example of something using a dimensional classification system?
a) gender
b) college major
c) telephone number
d) grade point average
d) grade point average
33
Dr. Kline classified her patients according to hair color. Some were classified as blonde, some brunette, and some red haired. This classification is an example of a
a) continuous classification.
b) etiological classification.
c) categorical classification.
d) dimensional classification
c) categorical classification.
34
You are relying on a dimensional classification scheme and work with individuals who struggle with delusions. Your diagnoses are going to be based upon the __________ of delusions.
a) presence or absence
b) social consequences
c) underlying cause
d) severity
d) severity
35
The fact that SSRIs often relieve symptoms of anxiety as well as depression suggests to some clinicians and researchers that
a) SSRIs are inadequate drugs for depression.
b) anxiety and depression should be part of the same diagnostic category.
c) anxiety should be treated with anxiolytics.
d) depression should be a dimensional diagnostic system.
b) anxiety and depression should be part of the same diagnostic category.
36
What is one reason categorical systems are popular?
a) Freud was a proponent of such a system.
b) They define a certain threshold for treatment.
c) They describe the degree to which an entity is present.
d) It is more helpful to know severity of a symptom than whether or not it is present.
b) They define a certain threshold for treatment.
37
Caleb went to see two different psychologists about his depressive symptoms. One told him that he suffered from major depressive disorder and the other told him that he had bipolar disorder. This is an example of a problem with __________
a) interrater reliability.
b) content validity.
c) internal consistency.
d) construct validity.
a) interrater reliability
38
When Dr. Smith diagnoses a patient with schizophrenia and Dr. Jones diagnoses that same patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder, we would say that Dr. Smith and Dr. Jones have
a) low construct validity.
b) low inter-rater reliability.
c) low content accuracy.
d) low criteria.
b) low inter-rater reliability.
39
In order to study the reliability of a diagnostic category, we would study whether
a) it acknowledges the uniqueness of each individual.
b) it has explicitly stated criteria.
c) patients with the label respond to treatment in the same way.
d) diagnosticians apply it consistently.
d) diagnosticians apply it consistently.
40
Reliability, as used in diagnosis, is the same as
a) agreement.
b) validity.
c) judgment.
d) utility.
a) agreement.
41
If a diagnosis helps clinicians make good predictions and informs them of the likely course of the disorder, psychologists would say that the diagnosis has
a) interrater reliability.
b) construct validity.
c) test validity.
d) internal consistency.
b) construct validity.
42
Which of the following situations is most similar to the concept of reliability in making psychiatric diagnoses?
a) You see identical twins that have identical mannerisms.
b) After watching a new TV show, you and a friend independently decide that it was lousy.
c) You're not sure what time a baseball game is on and guess it is at 1:00 pm. You look in the TV guide and it is, in fact, at 1:00 pm.
d) You meet someone new at a party and decide that she/he is a shy person. Sure enough, she/he hardly speaks to anyone at the party.
b) After watching a new TV show, you and a friend independently decide that it was lousy.
43
A valid classification system is one that
a) has clear criteria for making diagnoses.
b) ensures that two or more people will agree on a classification.
c) leads to accurate predictions and statements.
d) has a clear purpose.
c) leads to accurate predictions and statements.
44
In clinical interviews, most clinicians pay particular attention to
a) manner of responding.
b) truthfulness.
c) childhood.
d) current social functioning.
a) manner of responding.
45
Which of the following is the most important in a clinical interview?
a) Time of day
b) Location of interview
c) Rapport established by interviewer
d) Structured instrument used by interviewer
c) Rapport established by interviewer
46
Which of the following is a structured interview?
a) SRRS
b) SCID
c) ADE
d) Rorschach
b) SCID
47
Which of the following is a problem with using unstructured clinical interviews in diagnosis?
a) The person being assessed feels less comfortable opening up than in structured interviews.
b) They require less clinical expertise than structured interviews.
c) There is poor inter-rater reliability.
d) They can only be conducted by psychiatrists
c) There is poor inter-rater reliability.
48
Which of the following is NOT a measure of psychological stress?
a) List of Threatening Experiences
b) Psychiatric Epidemiological Research Interview Life Events Scale
c) Life Events and Difficulties Schedule
d) Thematic Apperception Test
d) Thematic Apperception Test
49
According to Hans Selye, the__________ describes the biological response to sustained high levels of stress
a) general adaptation syndrome
b) general anxiety syndrome
c) anxiety adaptation syndrome
d) stress response syndrome
a) general adaptation syndrome
50
Phase 2 of Hans Selye’s General Adaptation Syndrome is:
a) alarm reaction.
b) resistance.
c) exhaustion.
d) none of the above.
b) resistance.
51
The current conceptualization of stress emphasizes how we perceive or __________ the environment in order to determine whether a stressor is present.
a) detail
b) investigate
c) appraise
d) elicit
c) appraise
52
An advantage of the Life Events and Difficulties Schedule (LEDS) over other life stress assessments is that it
a) is a very structured interview.
b) takes less time to complete.
c) allows the evaluation of life events in the context of a person’s unique life circumstances.
d) relies less on determining when an event actually occurred.
c) allows the evaluation of life events in the context of a person’s unique life circumstances.
53
The Life Events and Difficulties Schedule (LEDS) has led researchers to conclude that
a) life events are robust predictors of several psychological and medical symptoms.
b) stress is mediated by one’s childhood experiences.
c) a given life event has the same impact across individuals.
d) the correlation between life events and stress is low.
a) life events are robust predictors of several psychological and medical symptoms.
54
Self-Report Stress Checklists are less time consuming than conducting interviews, but they are problematic as well. Which of the following problems apply to these checklists?
a) Variability in how people interpret events.
b) Recall and forgetting.
c) Biased responses based on current mood.
d) All of the above.
d) All of the above.
55
You have developed a new personality inventory that will be used to match roommates in order to minimize conflict. You are almost ready to market the test, but first must administer it to several hundred individuals to establish normative data. This phase of test development is referred to as
a) branching.
b) psychometrics.
c) validation.
d) standardization.
d) standardization
56
You decide that you wish to use the MMPI to form a scale within the instrument to distinguish potential professional wrestlers from those without the potential to be wrestlers. Using the same method as that used to develop the MMPI, you would
a) identify items that were about wrestling.
b) identify items that distinguish pro wrestlers from non-wrestlers.
c) find all the items that wrestlers answered as true regarding themselves.
d) look for consistency among items endorsed by wrestlers as true.
b) identify items that distinguish pro wrestlers from non-wrestlers.
57
The MMPI is an example of a(n)
a) projective test.
b) personality inventory.
c) intelligence test.
d) structured clinical interview.
b) personality inventory.
58
One reason for revising the MMPI was to
a) make scoring easier and more reliable.
b) accommodate changes in DSM criteria.
c) improve acceptability.
d) reduce possibilities for cheating.
c) improve acceptability.
59
Which of the following was not a change made in the revised version of the MMPI?
a) Increase representation from different racial groups in the norm sample.
b) Alter the format for answering questions.
c) Alter the norm sample to reflect the composition of the US.
d) Alter items to make the content more current.
b) Alter the format for answering questions.
60
Which of the following is a limitation of computer generated scoring of the MMPI?
a) Interpretation of the scores still relies on the competence of the psychologist.
b) Difficulty in using the program.
c) Ability of the computer to handle respondents who “fake bad.”
d) Usefulness of computer-generated report in developing comprehensive reports.
a) Interpretation of the scores still relies on the competence of the psychologist.
61
The MMPI detects individuals attempting to fake the test by
a) including special scales to detect lying.
b) inferring the lying behavior from answers left blank.
c) re-administering the test.
d) examining highly unusual responses.
a) including special scales to detect lying.
62
Which of the following is an example of an item that might be included in the MMPI lie scale?
a) “Sometimes I feel nauseous for no apparent reason.”
b) “I enjoy reading detective novels.”
c) “ have never used a foul word.”
d) “I often walk after dinner.”
c) “ have never used a foul word.”
63
The projective hypothesis assumes that
a) responses to highly structured tasks reveal hidden attitudes and motivations.
b) unstructured stimuli reveal conscious motives.
c) unstructured stimuli provoke anxiety.
d) responses to ambiguous stimuli are influenced by unconscious factors.
d) responses to ambiguous stimuli are influenced by unconscious factors.
64
The stimulus materials in the Thematic Apperception Test are ambiguous
a) to increase the likelihood that the individual is not giving responses that are consciously mediated.
b) for greater precision.
c) to increase rapport.
d) to create discomfort in the client and thereby encourage a closer relationship with the therapist.
a) to increase the likelihood that the individual is not giving responses that are consciously mediated
65
The Rorschach Inkblot Test is an example of a(n)
a) intelligence test.
b) diagnostic inventory.
c) neuropsychological test.
d) projective test.
d) projective test.
66
The Rorschach may have validity in identifying
a) depression, anxiety, and schizophrenia.
b) schizophrenia, borderline personality disorder, and dependent personality traits.
c) dependent personality traits, depression, and anxiety.
d) schizophrenia, dependent personality traits, and anxiety.
b) schizophrenia, borderline personality disorder, and dependent personality traits.
67
Under what circumstances are respondents more likely to report engaging in illegal behaviors?
a) When the exam is a face-to-face interview.
b) When the exam is computer administered.
c) When the exam is a paper-and-pencil self-report.
d) When the respondent is in the presence of other examinees.
b) When the exam is computer administered.
68
You are being tested by an examiner who is showing you pictures about which you are asked to tell complete stories. You are probably taking
a) the Rorschach.
b) the MMPI-2.
c) the Thematic Apperception Test.
d) The Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale–III.
c) the Thematic Apperception Test.
69
Intelligence tests were originally developed for the purpose of
a) determining which psychiatric patients could benefit from “talk” therapy.
b) predicting which children have special academic needs.
c) determining the age at which a child should enter school.
d) segregating people of low intelligence so they would not have children.
b) predicting which children have special academic needs.
70
Intelligence tests are based on the assumption that a detailed sample of a person’s current intellectual functioning can predict
a) brain dysfunction.
b) innate aspects of IQ.
c) cognitive effectiveness.
d) academic potential.
d) academic potential.
71
The construct validity of intelligence tests is limited by
a) how psychologists define intelligence.
b) the nature of the population tested with the instruments.
c) their generally low reliability.
d) none of the above.
a) how psychologists define intelligence.
72
Two children are administered the same IQ test. Assuming all factors to be equal except racial differences between the children, what factor has been found to explain any difference in scores between these children?
a) Stereotype threat
b) Attention difficulties
c) Both stereotype threat and attention difficulties
d) None of the above
a) Stereotype threat
73
Average intelligence is associated with a score of approximately
a) 130.
b) 70.
c) 100.
d) Average intelligence cannot be determined.
c) 100.
74
A group of 8th grade boys and a group of 8th grade girls are administered the same math test. According to the __________ phenomenon, the girls might perform more poorly than the boys.
a) stereotype threat.
b) standardization.
c) gender awareness.
d) self-monitoring.
a) stereotype threat.
75
Awareness of stereotypes tends to develop
a) in infancy.
b) between ages 6-10.
c) in early adolescence.
d) between ages 4-5.
b) between ages 6-10
76
Compared to traditional personality assessment, behavioral assessment
a) does not use self-report data because of its lack of reliability.
b) relies more heavily on self-report data.
c) focuses on situational determinants rather than traits.
d) focuses on what a person says, rather than how it is said.
c) focuses on situational determinants rather than traits.
77
Why do behavioral assessors sometimes set up contrived situations in which to observe behavior?
a) They do not think the setting is an important influence on people’s behavior.
b) Such assessments avoid the problem of reactivity.
c) They want to see how people respond in unusual situations.
d) It is often difficult to control the conditions in natural settings.
d) It is often difficult to control the conditions in natural settings.
78
What behavioral assessment procedure is associated with the most reactivity?
a) Self-monitoring
b) Personality inventory
c) Projective test
d) Structured clinical interview
a) Self-monitoring
79
Joe's therapist has him keep a log of everything he eats as part of a weight-loss program. This is an example of the behavioral assessment technique of
a) self-monitoring.
b) reactivity.
c) direct observation.
d) cognitive observation.
a) self-monitoring.
80
Miranda is trying to quit smoking. As part of her behavioral assessment, she is asked to maintain a diary and record what occurred before, during, and immediately following each time she smoked a cigarette, in real time. In order to do this, she had structured record sheets for each day. This type of assessment is referred to as
a) ecological momentary assessment.
b) self-report.
c) direct observation.
d) behavioral interview.
a) ecological momentary assessment.
81
Cognitive assessment measures are usually used to
a) identify psychopathology.
b) explore the projective hypothesis.
c) test theories about how people think.
d) measure people’s intelligence.
c) test theories about how people think.
82
Xavier is recording his thoughts each time he feels depressed. This is also referred to as a __________ assessment.
a) projective
b) behavioral
c) cognitive
d) neuropsychological
c) cognitive
83
An example of a self-report cognitive assessment consistent with Beck’s theory of depression is
a) Internal-External Attribution Questionnaire.
b) Dysfunctional Attitude Scale.
c) Attributional Style Questionnaire.
d) Cognitive Thought Record.
b) Dysfunctional Attitude Scale.
84
Which is most similar to an X-ray?
a) MRI
b) EEG
c) CT scan
d) PET scan
c) CT scan
85
PET and MRI are specific types of
a) projective tests.
b) personality inventories.
c) neuropsychological tests.
d) brain imaging tests.
d) brain imaging tests.
86
Functional MRI (fMRI) differs from ordinary MRI in that
a) fMRI records metabolic changes in the brain.
b) ordinary MRI can only be done annually.
c) fMRI relies upon other tests to assess brain function.
d) ordinary MRI is invasive
a) fMRI records metabolic changes in the brain.
87
fMRI measures blood flow in the brain, called the BOLD signal, which stands for
a) Blood Oxygenation Life Designs.
b) Blood Oxygenation Level Dependent.
c) Barium Oxygenation Light Designs.
d) Barium Oxygenation Level Dependent.
b) Blood Oxygenation Level Dependent.
88
PET is to CT scan as
a) structure is to function.
b) function is to structure.
c) cognitive is to behavioral.
d) projective is to objective.
b) function is to structure.
89
A common method assessing neurotransmitters is
a) analyzing metabolites.
b) CT scan.
c) X-ray.
d) measuring dopamine.
a) analyzing metabolites.
90
One of the problems with measuring metabolites from blood or urine is that
a) the presence of a given metabolite tends to be overestimated.
b) this type of measuring does not reflect levels of neurotransmitters in the brain.
c) the presence of a given metabolite tends to be underestimated.
d) blood and urine samples are not always easy to collect
b) this type of measuring does not reflect levels of neurotransmitters in the brain.
91
One of the major problems with drawing conclusions from metabolite studies is that
a) they are inaccurate.
b) metabolite levels change significantly over time.
c) they are correlational.
d) they provide little data.
c) they are correlational.
92
Current results from brain imaging studies
a) are useful in diagnosing psychopathology.
b) indicate that most disorders affect only a tiny portion of the brain.
c) suggest that most psychopathology is due to deficits in the frontal lobe.
d) are not strong enough for these methods to be used in diagnosing psychopathology.
d) are not strong enough for these methods to be used in diagnosing psychopathology.
93
Which kind of assessment is illustrated here? Dr. Lee assesses the possibility that Joe has brain damage by measuring his performance on a number of tasks including copying symbols, remembering numbers, and recognizing nonsense syllables.
a) Physiological assessment
b) Neurological assessment
c) Psychological assessment
d) Neuropsychological assessment
d) Neuropsychological assessment
94
Which of the following are designed to measure behavioral disturbances resulting from brain dysfunction?
a) Brain imaging techniques
b) Electrocardiograms
c) Neuropsychological tests
d) Neurotransmitter assessment
c) Neuropsychological tests
95
Which of the following specializes in medical diseases that affect the nervous system?
a) Neuropsychologist
b) Neurologist
c) Psychiatrist
d) Psychologist
b) Neurologist
96
The Halstead-Reitan and Luria-Nebraska are specific types of
a) personality inventories.
b) intelligence tests.
c) neuropsychological assessments.
d) neurological procedures.
c) neuropsychological assessments.
97
Sarah and Carrie, at the same age, were administered the Luria-Nebraska test battery. Sarah graduated with a Ph.D., while Carrie did not complete high school. Assuming all other factors equal, the scores they receive on the Luria-Nebraska
a) should differ. Sarah should score higher based on education.
b) should differ. Carrie should score higher as it is not based on education.
c) should not differ since education level is controlled for.
d) It is impossible to predict the differences from the information provided.
c) should not differ since education level is controlled for.
98
Why should we not expect a one-to-one relationship between psychological and physical measures of brain functioning?
a) They cannot measure brain functioning during normal daily activity.
b) Little is known about the functioning of individual neurons.
c) Psychological measures have low reliability and validity.
d) People differ in how well they cope with brain dysfunctions.
d) People differ in how well they cope with brain dysfunctions.
99
Psychophysiology is the study of
a) somatic treatments for psychological problems.
b) the neurological basis of psychological problems.
c) bodily changes associated with psychological events.
d) phenomena such as extrasensory perception.
c) bodily changes associated with psychological events.
100
A problem with some psychophysiological assessments is
a) clients are unwilling to have the electrodes attached for measurement.
b) the measures do not differentiate clearly between emotional states.
c) each instrument determines the base rate of reliability.
d) the assessments are highly dependent on situational factors, rather than enduring features.
b) the measures do not differentiate clearly between emotional states.
101
Which of the following is NOT an important reason why someone would fail to show an emotional response to evocative words when undergoing an fMRI assessment?
a) They might not have paid attention.
b) They might not have understood the words.
c) They might be distracted by the loud noises of the machine itself.
d) Evocative words alone should not produce an emotional response.
d) Evocative words alone should not produce an emotional response.
102
Jose, a Puerto Rican living in New York, was being assessed by Dr. Jones, a doctor born in the U.S. Jose casually states that he feels there are spirits surrounding him. Dr. Jones may
a) misdiagnose him as having schizophrenia if he fails to take cultural factors into account.
b) ignore this information if he fails to take cultural factors into consideration.
c) correctly diagnose him as having schizophrenia despite any cultural factors.
d) None of the above.
a) misdiagnose him as having schizophrenia if he fails to take cultural factors into account.
103
If a clinician is informed that a prospective client, who is seeing things that are not actually there, is African-American and in a lower income bracket, the clinician may be more likely to
a) suggest a diagnosis of mood disorder.
b) suggest a diagnosis of schizophrenia.
c) suggest that there is a good prognosis for treatment.
d) recommend a second opinion.
b) suggest a diagnosis of schizophrenia.
104
Based on the available research, if a Hispanic client is being examined by an assessor from a different cultural background, the examiner should
a) schedule fewer sessions to remain objective.
b) refer the client to a psychiatrist.
c) obtain a different test battery.
d) schedule additional sessions to ensure adequate rapport.
d) schedule additional sessions to ensure adequate rapport.
105
The best way for clinicians to avoid bias in the diagnosis of patients from ethnic minority groups is to
a) avoid seeing such patients in their practice.
b) avoid diagnosing such patients.
c) employ only those personality measures that have been specifically designed for that ethnic group.
d) learn to consider and test alternative hypotheses when evaluating clients from different ethnic groups.
d) learn to consider and test alternative hypotheses when evaluating clients from different ethnic groups.
106
There were ___ axes in the DSM-IV-TR while ___ is/are used in the DSM-5
a) 5, 2
b) 5, 0
c) 5, 3
d) 3, 2
b) 5, 0
107
All of the following are changes that were made in the DSM 5 EXCEPT:
a) New diagnoses
b) Combining diagnoses
c) Removal of the multiaxial system
d) Grouping disorders based on age-related conditions
d) Grouping disorders based on age-related conditions
108
All of the following are new chapters in the DSM-5 except:
a) Depressive Disorders
b) Childhood Disorders
c) Neurocognitive Disorders
d) Somatic Symptom Disorders
b) Childhood Disorders
