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175.302 Abnormal and Therapeutic Psychology > Paradigms Test Bank > Flashcards

Paradigms Test Bank Flashcards

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1
Q

Which philosopher of science said, “Subjective factors as well as our human limitations enter into the conduct of scientific inquiry?

a) Thomas Kuhn
b) Sigmund Freud
c) Emile Durkheim
d) Abraham Maslow

A

a) Thomas Kuhn

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2
Q

A set of basic assumptions that defines how to conceptualize and study a subject, how to gather and interpret relevant data, even how to think about a particular subject is known as a

a) theoretical perspective.
b) hypothetical stance.
c) paradigm.
d) none of the above.

A

c) paradigm

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3
Q

Paradigms in the study of psychopathology

a) increase objectivity.
b) slow innovation.
c) increase confidence in our conclusions regarding mental illness.
d) enable us to gather knowledge in a systematic manner.

A

d) enable us to gather knowledge in a systematic manner.

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4
Q

When a scientist chooses a paradigm to understand psychopathology, it

a) has little effect on clinical practice.
b) leads to an overly narrow perspective.
c) is generally too narrow in focus.
d) specifies which problems they will investigate and how they will go about investigating them.

A

d) specifies which problems they will investigate and how they will go about investigating them.

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5
Q

Contemporary views on genetic and environmental factors in behavior emphasize that

a) genes are important for only some behaviors.
b) a good environment can overcome genetic limitations.
c) both factors influence each other.
d) the percentage of genetic influence on a behavior can be measured.

A

c) both factors influence each other

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6
Q

The carriers of the genetic information passed from parent to child are called

a) nature.
b) genes.
c) zygotes.
d) DNA.

A

b) genes

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7
Q
  1. What makes us unique is the
    a) number of genes we have.
    b) the amount of DNA we inherit.
    c) the number of genes we inherit.
    d) the sequencing of our genes.
A

d) the sequencing of our genes.

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8
Q

The switching on and off of certain genes is called

a) gene expression
b) gene sequencing
c) DNA ordering
d) DNA display

A

a) gene expression

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9
Q

When discussing heritability, it is important to keep in mind all of the following EXCEPT:

a) heritability estimates range from 0.0 to 1.0.
b) the higher the heritability value, the greater the heritability.
c) heritability is relevant for a particular individual.
d) heritability is relevant for large populations.

A

c) heritability is relevant for a particular individual

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10
Q

According to behavior genetics research,

a) nonshared experiences have much more to do with mental illness than shared experiences.
b) shared experiences have much more to do with mental illness than nonshared experiences.
c) shared and nonshared experiences are equally important for mental illness.
d) there is no way to differentiate between shared and nonshared contributions to mental illness.

A

a) nonshared experiences have much more to do with mental illness than shared experiences.

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11
Q

Psychopathology is polygenic, meaning that

a) there are several different paradigms to explain abnormal behavior.
b) there are several different genes operating at different times during development that influence vulnerability.
c) the human genome consists of around 30,000 genes.
d) if a person had a gene for a given disorder, he or she would most likely get that disorder.

A

b) there are several different genes operating at different times during development that influence vulnerability.

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12
Q

If the heritability of ADHD is around .70, then

a) 70% of ADHD is due to .environment and 30% is attributed to genes.
b) 30% of ADHD is due to genes and 70% is attributed to variations in our brain.
c) individual heritability for ADHD is .70 and has little to do with our parents.
d) In a given population, approximately 70% of variation in ADHD is attributed to genes and approximately 30% is attributed to the environment.

A

d) In a given population, approximately 70% of variation in ADHD is attributed to genes and approximately 30% is attributed to the environment.

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13
Q

Which of the following statements is false?

a) Heritability is a population statistic ranging from 0.0 to 1.0.
b) Heritability is the extent to which variability in a particular behavior in a population can be accounted for by environmental factors.
c) Heritability is a measure of what varies in a population.
d) The higher the heritability statistic, the more a particular behavior can be accounted for by genetic factors.

A

b) Heritability is the extent to which variability in a particular behavior in a population can be accounted for by environmental factors.

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14
Q

Research suggests that

a) shared environmental factors is what matters most for understanding genetic variability among siblings.
b) heritability is what determines a behavior in a population.
c) the effect of nonshared environmental events on siblings is what matters most for understanding genetic variability among siblings.
d) specific types of events determine genetic variability among siblings.

A

c) the effect of nonshared environmental events on siblings is what matters most for understanding genetic variability among siblings.

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15
Q

One’s inherited genes are referred to as

a) phenotypes.
b) genotypes.
c) somatotypes.
d) allele types.

A

b) genotypes

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16
Q

One’s observable characteristics are called

a) fistulas.
b) genotypes.
c) genetic types.
d) phenotypes.

A

d) phenotypes.

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17
Q

A genotype is illustrated by which of the following?

a) Kim’s eye color
b) Kim’s hair color
c) Kim’s unexpressed gene for sickle cell
d) Kim’s two recessive genes

A

c) Kim’s unexpressed gene for sickle cell

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18
Q

A phenotype is illustrated by which of the following?

a) Lisa’s mom’s hair color.
b) Lisa’s chromosomes.
c) Lisa’s eye color.
d) Lisa’s DNA structure.

A

c) Lisa’s eye color.

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19
Q

The behavior genetic view suggests which of the following relationships between genes and abnormal behavior?

a) Genetic predispositions increase the likelihood of abnormal behavior.
b) It is possible and reasonable to manipulate an individual’s genes.
c) Twins are more likely to exhibit abnormal behavior.
d) None of the above.

A

a) Genetic predispositions increase the likelihood of abnormal behavior.

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20
Q

Any measure of intelligence is best viewed as an index of

a) genotype.
b) phenotype.
c) shared environment.
d) nonshared environment.

A

b) phenotype

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21
Q

Turkheimer and colleagues’ study of IQ showed that

a) heritability for IQ is high.
b) heritability depends upon the environment.
c) achievement is highly heritable regardless of environment.
d) linkage analysis is a sound research method.

A

b) heritability depends upon the environment

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22
Q

Different forms of the same gene are called

a) alleles.
b) polymorphisms.
c) chromosomes.
d) genotypes.

A

a) alleles.

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23
Q

A difference in DNA sequence that occurs in a population is called

a) an allele.
b) a genotype.
c) a phenotype.
d) a polymorphism.

A

d) a polymorphism

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24
Q

“Knockout studies”

a) are used to learn about mating behaviors in mice.
b) are used to gain a better understanding of DNA sequences.
c) manipulate specific genes and observe the effects on behavior by “removing” certain genes from mice DNA.
d) manipulate specific genes by inserting artificial hormones into mice DNA.

A

c) manipulate specific genes and observe the effects on behavior by “removing” certain genes from mice DNA

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25
Q

Transcription factors recognize

a) promoters.
b) responders.
c) influencers.
d) recorders.

A

a) promoters.

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26
Q

In genetics, SNPS refers to

a) single neurogenic proteins.
b) single nucleotide polymorphisms.
c) soluble nucleotide proteins.
d) soluble neurokinetic polymorphisms.

A

b) single nucleotide polymorphisms

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27
Q

A CNV is an abnormal copy of one or more sections of DNA. They occur due to all of the following EXCEPT:

a) addition of copies
b) deletion of copies
c) mutation of copies
d) multiplication of copies

A

d) multiplication of copies

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28
Q

“De novo” mutations are:

a) spontaneous
b) rapidly progressing
c) slow developing
d) systematic

A

a) spontaneous

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29
Q

The study of the pups born to high LG-ABN mothers or low LG-ABN mothers and raised by high LG-ABN mothers or low LG-ABN mothers provided support for the idea that

a) environments influence the expression of genes in psychopathology.
b) adoption studies are a useful method for understanding genetic markers.
c) environments do not play as important a role as genetics.
d) LG-ABN behaviors in mothers are not related to the expression of certain genes in pups.

A

a) environments influence the expression of genes in psychopathology.

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30
Q

Adoption studies are ideal studies for investigating

a) polymorphism.
b) gene-environment interactions.
c) genotypes.
d) alleles.

A

b) gene-environment interactions.

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31
Q

Nick was born with a predisposition for aggression and impulsivity that has resulted in frequent trouble with the law. As a result of time spent in jail, Nick has developed alcohol dependence. This is an example of

a) linkage analysis.
b) epigenetics.
c) gene-environment interaction.
d) reciprocal gene-environment interaction.

A

d) reciprocal gene-environment interaction

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32
Q

A reciprocal gene-environment interaction

a) involves the idea that genes may predispose individuals to seek out certain environments.
b) involves how adopted children take on the characteristics of their adopted parents.
c) is a useful research method in adoption studies.
d) suggests that individuals who spend a lot of time in bars are more likely to develop alcohol dependence than those who do not frequent bars.

A

a) involves the idea that genes may predispose individuals to seek out certain environments.

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33
Q

A major current challenge for researchers within the genetic paradigm is to show the mechanism by which

a) genes for pathology remain after many generations.
b) genes and environments influence each other.
c) genes exert effects on highly complex behaviors.
d) drugs are able to effect genetic predispositions.

A

b) genes and environments influence each other.

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34
Q

The neuroscience paradigm

a) suggests that genes are responsible for most types of psychopathology.
b) suggests that dopamine is linked to most types of psychopathology.
c) asserts that mental disorders are linked to aberrant processes in the brain.
d) asserts that mental disorders are linked to environmental disturbances.

A

c) asserts that mental disorders are linked to aberrant processes in the brain.

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35
Q

The small gap between brain cells that is involved in message transmission is called the

a) neurotransmitter.
b) axon.
c) ganglion.
d) synapse.

A

d) synapse

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36
Q

Neurotransmitters are chemical substances that

a) allow nerve impulses to reach the next neuron.
b) repair neurons.
c) let neurons adjust their sensitivity to new inputs.
d) adjust the speed of neural transmissions.

A

a) allow nerve impulses to reach the next neuron.

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37
Q

Neurotransmitters are pumped back into the presynaptic cell by

a) reintroduction.
b) reuptake.
c) reinstitution.
d) recall.

A

b) reuptake

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38
Q

Which of the following neurotransmitters is NOT mentioned in the text as being implicated in psychopathology?

a) GABA
b) Dopamine
c) Serotonin
d) All of the above are mentioned

A

d) All of the above are mentioned

39
Q

According to the neuroscience paradigm, mental disorders are likely the result of

a) an abundance of receptors on the postsynaptic neuron.
b) excesses of different neurotransmitters, such as dopamine.
c) deficiencies in different neurotransmitters, such as serotonin.
d) all of the above.

A

d) all of the above

40
Q

Second messengers play an important role in

a) moderating agonists.
b) moderating antagonists.
c) helping neurons adjust receptor sensitivity.
d) adjusting sensitivity of the thalamus.

A

c) helping neurons adjust receptor sensitivity.

41
Q

__________ not only interact with neurons, but they also help to control how neurons work.

a) Glial cells
b) DNA strands
c) Genes
d) Agonists

A

a) Glial cells

42
Q

Which of the following mechanisms adjust the sensitivity of postsynaptic receptors to dopamine, norepinephrine, or serotonin?

a) second messengers
b) antagonists
c) neurotransmitters
d) nerve impulses

A

a) second messengers

43
Q

Dr. Arthur and his colleagues are investigating a new drug for depression that stimulates serotonin receptors. Dr. Arthur is most likely investigating which kind of drug?

a) an antagonist
b) an agonist
c) a second messenger
d) a synaptic blocker

A

b) an agonist

44
Q

Fred has schizophrenia and is taking a medication that works by blocking dopamine receptors. Fred is most likely taking which kind of drug?

a) an antagonist
b) an agonist
c) a second messenger
d) an antidepressant

A

a) an antagonist

45
Q

The major connection between the two hemispheres in the brain is called

a) gray matter.
b) the parietal lobe.
c) the brain stem.
d) the corpus callosum.

A

d) the corpus callosum

46
Q

The gray matter in the brain is made up of

a) neurons.
b) fissures.
c) sulci.
d) meninges

A

a) neurons

47
Q

The cortex consists of __________ layers of tightly packed neurons.

a) two
b) four
c) six
d) eight

A

c) six

48
Q

The part of your brain closest to your ears that deals with sound discrimination is the __________ lobe.

a) frontal
b) occipital
c) parietal
d) temporal

A

d) temporal

49
Q

The thalamus is the part of the brain which

a) recognizes spatial relations.
b) regulates body temperature and blood pressure.
c) controls movement.
d) relays sensory pathways for hearing and vision.

A

d) relays sensory pathways for hearing and vision.

50
Q

The cerebellum is crucial for

a) balance
b) speech
c) sight
d) hearing

A

a) balance

51
Q

Important structures of the limbic system include all of the following EXCEPT the:

a) anterior cingulate
b) cerebellum
c) amygdala
d) hypothalamus

A

b) cerebellum

52
Q

In early adulthood, a process known as __________ occurs in which cell connections in the brain are eliminated.

a) honing
b) pruning
c) linkage analysis
d) a gene-environment interaction

A

b) pruning

53
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

a) Starting in early adulthood, synaptic connections begin to be eliminated.
b) Connections in the brain become greater as an individual moves through adulthood.
c) Brain development begins in the second trimester.
d) All of the above.

A

a) Starting in early adulthood, synaptic connections begin to be eliminated.

54
Q

Which of the following is central to the body’s response to stress?

a) HPA axis
b) serotonin
c) dopamine
d) nerve impulses

A

a) HPA axis

55
Q

When people are faced with threat, the hypothalamus releases __________, which then communicates with the pituitary gland.

a) serotonin
b) dopamine
c) Corticotrophin Releasing Factor (CRF)
d) norepinephrine

A

c) Corticotrophin Releasing Factor (CRF)

56
Q

The autonomic nervous system is

a) mostly involuntary.
b) also known as the somatic nervous system.
c) mostly voluntary.
d) equally voluntary and involuntary.

A

a) mostly involuntary

57
Q

The autonomic nervous system is divided into two parts:

a) the somatic nervous system and the involuntary nervous system.
b) the sympathetic nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system.
d) the sympathetic nervous system and the somatic nervous system.
c) the somatic nervous system and the sympathetic nervous system.

A

b) the sympathetic nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system.

58
Q

This part of the ANS accelerates the heart, dilates the pupils, and initiates smooth muscle and glandular responses that prepare an organism for sudden activity and stress.

a) parasympathetic nervous system
b) sympathetic nervous system
c) somatic nervous system
d) HPA axis

A

b) sympathetic nervous system

59
Q

Which of the following would be considered an implication of the neuroscience paradigm?

a) Using an antidepressant to inhibit the uptake of serotonin.
b) Changing one’s schema by identifying false cognitions.
c) Studying gene-environment interactions to better understand how depression runs in families.
d) Studying the heritability of schizophrenia.

A

a) Using an antidepressant to inhibit the uptake of serotonin.

60
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

a) A person could hold a neuroscientific view about the nature of a psychological disorder, yet still recommend psychological intervention.
b) Reductionism refers to the view that whatever is being studied can and should be reduced to its more basic elements.
c) In recent decades, neuroscience research on causes and treatment of psychopathology has been proceeding quite slowly.
d) Most neurobiological interventions have not been derived from knowledge of what causes a given disorder.

A

c) In recent decades, neuroscience research on causes and treatment of psychopathology has been proceeding quite slowly.

61
Q

The primary argument against reductionism is that

a) using multiple levels of analysis makes understanding needlessly complex.
b) certain phenomena may only emerge at specific levels of analysis.
c) it is impossible to identify the best level of analysis for some phenomena.
d) theoretical biases make it difficult to adjust levels of analysis.

A

b) certain phenomena may only emerge at specific levels of analysis.

62
Q

Jane is afraid of elevators. Her psychologist, Dr. Schwartz, teaches her how to relax deeply. Then Dr. Schwartz helps her develop a list of situations with elevators that vary in how frightening or anxiety- producing they are. Finally, while relaxed, Jane imagines the series of situations with elevators. Eventually Jane is able to tolerate imagining increasingly more difficult situations in elevators such as riding an elevator alone for 100 floors. By the end of the 16th therapy session, Jane states that her fear of elevators has disappeared. Dr. Schwartz used

a) brief psychodynamic therapy.
b) token economy.
c) systematic desensitization.
d) ego analysis.

A

c) systematic desensitization

63
Q

Systematically rewarding desirable behavior and extinguishing undesirable behavior is the centerpiece of which behavioral theory?

a) Operant conditioning
b) Systematic conditioning
c) Classical conditioning
d) Observational conditioning

A

a) Operant conditioning

64
Q

Helping a person engage in tasks that provide an opportunity for positive reinforcement is called

a) observational learning
b) behavioral activation therapy
c) classical learning
d) operant learning

A

b) behavioral activation therapy

65
Q

Joan tends to see everything on the “bright side.” That is, she rarely feels that negative events occur in her life. According to the cognitive perspective, Joan’s tendency to see things positively represents her

a) schema.
b) discriminative stimulus.
c) fixation.
d) conditioned response.

A

a) schema.

66
Q

After the first day of class, Jack (who is always an optimist) decides the class will be fun while Jan (who struggles over grades) decides the class will be hard. Their different reactions illustrate the role of their

a) non-shared environment.
b) cognitive set.
c) previous exposures.
d) childhood experiences.

A

b) cognitive set

67
Q

The Stroop task was originally developed for researchers to study

a) attention.
b) the role of neurotransmitters.
c) emotion.
d) Alzheimer’s Disease.

A

a) attention

68
Q

What paradigm was used by this therapist? Joan was fired from her job, and her therapist attempts to help her see that this is not terrible, and that being fired does not mean she is a bad person.

a) learning paradigm
b) psychoanalytic paradigm
c) Beck’s cognitive paradigm
d) gestalt paradigm

A

c) Beck’s cognitive paradigm

69
Q

Newer CBT treatments differ from the original CBT treatments in that they emphasize all of the following EXCEPT:

a) spirituality.
b) values.
c) emotions.
d) rational thoughts.

A

d) rational thoughts

70
Q

Ted is a “workaholic”: he works 15 hours a day and never has time to spend with his family or on things he enjoys. Which of the following is a cognitive explanation of Ted’s behavior?

a) Ted is imitating the behavior of his hard-working father.
b) Ted believes he can be a good person only if he excels in everything he does.
c) Ted is actually afraid of getting close to others.
d) Ted lacks the assertiveness to stand up to his boss’s demands.

A

b) Ted believes he can be a good person only if he excels in everything he does.

71
Q

A distinctive facet of the cognitive behavioral paradigm is that thoughts

a) are a result of feelings.
b) are a direct result of past experiences.
c) are less important than behaviors.
d) cause feelings.

A

d) cause feelings

72
Q

__________ is the idea that a person can, without being aware of it, be influenced by prior learning.

a) Complicit memory
b) Implicit memory
c) Subconscious learning
d) Conscious remembrance

A

b) Implicit memory

73
Q

The difference between emotions and moods is that

a) emotions involve feelings, while moods involve behaviors.
b) emotions have been linked to psychological disorders, while moods have not.
c) emotions are long-lived experiences, while moods tend to be short-lasting.
d) emotions are fairly short-lived states, while moods tend to last for longer periods of time.

A

d) emotions are fairly short-lived states, while moods tend to last for longer periods of time.

74
Q

Lindsey opened a letter saying that she got into her top choice medical school. She felt a rush of joy and began to jump up and down with excitement. Which of the following best describes Lindsey’s state in the moment after opening the letter?

a) Lindsey is experiencing happy emotions.
b) Lindsey is not good at expressing emotions
c) Lindsey has a happy schema.
d) Lindsey has sad affect.

A

a) Lindsey is experiencing happy emotions.

75
Q

When studying the role of emotions in different mental disorders, it is important to consider

a) which components of emotion are affected.
b) how sad the person is.
c) cardiovascular responses to stress.
d) which emotions have the largest effect on mood.

A

a) which components of emotion are affected

76
Q

Multinational studies on the role of gender in psychopathology have shown that

a) alcohol dependence is equally common among women and men.
b) depression is nearly twice as common among women than men.
c) antisocial personality disorder is more common among women than men.
d) childhood disorders affect more girls than boys.

A

b) depression is nearly twice as common among women than men.

77
Q

Cultural and ethnic studies of psychopathology conducted around the world indicate that

a) most disorders are only prevalent in the United States.
b) all disorders in the DSM-5 can be identified in every culture studied.
c) treatments are universally effective for all disorders.
d) a number of disorders are indeed observed in diverse parts of the world.

A

d) a number of disorders are indeed observed in diverse parts of the world.

78
Q

Studies of psychopathology among different cultures and ethnicities have shown that eating disorders are more common among __________, while schizophrenia is more common among __________.

a) African-Americans; Caucasians
b) Hispanics; Caucasians
c) Caucasians; African-Americans
d) African-Americans; Hispanics

A

c) Caucasians; African-Americans

79
Q

The fields of behavioral medicine and health psychology focus on the impact of __________ on health.

a) gender
b) socioeconomic status
c) ethnicity
d) All of these are considered by behavioral medicine and health psychologists.

A

d) All of these are considered by behavioral medicine and health psychologists.

80
Q

Why do women have poorer health in general than men?

a) Women live longer than men.
b) Women are more likely to be diagnosed with a mental disorder than men.
c) Women are exposed to more stress than men.
d) All of the above.

A

d) All of the above.

81
Q

Which of the following is responsible for the relationship between low SES and poor mental and physical health?

a) Environmental factor reinforce poor health behaviors.
b) Limited access to health services.
c) Greater exposure to stress.
d) All of the above.

A

d) All of the above.

82
Q

__________ stresses the importance of long-standing patterns in close relationships, particularly within the family, that are shaped by the ways people think and feel.

a) subjective relationstheory
b) object relations theory
c) relationship theory
d) none of the above

A

b) object relations theory

83
Q

The goal of __________ is to reduce the relationship stress and improve communication.

a) couples therapy
b) individual therapy
c) triad therapy
d) none of the above

A

a) couples therapy

84
Q

The first goal of family-focused treatment is to

a) provide psychoeducation.
b) choose one problem to address.
c) generate potential solutions.
d) symptom management.

A

a) provide psychoeducation

85
Q

The clinical case about Clare was included in the chapter on Current Paradigms in Psychopathology to illustrate the principle of

a) rational-emotive therapy
b) family-focused therapy
c) couples therapy
d) group therapy

A

b) family-focused therapy

86
Q

__________ grew out of object relations theory.

a) Differentiation theory
b) Subjective self-theory
c) Attachment theory
d) Subject relations theory

A

c) Attachment theory

87
Q

Interpersonal therapy emphasizes the importance of __________ and how problems in these relationships contribute to psychological symptoms.

a) past relationships
b) current relationships
c) future relationships
d) both a and b

A

b) current relationships

88
Q

IPT considers which of the following issues?

a) Resolved grief
b) Unresolved grief
c) Established roles
d) Social support

A

b) Unresolved grief

89
Q

The diathesis-stress paradigm emphasizes that psychopathology results from

a) predisposition and the unconscious.
b) predisposition and environmental disturbances.
c) physiology and biochemistry.
d) attachment and gestalt problems.

A

b) predisposition and environmental disturbances.

90
Q

Which of the following is NOT an example of a diathesis?

a) Chronic feelings of hopelessness, often found in people with depression.
b) The ability to be hypnotized often, seen in people with dissociative identity disorder.
c) Intense fear of becoming fat often, found in people with eating disorders.
d) Delusions often found in people with schizophrenia.

A

d) Delusions often found in people with schizophrenia.

91
Q

According to the diathesis-stress model, if Linda inherited a predisposition that places her at high risk for schizophrenia,

a) given a certain amount of stress, it is likely Linda will develop schizophrenia.
b) Linda will most definitely develop schizophrenia.
c) Linda will only develop schizophrenia if she has also inherited a predisposition to be paranoid.
d) Linda also inherited a schema that predisposes her to experience stress more easily than most people.

A

a) given a certain amount of stress, it is likely Linda will develop schizophrenia.

92
Q

Which of the following statements are TRUE about paradigms?

a) Data gathered by researchers subscribing to different paradigms are not necessarily incompatible with one another.
b) The genetic paradigm offers a “complete” conceptualization of psychopathology.
c) The diathesis stress model is not considered a paradigm.
d) Clinical cases are seldom conceptualized using more than one paradigm.

A

a) Data gathered by researchers subscribing to different paradigms are not necessarily incompatible with one another.

93
Q

Most therapists today conceptualize a clinical case using

a) one paradigm
b) two primary paradigms
c) multiple paradigms
d) no paradigms

A

c) multiple paradigms

175.302 Abnormal and Therapeutic Psychology (16 decks)

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