Schizophrenia Flashcards

1
Q

abnormal behaviours that have been gained such as hallucinations (typically auditory), delusions (paranoia), and thought disorder (all together called psychosis)

A

positive symtoms

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2
Q

normal functions that have been lost such as blunted emotional responses, poverty of speech, social withdrawal, anhedonia, lack of insight, and cognitive deficits

A

negative symptoms

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3
Q

At least ___ or ____ core symptoms: ____, ____ or _____ _____ must be present for diagnosis of schizophrenia. These symptoms are also present in other conditions that need to be ruled out before schizophrenia is diagnosed. Other symptoms include lack of ____ into the illness, delusions of _____, and ______.

A

1,3 , hallucinations, delusions, disorganized speech, insight, reference, suspiciousness

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4
Q

_____% of the population suffer from schizophrenia at any given time. Onset is typically after ____ (18 years). In men, it typically does not onset after ______. A small number of women develop symptoms after _____ (45+ years)

A

1, puberty, 30, menopause

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5
Q

The cognitive abnormalities are ____ dramatic than the psychotic symptoms. However, these deficits may be a ___- component of the disorder. Cognitive functioning is the #1 predictor of ____ _____ ____. Better cognitive functioning has a better _______. The severity of ____ symptoms are not related to the severity of cognitive deficits.

A

less, core, long term outcome, prognosis, psychotic

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6
Q

The 7 primary domains of cognition that are affected are: speed of ____, _____ ___, ____ learning/memory, ____ cognition, _____/vigilance, ______/problem solving, _____ learning/memory.

A

processing, working memory, visual, social, attention, reasoning, verbal

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7
Q

many functions mediated by the _____ such as ____ attention, working memory, behavioural _____, and ____ are impaired in schizophrenia. Brain activation studies show that those with schizophrenia show _____ ____ in PFC activity when performing the ____ _____ _____ in comparison to their discordant identical twin controls. Other brain regions were activated ____ in both groups, showing they they do not show as dramatic of disruption in function in other ____ regions

A

PFC, selective, flexibility, planning, minimal increase, wisconsin card sort, similarly, cortical

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8
Q

a test of cognitive flexibility critically dependent on the PFC

A

wisconsin cart sort

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9
Q

The odds of developing SZ increases if one has a _______ that has SZ. The highest concordance is in _____ twins, or if both parents are schizophrenic (_____). _______ _____ also indicate that there is a heritability component. Thus, there is a strong genetic component to the disease, but ____ ____ are not the only cause. ____ of genes or different _____ of alterations may be linked to SZ. In particular, the ____ gene mutation has been linked to risk for schizophrenia. This gene encodes for proteins essential in _____ _____. Various polymorphisms are also associated with impaired ____ _____

A

relative, identical, 50%, adoption studies, altered genes, dozens, combinations, DISC1, neural development, cognitive functioning

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10
Q

_____ during development are another major contributing factor to the emergence of SZ. There is a higher occurrence of _____ complications with SZ vs the general population, such as ___ ___ during pregnancy, _____ birth or low ____ ____, and ____/_____ stressors during pregnancy. Early developmental insults lead to ____ ____ in adulthood.

A

perturbations, perinatal, poor nutrition, premature, birth weight, physical, immune, brain abnormalities

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11
Q

Stressor later in life (after puberty) can ____ the onset of SZ. Genetics increase ____ to stressors by the mother or child, either in ____ or later in life. Some people may have a genetic ____ to acquiring the disease, but certain types of stressors over development need to trigger it.

A

trigger, sensitivity, utero, susceptibility

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12
Q

Some behaviours in early _____ signal potential risk for SZ, such as _____ and ____, reduced responsiveness to ____ ____, difficult _____, and poor _______ performance.

A

infancy, apathy, passivity, verbal commands, temperament, sensorimotor

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13
Q

During adolescence, (a period of significant brain development), excessive _____ pruning can result in a loss of _____ ______ matter

A

synaptic, cortical grey

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14
Q

Some schizophrenics have enlarged ____ due to smaller ____ and other ____ lobe regions. Closer inspections reveals _____ of hippocampal neurons is altered. Most brain changes observed in SZ aren’t correlated with the _____ _____ ____ or _____ _____. It is not brain damage per se, but changes in _____ ______ that occur during early development that can disrupt how brain regions ______ information.

A

ventricles, hippocampus, temporal, organization, time since onset, symptom duration, neural organization, process

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15
Q

The ______ _____ ___ neurons of schizophrenics have reduced number of ______, which reduces _____ power of these cells and leads to _____ failures. Schizophrenia is also associated with ______ (reduced PFC function) as a characteristic ____ symptom. Schizophrenics also have reduced markers for _____ ____ in the ______ and other regions such as the hippocampus. These neurons serve as a major _____ ___ for these areas and in schizophrenics this can lead to a ____ cortex, reducing information ____ and impairing functioning of these regions

A

prefrontal cortex pyramidal, dendrites, processing, connectivity, hypofrontality, negative, GABAergic interneurons, PFC, information filter, noisy, filtering

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16
Q

In the 1950s, _____ was found to antipsychotic. This medication also caused ____ symptoms in healthy individuals. Brains of Parkinson’s patients was found to be depleted of ______. In 1960s, drugs that increased dopamine release such as ____ could induce psychotic symptoms. Antipsychotics were also found to block ____ ____. In the 1970s, dopamine receptor _____ were discovered, and the antipsychotic _____ of a drug was correlated with binding to ______ ______ (not D1). This led to the dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia.

A

chloropromazine, parkinsons, dopamine, amphetamine, dopamine receptors, subtypes, potency, D2 receptors,

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17
Q

The theory that schizophrenia is caused by an abnormal increase in dopamine transmission, leading to overstimulation of D2 receptors

A

dopamine hypothesis

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18
Q

Support for the dopamine hypothesis includes that all drugs that are effective in treating ____ block ___ receptors to some degree.

A

psychosis, D2

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19
Q

Study found that giving ____ to schizophrenics vs controls showed greater ____ release in the ____ in schizophrenics. A greater effect was correlated with more ____ symptoms. Thus dopamine release is ____ in schizophrenia

A

amphetamine, dopamine, striatum, positive, hypersensitive

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20
Q

DA neurons show increased activity to ____ _____ / _____ stimuli. This increase in activity (and dopamine release in the striatum from the ____) may serve as a signal the brain uses to determine what’s important or _______. A hyperactive DA system may ____ normally irrelevant stimuli as important and impair filtering of irrelevant stimuli. This leads to _______ _____ ______ that may contribute to delusions. ____ medications are thought to reduce this by reducing DA activity.

A

highly salient, novel, VTA, relevant, tag, aberrant salience attribution, antipsychotic

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21
Q

Often schizophrenics still report hearing the _____ when they’re on medication, but they no longer ___ them. Antipsychotic drugs only effectively treat psychosis, often negative symptoms are ____ as well treated by these drugs

A

voices, bother, not

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22
Q

The idea that different symptoms of schizophrenia are driven by excessive mesolimbic DA function (positive function) combined with reduced prefrontal DA function (negative/cognitive symptoms)

A

dopamine imbalance hypothesis

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23
Q

Postmortem and recent imaging studies have found evidence of reduced ____ ____ transmission in schizophrenia. Drugs that increase PFC dopamine release (e.g. ______), can improve _____ functions mediated by the PFC in schizophrenic patients

A

PFC DA, amphetamine, cognitive

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24
Q

Dopamine ____ and ___ receptors can have different effects depending on the circumstance . Depletion of prefrontal dopamine in monkeys decreases in ____ _____ as much as ablation of the PFC in the ___ ___ task. In other words, the monkeys do poorly even with the shortest _____. _____ and ____ depletion had no effect. People with schizophrenia are also impaired on tasks of working memory even on trials with the shortest delay.

A

D1, D2, working memory, delayed response, delay, NE, 5-HT

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25
Q

Rats trained on a ____ ____ task are trained to turn to the ____ arm in a ___ maze. This is a measure of ____ memory. A ____ ____ only injected into the PFC reduces performance, as well as a ______ ______. Normal performance is in the ___ zone of DA signalling. Thus there is an inverted ___ shaped relationship between DA and cognitive performance.

A

delayed alternation, opposite, T, working, D1 antagonist, D1 agonist, optimal, U

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26
Q

PFC D1 but not ____ receptors mediate working memory. Animals were first trained in a ____ maze, where 4 arms were blocked and 4 arms were ____ with food. Rats are just trained to find the food. Then, there is a delay period of _____ minutes, and in the test phase, all arms are open, but only previously _____ arms are baited with food. Blocking ___ receptors impairs performance on the task, but blocking ____ receptors in the PFC does not impair performance. Similar effects are seen with _____

A

D2, radial, baited, 30, blocked, D1, D2, primates

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27
Q

Overstimulating D1 receptors with a D1 _____ impairs performance in ____ ___ tasks, normally. However, when extending the delay between the training and test phase to ____ hours, control animals make ______ errors than on shorter delay (ie. lower _____). Stimulating D1 receptors in this case ______ performance (beneficial effect). Thus D1 receptor stimulation can improve ______ cognitive functioning

A

agonist, working memory, 12, more, baseline, increases, suboptimal

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28
Q

In the ______ _____ _____ ____ task, manipulating ____ ____ ___ activity has differential effects on attention depending on baseline levels of performance. With poor performers, extra D1 stimulation _____ functioning, while D1 receptor _____ have no effect. With good performers, D1 receptors antagonists _____ functioning, while D1 receptor agonists have ____ effect.

A

5-choice, serial reaction time, PFC D1 receptor, improves, antagonists, impair, no

29
Q

Prefrontal dopamine also has a role in ____ _____. One day 1, the response rule is to just ____ ____. There is a visual cue inserted in either the left or right arm and the rat must ____ it. On day 2, the rats now must approach the visual cue in either the ___ or ____ arm. The rat must shift off the old _____ and engage in the new one. Blockade of PFC ____ receptors impairs ___ ____. It increases the _____ and ______ errors. However, it has no effect on just the ___ ___ rule

A

cognitive flexibility, turn left, ignore, left, right, strategy, D1, set shifting, preservative, non-preservative, turn left

30
Q

Multiple PFC dopamine receptors mediate cognitive flexibility. ____ receptor blockade also decreases cognitive flexibility. _____ receptor blockade improves set shifting (___ shaped curve). Supranormal stimulation of either ___ or ____ receptors do not affect cognitive flexibility.

A

D2, D4, S, D1, D2,

31
Q

The ____ gene shows polymorphisms. Enzymatic ____ is the main way that DA is cleared in the PFC, not through _____. The _____ / _____ version produces an enzyme that is ____ effective at metabolizing DA, producing _____ DA levels. This leads to lower PFC DA levels vs the ___ / _____ version which makes a _____ level of DA. This polymorphism is associated with ____ cognitive performance in both _____ and people with schizophrenia. This COMT polymorphism may exacerbate ____ in schizophrenia. A ___ /_____ genotype results in ____ performance on tests of cognitive performance. ___/____ polymorphisms are more common in those with schizophrenia

A

COMT, degradation, reuptake, val/val, more, suboptimal, met/met, optimal, poorer, controls, dysfunction, met/val, medium, val/val

32
Q

Non competitive _____ antagonists such as ____ and ____ can induce psychotic symptoms, negative symptoms, and cognitive deficits resembling schizophrenia in healthy individuals. It can also ____ symptoms in schizophrenic patients. Degeneration of ______ ____ and _____ neurons is also apparent in schizophrenia. This could disrupt functioning of these cells and lead to ____ glutamate transmission.

A

NMDA, PCP, ketamine, exacerbate, glutamatergic PFC, hippocampal, less

33
Q

the hypothesis that schizophrenia is caused by decreased glutamate transmission

A

glutamate hypothesis

34
Q

Studies using rat/primate models show that ____ or ____ PCP decreases ____ levels in the PFC, and causes _____ _____ on PFC-dependent tasks. Different symptoms of schizophrenia may be driven by the imbalance of DA transmission in the ____ (too little) and ____ (too much). The glutamate hypothesis encompasses some of the positive and ___ symptoms of the disorder

A

acute, repeated, DA, cognitive deficits, PFC, striatum, negative

35
Q

Perturbed PFC glutamate can contribute to increases in _____ ___ and reduced ____ _____ transmission. _______ PFC projections affect both DA pathways. _____ PFC projections synapse directly onto ____ DA neurons (PFC excites these cells). PFC also inputs to VTA _____ neurons that in turn synapse onto ______ DA neurons (PFC activity inhibits these cells). Reduced PFC glutamate could _____ DA release in the PFC, exacerbating ____/____ symptoms. At the same time, reduced PFC glutamate provides ____ excitation on VTA GABA neurons that could lead to excessive DA release and _____ symptoms.

A

mesolimbic DA, PFC DA, descending, mesocortical, GABA, mesolimbic, attenuate, cognitive/negative, less, positive

36
Q

PCP / ____ / _____ _____ reduces glutamate tone on some PFC neurons. They reduce activity of ______ _____, producing a noisy cortex.

A

ketamine, neural degradation, GABAergic interneurons

37
Q

NMDA receptor reside on ___ ___ and ___ ____. Many interneurons are ___ ___, driven partially by ____ input on these cells. Lower (psychosis-inducing) doses of PCP and ketamine can ____ NMDA receptors on both types of cells. These doses have a proportionally ____ effect on interneurons to reduce their activity. This can cause ______ increases in pyramidal neuron firing because interneurons can synapse onto the ____ _____. PCP/ketamine also blocks NMDA receptors on ____ cells. This does not decrease their firing, but can diminish _____ signals from other _____ and ____ regions. The net effect is a _____ in the excitatory / inhibitory balance, with reduced _____, combined with aberrant ______ (noise)

A

pyramidal cells, GABA interneurons, fast firing, glutamate, block, greater, disinhibitory, axon hillock, pyramidal, incoming, cortical, limbic, disruption, signal, hyperactivity

38
Q

High doses of _____ produce some symptoms similar to ______ schizophrenia. These include stereotyped behaviours like ___, ___ and ____ like the ___ ___ of behaviours seen in SZ. This is often used to identify potential ____ drugs, but does not reproduce ___ / ____ symptoms very well

A

amphetamine, paranoid, sniffing, licking, gnawing, compulsive repetitions, antipsychotic, negative, cognitive

39
Q

Early insults such as poor ____, ___ ____, and _____, to pregnant rodents or young _____ induce ______ / _____ abnormalities later in life

A

diet, viral infections, stressors, offspring, behavioural, neural

40
Q

The _____ ___ ___ lesion is a well characterized model where a single, early life defect (lesion at postnatal day ___), produces physiological and behavioural abnormalities in adulthood. Rats start showing behavioural changes in _______ that reflect symptoms of SZ. As in humans, ___/____ symptoms appear early in rodents, and ____ symptoms occur around adolescence/___ ____ (and can be potentiated by stress)

A

neonatal ventral hippocampal, 7, adolescence, negative, cognitive, positive, early adulthood

41
Q

Behavioural assays used for negative symptoms include ____ ____ measures, where a mouse choose between an empty chamber or a chamber with a stranger mouse, deficits in ______, measures of ______/______, such as using ___ ___ responding or choosing between rewards of different _____/_____.

A

social interaction, grooming, motivation/anhedonia, progressive ratio, costs/benefits

42
Q

Behavioural assays for positive symptoms include sensitivity to _____/_______, and _____ ______ ___ _____ _____.

A

amphetamine, PCP, prepulse inhibition of acoustic startle

43
Q

people with schizophrenia have difficulty ____ and report being ____ by sensory stimuli. Normally, in PPI, a loud sound will make a rat ____. However, a quieter sound (___) delivered right before the loud one normally ____ the startle response. PPI _____ are present in schizophrenic patients and many animal models. The ____ of induced sensory-filtering deficits predicts _____ effects

A

filtering, overwhelmed, jump, prepulse, decreases, deficits, reversal, antipsychotic

44
Q

There are many antipsychotic (aka _____) drugs although they are of roughly equal ______. An individual may respond better to one drug vs another, and several may have to be ____ to find the most effective one. These drugs are effective at treating _____ symptoms but ineffective at treating ____/_____ symptoms. Like many other psychiatric drugs, antipsychotics work on the law of _____. 1/3 of patients respond ____, 1/3 show significant improvements (but may _____/need ____), and the remainder ____ to respond. Continued drug _______ reduces the chances of relapse of psychotic episodes. Due to many unpleasant side effects, patient _____ is often a problem

A

neuroleptic, effectiveness, tested, positive, negative, cognitive, thirds, well, relapse, assistance, fail, maintenance, compliance

45
Q

All antipsychotics block ____ receptors to some degree and show a strong correlation. between ______ _____ and ___ ____. Higher affinity for the receptor means a ____ dose needed to treat psychotic symptoms. Selective D1 antagonists have ____ effect or actually ____ symptoms. Many antipsychotics bind to other receptors (____, ____, ____, ____, ____), but there is no clear relation between the effectiveness and binding to other targets

A

D2, D2 affinity, effective dose, lower, no, worsen, 5-HT, D1, alpha-adrenergic, histamine, ACh

46
Q

Acute treatment with antipsychotics reduces _____ symptoms relatively quickly, but full antipsychotics effects take ~_____ weeks to fully emerge.

A

hyperactive, 2

47
Q

D2 antagonists block both _____ and ______. The initial antipsychotic treatment ____ DA release, but this subsides after ~_____ weeks. Blockade of _____ receptors prevents worsening of symptoms via autoreceptor blockade. Chronic D2 blockade leads to actions on autoreceptors that cause longer lasting changes in DA ____, _____ and ______.

A

postsynaptic, autoreceptors, increases, 2, postsynaptic, synthesis, release, metabolism

48
Q

Drug induced increase in DA neuron firing (via blockade of ____ _____ on DA neurons) eventually reduce their activity due to ____ _____. The time course for maximal reduction in DA neuron activity (in rats) resembles that of maximal _____ effects in humans (2 weeks). Time-dependent changes in DA transmission and neural activity help explain the time ____in drug maximal effectiveness

A

D2 autoreceptors, depolarization block, antipsychotic, lag

49
Q

There are various side effects of drugs that work on DA D2 receptors. The extrapyramidal side effects that occur include ___, ____ and ____ _____. the endocrine effects include _____ secretion, ____ changes, and _____ dysfunction

A

parkinsonism, akathisia, tardive dyskinesia, prolactin, menstrual, sexual

50
Q

motor side effects primarily mediated by effects on the nigrostriatal DA pathway

A

parkinsonism

51
Q

DA D2 receptors inhibit _____ ____ in the striatum. In Parkinsonism, reduced ____ DA function increases ____ activity that excites striatal _____ neurons. Striatal neurons can in turn inhibit ___ ____ DA cells (Via ____), leading to overall reduced tone on ___/____ receptors

A

ACh interneurons, striatal, ACh, output, substantia nigra, GABA, D1/D2

52
Q

stereotyped, involuntary movements, particularly of the face / jaw, quick and uncontrolled movements of the arms and legs, and other motor effects

A

tardive dyskinesia

53
Q

TD symptoms can sometimes persist after the treatment is _____. The incidence of TD _____ with duration of treatment. The ____ are not completely understood

A

discontinued, increases, mechanisms

54
Q

endocrine side effects can inhibit ____ ____ release, and increase ____ release, which leads to ____ and ___ ___, even in males

A

growth hormone, prolactin, lactation, breast enlargement

55
Q

side effects due to 5-HT2A receptors include ___ _____, while side effects due to ____ receptors include weight gain and _____ irregularities.

A

sexual dysfunction, 5-HT2C, temperature

56
Q

side effects due to histamine H1 receptors include ____, increased _____, ___ ___ and _____

A

sedation, appetite, weight gain, hypotension

57
Q

side effects due to muscarinic cholinergic receptors include autonomic side effects such as _____ vision, ___ ____, _____, _____ retention, ____, ____ dysfunction and _____ problems. Drugs with _____ action tend to have fewer _______ side effects. Sometimes, muscarinic cholinergic antagonists are combined with antipsychotics to ____ motor symptoms.

A

blurred, dry mouth, constipation, urine, tachycardia, memory, gastrointestinal, anticholinergic, motor, mitigate

58
Q

side effects due to alpha-1 adrenergic receptors include ____ ___, ______, _____ tachycardia, and ____ _____

A

orthostatic hypotension, dizziness, reflex, blacking out

59
Q

Side effects due to alpha-2 adrenergic receptors include ____ ____

A

drug interactions

60
Q

Atypical (aka 2nd generation) drugs reduce psychosis as effectively as classical drugs, but produce fewer ____ effects. Some newer drugs do not produce ___ ___ or increase _____. ___ ____ antipsychotics block other receptors as well as D2 receptors.

A

extrapyramidal, tardive dyskinesia, prolactin, broad spectrum

61
Q

Clozapine has weaker affinities for ____ and strong affinities for ____, ____ and ____. It can be more effective for patients who do not respond to ____ neuroleptics.

A

D2, 5-HT, ACh, histamine, typical

62
Q

Real word clinical trials suggest that newer drugs are not any more ____ or have a better ___ ___ profile than classical antipsychotics, except for ______. Some patients have an adverse ____ ____ to clozapine, and not all patients can take it safely.

A

effective, side effect, clozapine, blood reaction

63
Q

Many 2nd generation antipsychotics still have considerable side effects such as ___ ___ which is resistant to diet and exercise, ______ resistance, and _____ ____ ____, as well as ___ ____.

A

weight gain, insulin, type II diabetes, cardiac arrhythmias

64
Q

Drugs that show high affinity for D2 receptors (slight affinity for D3) with very low affinity for most other receptors

A

super selective D2 receptor antagonists

65
Q

Super selective D2 receptor antagonists have milder effects on ____ and ____ systems. However, _____ side effects and risk of _____ ____ disorders reduces their utility. Examples are _______ and _____.

A

cardiovascular, autonomic, hormonal, fatal blood, sulpiride, amisulpride

66
Q

partial DA agonists that compete with DA for receptors and reduce the DA effect

A

DA stabilizers

67
Q

_____ is the prototype drug for DA stabilizers. It has fewer side effects and is also being used as an _______.

A

aripiprazole, antidepressant

68
Q

A contemporary theory is that antipsychotic effects require _____% blockade of D2 receptors, and that extrapyramidal symptoms emerge after blocking > _____% of receptors. Atypicals may have faster ___/____ receptor _____ to better manage the antipsychotic vs motor symptom ______

A

65, 80, on/off, kinetics, thresholds