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COMLEX Level 2CE > SBSI drills W5 (F) > Flashcards

SBSI drills W5 (F) Flashcards

Deck is full

1
Q

what are the uses of allopurinol?

A
  • gout
  • tumor lysis synd
  • leukemia
  • lymphoma
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2
Q

other than CHF, edema and wt gain, what are the other s/e of glitazones?

A
  • bone fractures

- bladder ca

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3
Q

what are the s/e of opioids?

A
  • resp depression
  • addiction
  • constipation
  • myosis
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4
Q

which s/e of opioids do not go away as you gain tolerance?

A

constipation and myosis

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5
Q

what is succinyl choline used for?

A

pre-op to induce paralysis

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6
Q

what is the reversal agent for succinyl choline OD/adverse event?

A
  • neostigmine

- edrophonium

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7
Q

what pts should not be given succinyl choline?

A
  • pts w/ h/o rhabdo
  • pts w/ h/o muscle disorders
  • pts w/ famHx of malig hyperthermia
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8
Q

what drugs can be used to tx parkinsons dz?

A
  • capones
  • amantadine
  • levodopa
  • carbidopa
  • MAOi (silegiline)
  • anticholinergics
  • benztropine
  • trihexophenadol
  • pramipexol
  • ropinerol
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9
Q

which parkinson’s drugs are used to tx restless leg synd?

A
  • pramipexol

- ropinerol

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10
Q

what are the s/e of amantadine?

A
  • ataxia

- livedo reticularis

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11
Q

what are the uses of triptans?

A
  • migraines

- cluster HA

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12
Q

what comorbid conditions are C/I for triptan use?

A
  • CAD

- prinzmetal angina

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13
Q

what are the tx for absence seizures?

A
  1. ethosuximide
  2. valproate
  3. lamotrigine
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14
Q

how do you tx generalized tonic clonic seizures?

A
  1. valproic acid

2. phenytoin or cabamazepine

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15
Q

what are the s/e of phenytoin?

A
  • drug induced lupus
  • gingeval hyperplasia
  • teratogen
  • increase cyp450 activity
  • agranulocytosis
  • low BP
  • nystagmus
  • ataxia
  • peripheral neuropathies
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16
Q

what is the tx for trigeminal neuralgia?

A

carbamazepine

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17
Q

what is the s/e of lamotrigine?

A

skin rashes/lesions including stephen johnson syndrome

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18
Q

what are the atypical antipychotics?

A
  • risperidone
  • quetiapine
  • clozapine
  • olanzapine
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19
Q

what are the s/e of lithium

A 
LMNOP
         Li
         Movement (tremor)
         Nephrogenic DI
   hypOthyroid
          Pregnancy (ebstein's anomaly)
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20
Q

what are the SSRIs?

A
  • sertraline
  • fluoxetine
  • paroxetine
  • citalopram / escitalopram
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21
Q

what are the s/e of the SSRIs?

A
  • serotonin synd
  • SIADH
  • sexual dysf(x)
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22
Q

how to tx serotonin syndrome?

A
  • cyproheptadine

- dantrolene

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23
Q

what are the SNRIs?

A

venlafaxine
duloxetine
desvenlafaxine

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24
Q

what are the uses of bupropion?

A
  • depression
  • anxiety
  • smoking cessation
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25
Q

what are the s/e of bupropion?

A
  • decr seizure threshold

* *no affects on sex drive or weight

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26
Q

mirtazepine uses = ?

A

depression

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27
Q

mirtazepine s/e = ?

A
  • weight gain
  • sedation
  • incr appetite
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28
Q

what are the uses of trazodone?

A
  • insomnia

- depression

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29
Q

what are the s/e of trazodone?

A
  • priapism
  • low BP
  • sedation
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30
Q

what are the uses of duloxetine?

A
  • depression

- diabetic neuropathy

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31
Q

what are the uses of venlafaxine?

A
  • depression
  • GAD
  • panic disorder
32
Q

what is chantix used for?

A

smoking cessation

33
Q

what is another name for chantix?

A

varenicline

34
Q

what meds are used to abort panic attacks?

A

benzos

35
Q

what are the s/e of benzos?

A
  • decr resp drive
  • sedation
  • muscle relaxation
  • addiction/tolerance/withdrawal
  • agitation (elderly)
36
Q

what drugs are used to tx bipolar disorder?

A 
mania = 1. lithium 2. valproate 3. lamotrigine
depression = 1. quetiapine 2. larasidone
37
Q

what are the 1st line tx for OCD?

A
  1. CBT
  2. SSRI
  3. clomipramine (=TCA)
38
Q

what is the s/e of bosentan?

A

hepatotoxicity

39
Q

what is the use of methacholine?

A

methacholine challenge (asthma dx)

40
Q

what are the s/e of rifampin?

A
  • orange/red secretions
  • hepatotoxic
  • incr cyp450 activity
41
Q

what are the s/e of ethambutol?

A

red/green color blindness

42
Q

what are the s/e of pyrazinamide?

A
  • drug induced lupus
  • drug induced hepatitis
  • gout
43
Q

what is methylene blue used to treat?

A

methemoglobinemia

44
Q

what are the clinical uses of procainamide?

A
  • atrial and ventricular arrhythmias

- WPW synd

45
Q

what are the tx for prinzmetal angina?

A
  • nitrates

- __dipines (CCB)

46
Q

what meds cause HYPERkalemia?

A
  • ACEi
  • ARBs
  • K+ sparing diuretics (eplerenone, spironolactone, amiloride, triamterine)
  • digoxin
  • succinyl choline
  • NSAIDS
  • nonselective BB
47
Q

how do NSAIDS cause hyperkalemia?

A

decr prostaglandin –> decr RAAS –> decr K secretion

48
Q

how do nonselective BB cause hyperkalemia?

A

decr B2 activity –> incr K uptake

49
Q

what are the uses of azothioprine?

A
  • prevent organ rejection
  • RA
  • SLE
50
Q

what are the s/e of azothioprine?

A
  • myelosuppression
  • hepatotoxicity
  • GI upset
  • leukopenia
51
Q

15yo pregnant girl presents w/ preeclampsia. do you need parental consent to tx?

A

no

52
Q

pt is referred by his/her physician to get an MRI done at that physician’s privately owned imaging center. what is this?

A

conflict of interest

53
Q

when do you override confidentiality?

A
  • contagious dz (esp STD)
  • threat to self/others
  • abuse
54
Q

what are some of the reportable illnesses?

A

HIV, chlamydia, gonorrhea, syphilis, measles

55
Q

what is the MC inherited bleeding disorder?

A

von Willebrand dz

56
Q

what are the diagnostic tests for hereditary spherocytosis?

A
  • flow cytometry (eosin-5-maleimide)

- osmotic fragility test (acidified glycerol lysis test)

57
Q

pt presents w/ low plt + decr kidney f(x) + F + neuro s/s. dx = ?

A

TTP

58
Q

pt presents w/ low plt + decr kidney f(x) but NO fever or neuro s/s. dx = ?

A

HUS

59
Q

what 2 drugs are often used to treat HIT?

A
  1. lepirudine
  2. argatroban
    * *also need to stop unfractionated heparin
60
Q

in addition to lepirudine and argatroban, what other drugs can be used to tx HIT?

A
  • rivaroxaban
  • apixaban
  • fondiparineux
61
Q

bias introduced when screening detects a dz earlier and thus lengthens the time from dx to death but does not improve survival?

A

lead-time bias

62
Q

if you want to know if geographic location affects infant mortality rates but most locations in infant mortality is predicted by socioeconomic status, then the socioeconomic status is what?

A

confounding factor

63
Q

proportion of ppl who have the dz and test positive = what?

A

sensitivity

64
Q

sensitivity tests have few false neg and are used to ___

A

r/o a dz

65
Q

does a chronic dz like lupus have higher prevalence or incidence?

A

high prevalence

66
Q

do epidemics like influenza have higher incidence or prevalence?

A

high incidence

67
Q

do cross-sectional studies look at incidence or prevalence?

A

prevalence

68
Q

do cohort studies look at incidence or prevalence?

A

both

69
Q

describe a test that consistently gives identical results that are wrong?

A

precise

70
Q

what is the difference btwn a cohort and a case-control study?

A 
cohort = looks at exposure (i.e. RF) and determines outcomes (dz incidence)
case-control = looks at outcomes (dz incidence) then goes back to find RF
71
Q

what is the diff between risk in exposed vs risk in unexposed groups?

A

attributed risk

72
Q

what is observer bias?

A
  • observer misclassifies data due to individual differences in interpretation or preconceived expectations
  • investigator’s decision is affected by knowing the exposure/disease status of a subject
73
Q

what is observational bias?

A

= inaccurate measurement or classification of dz, exposure or other variable

74
Q

what are some types of observational bias?

A
  • recall bias
  • observer bias
  • reporting bias
  • surveillance/detection bias
75
Q

what is recall bias?

A
  • a type of observational bias

- subjects w/ neg outcomes = more likely to report some exposures than control subj

76
Q

what is reporting bias?

A
  • a type of observational bias

- subjects over/under report exposure due to perceived social stigma

77
Q

what is surveillance/detection bias?

A
  • a type of observational bias

- RF itself requires incr monitoring in exposed group compared to control, automatically incr chance of finding dz

COMLEX Level 2CE (23 decks)

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