Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

COMLEX Level 2CE > SBSI drills W3 (F) > Flashcards

SBSI drills W3 (F) Flashcards

Cardio, renal, & heme-onc Deck is full

1
Q

What are the uses of nimodipine?

A
  • HTN?
  • prinzmetal angina?
  • reynaud’s phenom?
  • SAH (ppx vasospasm)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the uses of verapamil and diltiazem (i.e. non-d-hydropyridines)?

A
  • HTN
  • afib/aflutter
  • angina
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are the s/e of CCB? (hint: think vasodilation)

A
  • flushing
  • edema
  • constipation
  • AV node block
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

hypoprolactinemia is a potential s/e of which CCB?

A

verapamil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

gingival hyperplasia is a potential s/e of which CCB?

A

verapamil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are the uses of hydralazine?

A
  • severe hypertension
  • HTN in pregnancy
  • HTN in HF
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

nicardipine use?

A

HTN urgency/emergency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are the uses of the dihydripyridines (except nimodipine)?

A
  • HTN
  • angina (including prinzmetal)
  • reynaud’s phenom
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what HTN meds are safe in pregnancy?

A 
Hypertensive Moms Love Nifedipine
   Hydralazine
   Methyldopa
   Labetolol
   Nifedipine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

hydralazine s/e = ?

A
  • reflex tachy
  • SLE-like synd
  • fluid retention
  • HA
  • angina
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

how do you prevent the reflex tachy caused by hydralazine?

A

coadminister w/ BB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

when do you use nitroprusside and fenoldepam?

A

HTN emergency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the s/e of nitroprusside?

A

CN poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how do you tx CN poisoning?

A
  • Na thiosulfate
  • Na nitrate (–>oxidizes hemoglobin to methemoglobin)
  • mech ventilation w/ 100% O2
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what meds can you use to tx HTN emergency?

A
  • CCB = clevidipine, nicardipine
  • BB = labetolol
  • nitroprusside
  • fenoldopam
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are the s/e of statins?

A

incr LFTs

-myalgias –>rhabdo (esp if coadmin w/ fibrates and/or niacin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

co-administration of statins w/ what two other classes of cholesterol meds increases risk for rhabdo?

A
  • fibrates

- niacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what are the s/e of niacin?

A
  • flushing
  • hyperuricemia
  • hyperglycemia
  • itching
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

how do you tx the flushing caused by niacin use?

A

ASA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

fibrates decr ___ more than any other type of cholesterol med?

A

TG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are the s/e of fibrates?

A
  • cholesterol gallstones
  • incr LFTs
  • rhabdomyolysis (when used w/ statins)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the clinical use of digoxin?

A
  • HF

- afib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what are the s/e of digoxin?

A
  • blurry yellow vision
  • incr K
  • arrhythmias
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

how do you tx digoxin OD?

A
  • digibind
  • Mg
  • slowly normalize K
  • cardiac pacer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what are the clinical uses for adenosine?

A
  • NARROW complex arrythmias (afib, aflutter, SVT)

- pharm stess test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what drugs can be used to conduct chemical stress tests?

A
  • dobutamine
  • dipyridamol
  • adenosine
  • rigadenasone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what are the s/e of dipyridamol?

A

cardiac steal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

adenosine s/e = ?

A
  • flushing
  • low BP
  • chest pain
  • impending doom
  • bronchospasm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what are the uses of Mg?

A
  • torsades de point
  • digoxin toxicity
  • eclampsia (seizures)
  • hypocalcemia 2/2 low Mg
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what are the s/e of BB?

A
  • cardiovasc = decr HR, decr BP, AV block, HF
  • CNS = sedation, sleep alterations
  • masked hypoglycemia
  • impotence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what are some C/I to BB use?

A
  • asthma
  • COPD
  • cocaine users
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

how do you tx BB toxicity?

A
  • glucagon
  • saline
  • atropine (for bradycardia)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what are the clinical uses of amiodarone?

A

WIDE complex tachycardias = vfib, vtach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what are the s/e of amiodarone?

A
  • hypo/hyperthyroidism
  • hepatotoxic
  • pulm fibrosis
  • blue/grey skin
  • corneal deposits
  • constipation
  • cardiac = brady, heart block, HF
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

sotalol and ibutilide s/e = ?

A

torsades de pointes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

quinidine s/e = ?

A

cinchonism (HA + tinnitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

procainamide s/e = ?

A

-drug induced SLE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what meds decr mortality in systolic HF?

A
  • ACEi
  • ARB
  • hydralazine
  • nitrates
  • BB = only metoprolol, bisprolol, and carvedilol
  • K sparing diuretics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what meds decr mortality in MI?

A
  • ASA
  • BB
  • ACEi
  • ARB
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

which 2 statins are high intensity?

A
  • risuvistatin

- atorvistatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

which statin is mod intensity?

A

simvistatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

which cholesterol med will incr HDL the most?

A

niacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

BB are which class of antiarrhythmics?

A

class 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what additional s/e can metoprolol cause?

A

dyslipidemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

why don’t you give propranolol to pts w/ prinzmetal angina?

A

can make worse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

which 2 BB will not cause unopposed a1-agonism if given alone for pheochromocytoma or cocaine toxicity?

A

nonselective BB = carvedilol and labetolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what are the class 3 antiarrhythmics?

A 
K channel blockers = AIDS
   Amiodarone 
   Ibutilide
   Dofetilide
   Sotalol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what derm condition is described as a stuck on waxy appearance?

A

seborrheic keratosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what derm condition is described as having red plaques with silver scales?

A

psoriasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what derm condition presents w/ pearly papules with telangectasias?

A

BCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what derm condition presents w/ honey crusted lesions?

A

impetigo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what derm condition presents w/ flaccid bullae and (+) nikolski sign?

A

pemphigus vulgaris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

55 yo obese pt presents with velvety patches on back of neck and bilat axilla. what are these patches called?

A

acanthosis nigricans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what is acanthosis nigricans assoc w/ and what should you check when you see it?

A

insulin resistance. check BG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what derm condition presents w/ purple, plateaud (flat topped), pruritic papules?

A

lichen planus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what derm condition presents w/ epithelial inflammation in the anogenital region in post-menopausal pts especially?

A

lichen sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what derm condition presents w/ red, pruritic lesions in a geometric pattern after contact with an irritant?

A

contact dermatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what derm condition presents initially w/ a large lesion on the chest or back followed by development of smaller lesions in a christmas tree pattern (along skin folds)?

A

pitoryasis rosea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what derm condition presents w/ hypopigmented, flat (macular) lesions on the chest and back?

A

tinea versicolor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what premalignant derm condition can progress to SCC?

A

actinic keratosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what is another name for cradle cap?

A

seborrheic dermatitis?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what derm condition presents as exophitic nodules on the skin that scale and ulcerate?

A

SCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what is the most common skin cancer?

A

BCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what is the 2nd most common skin cancer?

A

SCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

pt presents w/ tachycardia, severely high BP that is refractory to tx and diaphoresis. what do you suspect?

A

pheochromocytoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what do you give prior to sx resection of pheochromocytoma?

A
  1. alpha blocker

2. beta blocker

67
Q

pt presents w/ h/o lithium use, large vol dilute urine. what is the dx?

A

nephrogenic DI 2/2 lithium toxicity

68
Q

what is the tx for central diabetes insipidus?

A

desmopressin

69
Q

pt presents w/ lactic acidosis and h/o DM2. what is the likely cause of the lactic acidosis?

A

metformin (renal insufficiency)

70
Q

pt presents w/ bone pain, hearing loss, incr alk phos. dx= ?

A

paget’s dz

71
Q

pt presents w/ weakness, n/v, wt loss, skin pigmentation, incr K and decr Na. what is the likely dx?

A

addison’s dz

72
Q

what is addison’s dz?

A

1* adrenal insufficiency. i.e. adrenal glands don’t respond to ACTH. labs: incr ACTH/decr cortisol/decr aldosterone

73
Q

why is skin pigmentation seen in addison’s dz?

A

incr ACTH –> incr melanin

74
Q

what does incr s 17-hydroxyprogesterone indicate?

A

CAH - 21 hydroxylase deficiency

75
Q

clozapine s/e

A
  • agranulocytosis

- weight gain

76
Q

what antipsychotic other than clozapine causes weight gain?

A

Olanzapine (O=fat belly)

77
Q

what are the side effects of ziprasidone?

A

QT prolongation

78
Q

what are the uses of lithium?

A
  • bipolar

- SIADH

79
Q

acute dystonia tx=?

A
  • benztropine

- diphenhydramine

80
Q

akesthesia tx = ?

A
  • benztropine
  • propranolol
  • lorazepam
81
Q

bradykinesia tx = ?

A
  • benztropine

- amantadine

82
Q

Chlorpromazine s/e = ?

A

Corneal deposits

83
Q

thioRidezine s/e = ?

A

Retinal deposits (brown vision)

84
Q

what are the s/e lithium?

A 
LMNOP
       Li
       Movement (tremor)
       Nephrogenic DI
HypOthyriod
       Pregnancy (teratogenic, ebstein anomaly)
85
Q

TCA s/e

A

anticholinergic s/e
arrythmia (QT prolongation –> torsades)
hallucinations (elderly)
convulsions, siezures, coma

86
Q

what are anticholinergic s/e

A 
hot as a hare (dry skin)
dry as a bone (dry mucous membranes)
blind as a bat (mydriasis)
red as a beat (flushed skin)
mad as a hatter (AMS)
87
Q

how do you tx TCA OD?

A

NaHCO3-

88
Q

MAOi s/e = ?

A

HTN crisis

89
Q

how to tx MAOi OD?

A

phentolamine

90
Q

what drugs are used for bipolar?

A

-Li > valproate > carbemazepine = lamotragine

91
Q

which bipolar drug is safe in pregnancy?

A

lamotragine

92
Q

what drugs are used for pulm HTN?

A
  • boSENTAN
  • sildenafil
  • ilOPROST
  • ambriSENTAN
  • epOPROSTenol
93
Q

what are the uses of n-acetylcysteine?

A
  • tylenol OD

- CF (mucolytic)

94
Q

risperidone s/e?

A
  • lactation
  • amenorrhea
  • gynecomastia
  • impotence
95
Q

what are the uses of furosemide?

A
  • HTN
  • Edematous states (CHF, cirrhosis, nephropathy, pulm edema)
  • HyperCa
96
Q

furosemide s/e = ?

A
  • hypoK
  • dehydration
  • orthostatic HTN
  • gout
  • ototoxicity
  • sulfa-allergy
97
Q

what loop diuretic can you give instead if the pt has a sulfa-allergy?

A

ethacrynic acid

98
Q

what are the s/e of ethacryic acid?

A

hyperuricemia

99
Q

what are the uses of acetazolamide?

A

-glaucoma
-HTN
-ppx/tx altitude sickness
-met alkalosis
psuedotumor cerebri

100
Q

what is the side affect of acetazolamide?

A
  • met acidodsis

- incr Cl

101
Q

what is the clinical use of mannitol?

A

incr ICP

102
Q

what is the s/e of mannitol?

A
  • flash pulm edema
  • dehydration
  • low BP
103
Q

what are the uses of ACEi?

A
  • HTN
  • nephrotic synd
  • CHF
  • MI
  • protect kidneys in DM
104
Q

what are the s/e of ACEi?

A
  • incr K
  • cough
  • teratogenic (renal agenesis)
  • angioedema
  • decr Cr
  • decr GFR
105
Q

what conditions are C/I to ACEi use?

A
  • severe asthma

- C1 esterase def (angioedema)

106
Q

what are the uses of hydrochlorithiazides?

A
  • HTN
  • Edematous states (CHF, cirrhosis, nephropathy, pulm edema)
  • HyperCalciuria (high urinary Ca)
107
Q

what are the s/e of hydrochlorothiazides?

A

-hypoK metabolic alkalosis
-HYPER GLUC
incr blood Glucose
incr lipids
incr uricemia
incr Ca

108
Q

what are the K+ sparing diuretics?

A
  • spironolactone
  • eplerenone
  • amiloride
  • triamterine
109
Q

what are the s/e of K+ sparing diuretics?

A
  • incr K
  • arrhythmias
  • gynecomastia
  • amenorrhea
  • decr libido
110
Q

what is the tx for hyperkalemia?

A
  • Cagluconate (stabalize myocytes)
  • insulin + glucose (shift into cells)
  • kayexolate (poop it out)
  • HCO3-
  • Albuterol
111
Q

what happens if you correct hypoNa too quickly?

A

-cause osmotic demyelination synd (ODS)

112
Q

what are the MCCs of incr Ca?

A
  1. hyperparathyroidism
  2. Ca
    * *honorable mention = constipation, milk-alkali synd
113
Q

ASA OD leads to what metabolic derangement?

A

(early) resp alkalosis –> met acidosis (late)

114
Q

what acid base disturbance is seen in preg women?

A

resp alkalosis (as baby grows –>shallow, fast breathing b/c can’t expand lungs all the way)

115
Q

what has muddy brown casts?

A

ATN

116
Q

pt presents w/ drowsiness, asterixis, n, friction rub and h/o CKD. dx = ?

A

uremic pericarditis

117
Q

Which RTA has abn HCO3 absorption + rickets?

A

type 2

118
Q

which nephropathy presents w/ deafness?

A

Alport synd

119
Q

which nephropathies present w/ hemoptysis?

A
  • goodpasture’s synd

- wegners

120
Q

pt presents w/ palpable purpura + GI complaints. which nephropathy?

A

Henoch-Schonlein Purpura (HSP)

121
Q

fatty casts = ?

A

nephrotic synd

122
Q

what is the MCC nephrotic synd?

A

Focal Segmental Glomerular Sclerosis (FSGS)

123
Q

waxy casts = ?

A

chronic renal failure

124
Q

what brain abn is assoc w/ PCKD?

A

berry aneurysms

125
Q

smoker presents w/ painless hematuria. dx until proven otherwise?

A

bladder ca

126
Q

what cell type do you expect to be dysplastic in bladder ca?

A

transitional epithelium

127
Q

what are the s/e of methotrexate?

hint: think chemo man

A
  • myelosuppression
  • hepatotoxic (–> fatty changes)
  • miscarriage
  • pulm fibrosis
  • folate def
  • aplastic anemia
  • oral ulcers
  • hair loss
128
Q

what is the tx for myelosuppression caused by MTX?

A

leucovorin

129
Q

what are the s/e of 5-FU?

hint: think chemo man

A

myelosuppression

130
Q

what is the tx for myelosuppression caused by 5-FU?

A

uridine / thymidine

131
Q

what are the s/e of 6-mercaptopurine?

hint: think chemo man

A
  • myelosuppression
  • abd pain
  • jaundice
132
Q

what is the use of cladribine?

A

hairy cell leukemia

133
Q

what is the clinical use of dactomycin (actinomycin-d)? (hint: think kids tumors)

A
  • Wilms tumor

- ewing sarcoma

134
Q

what are the s/e of doxyrubicin?

hint: think chemo man

A

dilated cardiomyopathy

135
Q

what do you need to do in pts on doxyrubicin to monitor for toxicity?

A

ECHO

136
Q

how do you tx the s/e of Doxyrubicin?

A

dexrazoxane (Fe chelator)

137
Q

what is the s/e of Bleomycin?

hint: think chemo man

A

pulm fibrosis

138
Q

what are the s/e of Busulfan?

hint: think chemo man

A
  • pulm fibrosis
  • myelosuppression
  • hyperpigmentation
139
Q

what is the s/e of cyclophosphamide?

hint: think chemo man

A

hemorrhagic cystitis

140
Q

how do you tx the hemorrhagic cystitis caused by cyclophosphamide?

A
  • MESNA

- stop drug

141
Q

what is the s/e of VinBlastin?

hint: think chemo man

A

myelosuppression (blasts the BM)

142
Q

what is the s/e of Vincristine?

hint: think chemo man

A
  • peripheral neuropathy

- paralytic ileus

143
Q

what are the clinical uses of hydroxyurea?

A
  • sickle cell dz
  • CML
  • melanoma
144
Q

what are the clinical uses of the ca drugs ending in -taxol?

A
  • ovarian ca

- breast ca

145
Q

what is the clinical use of tamoxifen?

A

breast ca

146
Q

what is the s/e of tamoxifen?

A
  • endometrial hyperplasia

- incr risk endometrial ca

147
Q

what other SERM is used to tx breast ca but is not associated w/ incr risk endometrial ca?

A

raloxifen

148
Q

what is the clinical use of traztuzimab?

A

Her2+ breast ca

149
Q

what is the s/e of traztuzimab?

A

cardiotoxicity

150
Q

what 2 drugs cause hemorrhagic cystitis?

A
  1. cyclophosphamide

2. iphosphamide

151
Q

what are the s/e of cisplatin?

hint: think chemo man

A
  • ototoxicity

- nephrotoxicity

152
Q

how can you prevent the renal toxicity associated w/ cisplatin?

A

coadminister w/ amifostine

153
Q

antidote to heparin toxicity?

A

protamine sulfate

154
Q

how do you tx warfarin OD?

A
  • emergent: Prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC)&raquo_space; FFP

- replace vit k

155
Q

which can you give to pregnant women heparin or warfarin?

A

heparin

keeps baby heppy

156
Q

what are the s/e of cyclosporine?

reminder: not on chemo man

A
  • neurotoxic
  • nephrotoxic
  • gingeval hyperplasia
157
Q

what drugs cause gingeval hyperplasia?

A
  • cyclosporine
  • verapamil
  • phenytoin
158
Q

(t 9:22) is associated w/ what condition?

A

CML (t 9:22) = BRC-ABL fusion protein

159
Q

(t 8:14) is associated w/ what condition?

A

Burkitt lymphoma

the 8 looks like a B. all NH-lymphomas have a 14

160
Q

(t 11:14) is associated w/ what condition?

A

Mantle cell lymphoma

overlay the numbers 11 and 14 and you can make an M. all NH-lymphomas have a 14

161
Q

(t 14:18) is associated w/ what condition?

A

Follicular
(all NH-lymphomas have a 14. Follicular = Flower.
18 has an 8 which rhymes w/ Mate. Give flowers to your mate to prevent Brc2 up.)

162
Q

(t 15:17) is associated w/ what condition?

A

AML type M3 (which has the Auer rods)

163
Q

ecluzimab is used to tx what two conditions? (hint: think hemolytic anemia)

A
  1. PNH

2. atypical HUS

COMLEX Level 2CE (23 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions