Ryan's missed neuro

Question 1

The statement “I am sad because I cry” is most consistent with the
Select one:
A. James-Lange theory of emotion
B. Cannon-Bard theory of emotion
C. two-factor theory of emotion
D. Lazarus cognitive appraisal theory of emotion

Answer 1

Correct Answer is: A
The James-Lange theory states that emotions are the perceptions of bodily changes, either physiological changes such as increases in heart rate and muscle tension, or actual behavioral changes. In other words, the bodily/behavioral changes precede the emotion, rather than the other way around. The Cannon-Bard theory states that physiological changes are caused by emotions, the opposite of the James-Lange theory. Two-factor theory states that emotions are caused by interpretation of physical arousal; interpretation does not play the same role in the James-Lange theory. And Lazarus’ cognitive appraisal theory focuses on the role of cognitive appraisal in emotion; it divides the appraisal process into three stages: primary appraisal, secondary appraisal, and re-appraisal.

Question 2

A patient with Parkinson's Disease is experiencing tremors. What transmitter is probably involved?
Select one:
A. Acetylcholine
B. Glutamate
C. Zyprexa
D. Dopamine

Answer 2

Correct Answer is: D
A lack of norepinephrine at brain synapses is associated with depression, while excessive dopamine and norepinephrine are both associated with schizophrenia. Dopamine also plays a role in movement, and degeneration of neurons that secrete dopamine causes the muscular rigidity found in Parkinson’s disease.

Question 3

Which of the following statements best reflects the cross-cultural findings on emotions?
Select one:
A. Most researchers have only found fear, anger, and sadness to be universal emotions.
B. Most researchers agree on the existence of 12 basic emotions. Incorrect
C. Most researchers have disputed the existence of universal basic emotions.
D. Most researchers have agreed on the existence of at least 6 basic emotions, but have disagreed on the inclusion of several other emotions as basic.

Answer 3

Correct Answer is: D
Interest in the existence of innate universal (cross-cultural) emotions began with Darwin in 1872 who found that the facial expressions of certain emotions were the same across different cultures. Many researchers since Darwin have tried to identify which emotions are universal. Most have agreed on the existence of at least six basic emotions (happiness, surprise, fear, sadness, anger, and disgust). However, there has been much disagreement on whether other emotions such as interest, guilt, and shame are also universal and innate emotions

Question 4

Naltrexone (ReVia, Depade), an opiate antagonist, has been approved to treat alcohol abuse disorders by reducing the desire for alcohol after drinking has stopped and blocking the reinforcing effects or parts of the brain that “feel” pleasure when using alcohol. The most commonly experienced sides effects associated with naltrexone are:
Select one:
A. nausea, headache, insomnia, and anxiety.
B. abdominal cramping, night sweats, blurred vision, shortness of breath.
C. blurred vision, dizziness, excessive perspiration and gastrointestinal pain.
D. shortness of breath, increased dreaming, nausea, diarrhea.

Answer 4

Correct Answer is: A
Naltrexone, when used as an adjunct to psychosocial treatments for alcoholism, can provide an important period of sobriety, during which an individual learns to stay sober without it. Naltrexone therapy has been shown to improve treatment outcomes, reducing the percentage of days spent drinking (after stopping), the amount of alcohol consumed on a drinking occasion and relapse to excessive and destructive drinking. In other words, naltrexone is likely to reduce the urge or craving to drink and the risk of returning to heavy drinking. While individuals on naltrexone are less likely to relapse to heavy drinking following a lapse in abstinence, naltrexone does not make people “sober up”, does not alter alcohol’s acute effects on cognitive functioning and is approved as an adjunct to psychosocial treatment not a replacement. Unlike disulfiram (antabuse), naltrexone does not appear to alter the absorption or metabolism of alcohol and does not have major adverse effects when combined with alcohol although some have increased nausea caused by drinking alcohol while taking naltrexone. Common side effects noted at the initiation of treatment in approximately 10 percent of individuals include nausea, headache, dizziness, fatigue, nervousness, insomnia, vomiting, constipation and anxiety.

Question 5

A whisper being audible in a library reading room, but not in a busy cafeteria is explained by:
Select one:
A. the all-or-nothing principle
B. the "law of effect"
C. Weber's law
D. the "law of proximity"

Answer 5

Correct Answer is: C
Weber’s law is one of the psychophysical laws that explains the relationship between physical stimuli and their psychological effects. According to Weber’s, the “just noticeable difference” in the stimulus is proportional to the magnitude of the original stimulus, explaining why a whisper can be heard in a quiet room but not in a noisy one.

Question 6

Fetal alcohol spectrum disorders (FASDs) is a term used:
Select one:
A. for clinical diagnosis of prenatal alcohol exposure
B. to describe the differentiation of effects between fetal alcohol syndrome and fetal alcohol effects
C. to describe the range of effects from prenatal alcohol exposure for conditions that have some but not all of the clinical signs of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)
D. to describe the range of effects from prenatal alcohol exposure

Answer 6

Correct Answer is: D
Fetal alcohol spectrum disorders (FASDs) is an umbrella term describing the range of effects that can occur in an individual exposed to alcohol during pregnancy including physical, mental, behavioral effects, and/or learning disabilities.
FASDs include FAS as well as other conditions in which individuals have some, but not all, of the clinical signs of FAS. The term FAE has been used to describe behavioral and cognitive problems in children who were exposed to alcohol prenatally, but who do not have all of the diagnostic features of FAS. In 1996, the Institute of Medicine (IOM) replaced FAE with the terms alcohol-related neurodevelopmental disorder (ARND) and alcohol-related birth defects (ARBD). ARND describes the mental and behavioral impairments such as learning disabilities, poor school performance, poor impulse control, and problems with memory, attention and/or judgment. ARBD describes the malformations of the skeletal system and major organ systems such as defects of the heart, kidneys, bones, and/or auditory system.

The term FASDs is not intended for use as a clinical diagnosis.

Question 7

Anosognosia is most often due to damage to the:
Select one:
A. corpus callosum
B. left temporal lobe
C. right parietal lobe
D. occipital lobe

Answer 7

Correct Answer is: C
Anosognosia is an inability, or unwillingness, to recognize one’s own functional impairment. It most often occurs in people who have left-sided hemiplegia due to damage to the right parietal lobe. Many of these patients maintain normal intellectual functioning, despite the serious lack of self-awareness of their physical disability. The parietal lobe contains the somatosensory cortex which is normally responsible for integrating somatosensory information with visual and other sensory information.

Question 8

Clomipramine and fluoxetine alleviate the symptoms of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder by affecting levels of
Select one:
A. epinephrine.
B. norepinephrine.
C. dopamine.
D. serotonin.

Answer 8

Correct Answer is: D
If you’re unsure about the correct answer to a question about neurotransmitters, serotonin is usually a good guess since it’s involved in so many functions and activities. And, in fact, in OCD, the usefulness of the antidepressant drugs is believed to be due to their ability to increase serotonin activity.

Question 9

Peripheral vision is processed in the:
Select one:
A. frontal lobe
B. temporal lobe
C. anterior occipital lobe
D. posterior occipital lobe

Answer 9

Correct Answer is: C
anterior occipital lobe
posterior occipital lobe

You probably were able to narrow the choices down to these two options, knowing that vision is processed in the occipital lobe. However, you should also know that peripheral vision is processed in the anterior occipital lobe. Central vision is processed in the posterior occipital lobe.

Question 10

An advantage of clozapine (Clozaril) over conventional antipsychotic drugs is that it is
Select one:
A. significantly more effective for the negative symptoms of Schizophrenia.
B. less likely to produce anticholinergic effects.
C. less likely to cause agranulocytosis.
D. often effective for those who don’t respond to conventional drugs.

Answer 10

Feedback
Correct Answer is: D
The atypical antipsychotic clozapine affects different neurotransmitters than conventional antipsychotics and, to some degree, has different side effects. For example, although it doesn’t produce tardive dyskinesia, it does cause agranulocytosis, a potentially fatal blood disease. An important advantage of clozapine is that it’s often effective when conventional antipsychotic drugs aren’t.

Question 11

Your friend Bill has been involved in a motorcycle accident that resulted in a head injury. His neurologist has indicated that Bill is experiencing aphasia. As a knowledgeable psychologist, you would give Bill all the following news about his injury except:
Select one:
A. because his language loss is not severe, he has a better chance of recovery.
B. the greatest amount of recovery will occur in the next 3 months.
C. since he is right-handed he will probably exhibit milder aphasia.
D. he is lucky to be sixteen instead of sixty-six.

Answer 11

Correct Answer is: C
This is an extremely difficult question. That’s why you will review these tests several times.
since he is right-handed he will probably exhibit milder aphasia.

In regard to this answer, the opposite is true; Subirana (1969) found that left-handers generally exhibit milder aphasia, and recover more thoroughly and more quickly than right-handers. The course of recovery from aphasia due to head injury is related to several factors including age at time of injury-especially during the first three months (Kertesz, 1979).

Question 12

Starvation in Anorexia is believed to be precipitated by:
Select one:
A. high levels of serotonin
B. low levels of serotonin
C. low levels of tryptophan
D. low levels of serotonin and tryptophan

Answer 12

A

High levels of serotonin have been linked to both appetite suppression and anxiety while low levels have been linked to depression and appear to contribute to binge eating. Research by Kaye et al (1997) proposes that anxiety is caused by high levels of serotonin and individuals with Anorexia temporarily relieve anxiety through starvation which reduces tryptophan, which then reduces the level of serotonin. The lowered serotonin fosters a sense of calm and personal control. Inversely, low levels of serotonin are believed to precipitate binge eating in Bulimia as sweets and carbohydrates increase serotonin and elevate mood.

Question 13

The brain system that mediates the general adaptation syndrome identified by Selye is the
Select one:
A. hypothalamic-hippocampal-prefrontal axis.
B. hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis.
C. thalamic-hippocampal-limbic axis.
D. thalamic-limbic-prefrontal axis.

Answer 13

Correct Answer is: B
General adaptation syndrome is a model of stress put forth by Hans Selye in the 1930s. According to this model, exposure to stressful stimuli causes a predictable series of reactions, even if the stressor is positive. He divided these reactions into three phases: alarm, resistance, and exhaustion. In the alarm phase, the stress is identified and adrenaline is produced in order to trigger the fight-or-flight response. The resistance phase involves utilizing the body’s resources in an attempt to cope with the stress. And in the exhaustion phase, the body’s resources are depleted and the body cannot maintain its normal function. Autonomic nervous symptoms such as sweating and increased heart rate may reappear, and, if this phase is extended, long-term problems such as ulcers or depression could result. The hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis (HPA axis) refers to physiological interactions and feedback among the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and the adrenal gland. This axis regulates reactions to stress, including the general adaptation system. It is also involved in regulating other processes, including digestion, the immune system, emotions, and sexuality.

Question 14

• anxiety, insomnia, nausea, transient hallucinations
• dysphoria, fatigue, insomnia, vivid & unpleasant dreams
• dysphoria, nausea, muscle aches, diarrhea
• depression, ataxia, numbness, muscle rigidity

Answer 14

• Symptoms characteristic of benzodiazepine withdrawal include anxiety, insomnia, nausea, transient hallucinations
• Symptoms of cocaine Withdrawal include dysphoria, fatigue, insomnia, vivid & unpleasant dreams
• Opioid w/d include dysphoria, nausea, muscle aches, diarrhea
• PCP intox includes depression, ataxia, numbness, muscle rigidity

Question 15

The primary symptoms of normal pressure hydrocephalus are:
Select one:
A. headache followed by vomiting, downward deviation of the eyes and urinary incontinence
B. a rapid increase in the size of the head, headache followed by vomiting, gait disturbance
C. a rapid increase in the size of the head, downward deviation of the eyes, dementia
D. gait disturbance, urinary incontinence, dementia/mental disturbance

Answer 15

Correct Answer is: D
Hydrocephalus is a condition primarily characterized by excessive accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) within the ventricles inside the brain. As the CSF builds up, it causes the ventricles to enlarge or dilate causing the pressure inside the head to increase and potentially harmful pressure on the tissues of the brain. Hydrocephalus may be congenital or acquired. The specific causes of hydrocephalus are unknown. Congenital hydrocephalus is thought to be caused by a complex interaction of environmental factors and a possible genetic disposition or developmental problem. The most common developmental problems that may lead to hydrocephalus include: spina bifida, failure of the tissue surrounding the spinal cord to close properly; aqueductal stenosis, a narrowing of a channel in the brain that connects two ventricles; and encephalocele, herniation of the brain. Acquired hydrocephalus can affect individuals of all ages and may result from a disease or condition such as encephalitis, intraventricular hemorrhage, meningitis, head trauma, stroke, infection, complications of surgery, tumors and cysts.
Age, disease progression and how well a person can tolerate increased cerebrospinal fluid pressure all affect the symptoms of hydrocephalus. Common symptoms in infancy include an unusually large head, a rapid increase in the size of the head and a bulging “soft spot” on the top of the head. In older children and adults, symptoms may include headache followed by vomiting, nausea, papilledema or swelling of the optic disk, downward deviation of the eyes, problems with balance, poor coordination, gait disturbance, urinary incontinence, slowing or loss of development (in children), lethargy, drowsiness, irritability, or other changes in personality or cognition, including memory loss. A condition that mainly affects people over 60 years of age is normal pressure hydrocephalus. It is caused by defective absorption of CSF, in which the excess CSF enlarges the ventricles but does not increase pressure on the brain. It may result from injury, illness or infection although many people develop normal pressure hydrocephalus without an obvious cause. It typically starts with difficulty walking. Urinary incontinence often develops, along with a type of dementia marked by slowness of thinking and information processing.

Hydrocephalus is diagnosed through clinical neurological evaluation and by using cranial imaging techniques such as ultrasonography, computer tomography (CT), magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), or pressure-monitoring techniques. The most effective treatment is surgical insertion of a shunt although endoscopic third ventriculostomy (ETV) is growing in popularity as an alternative treatment method for hydrocephalus.

Question 16

Complex Partial Seizure Disorder, formerly known as Temporal Lobe Epilepsy, is known to originate in the temporal lobe. However, absence seizures, formerly known as petit mal seizures, are believed to originate in the:
Select one:
A. cerebelum
B. thalamus
C. occipital lobe
D. parietal lobe

Answer 16

Correct Answer is: B
Absence or Petit Mal Seizures are very brief (30 seconds or less) and are characterized by minimal motor activity and a lack of awareness. Absence seizures usually begin in childhood and most outgrow the condition by adulthood. Researchers believe that absence seizures originate in the thalamus (the central relay station for sensory information going to the cortex).

Question 17

Head trauma causing damage to the temporal lobes is most likely to produce deficits in
Select one:
A. procedural memory.
B. episodic memory.
C. semantic memory.
D. implicit memory.

Answer 17

Correct Answer is: B
Damage to the temporal lobe produces deficits in declarative memory with episodic memory being affected more than semantic memory. Procedural memory is left relatively undisturbed as is implicit memory.

Question 18

The brain part or system that manages the circadian rhythm is located in the
Select one:
A. caudate nucleus.
B. cerebellum.
C. reticular activating system.
D. hypothalamus.

Answer 18

Correct Answer is: D
You may have thought the answer was reticular activating system, which is involved in many functions related to sleep. However, the circadian rhythm, or the innate, 24-hour cycle of biological activity (i.e., the biological clock) is managed by the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN), a group of cells found within the hypothalamus. The SCN gets information about day length via a pathway between it and light receptors in the retina. The SCN interprets this information and passes it to the pineal gland, which secretes the hormone melatonin in response (nighttime increases melatonin secretion, while daylight inhibits it). Destruction of the SCN causes circadian rhythms to disappear entirely.

Question 19

Which form of Multiple Sclerosis is characterized by a slow steady onset, steadily worsening motor dysfunctions and increased disability, as well as a lack of distinct inflammatory attacks?
Select one:
A. relapsing-remitting phase
B. primary progressive
C. secondary progressive
D. benign

Answer 19

Correct Answer is: B
Multiple Sclerosis (MS) is a chronic, progressive, neurological disease characterized by myelin loss in the brain and spinal cord, causing neurological symptoms. The most common characteristics of MS include fatigue, weakness, spasticity, balance problems, bladder and bowel problems, numbness, burning sensation, vision loss, tremor and memory problems. Not all symptoms affect all MS patients and symptoms and signs may be persistent or may cease from time to time. Because the signs and symptoms that define the clinical picture of MS are the result of nerve lesions causing disturbances in electrical conduction in one or more areas of the central nervous system, the nature of the symptoms that occur is determined by the location of the lesion. It often begins in young to mid-adulthood, is more common in females, and is more prevalent in cooler climates. Estimates indicate approximately a quarter of all affected individuals have mild disease, half have moderate disease, and a quarter have severe disease, with rapid progression.
Benign Multiple Sclerosis tends to present with non-visible sensory symptoms at onset and has a complete recovery without disability. After 10-15 years with only one or two attacks and complete recovery without any disability, this form of MS does not worsen over time. For these individuals there is no permanent disability or disease progression. However, some in this category will experience disease progression; the course of disease changing and evolving within 10-15 years into the progressive stages of MS.

Relapsing remitting MS (RRMS) is the most common beginning phase of MS. In this stage, there are sporadic exacerbations or relapses in which symptoms become more severe and/or new ones appear. Symptoms can appear for days to months, after which they usually resolve or remit spontaneously. MS may be clinically inactive between intermittent attacks and varying periods of time. The disease process is ongoing and damage continues, with or without clinical attacks, with 50% of individuals’ disease progressing to the Secondary progressive stage (SPMS) within 10 - 15 years, and an additional 40% within 25 years of onset. During the secondary progressive stage, preexisting neurologic deficits and symptoms gradually worsen while inflammatory relapses become less and less frequent until eventually there are no more relapses or remissions. Primary progressive (PPMS) is the clinical course of MS characterized from the beginning by progressive disability, with no plateaus or remissions or an occasional plateau and very short-lived, minor improvements.

Another type of MS is Progressive-Relapsing (PRMS), which also indicates disease progression or increased disability from onset, but has clear, acute relapses, with or without full recovery after each. It is a rare form and associated with a high mortality rate.

Question 20

Memory

Answer 20

Implicit vs. Explicit Memory: While the procedural/declarative distinction focuses on the type of information, the implicit/explicit distinction classifies memories in terms of consciousness of recollection. Implicit memories are recalled automatically and without conscious awareness, while explicit memories require deliberate and conscious effort to be recalled. Some investigators equate implicit memory with procedural memory and explicit memory with declarative memory, but this is not entirely accurate since actions controlled by procedural memory are sometimes activated by a conscious intention and declarative memories are sometimes accessed automatically – for example, an odor, song, or other cue can automatically elicit an episodic memory

Question 21

The Dopamine Hypothesis was based on research findings indicating that:
Select one:
A. psychomotor stimulants activate dopamine receptors
B. brain dopamine is involved in neuroleptic-induced extrapyramidal motor disturbances
C. dopamine levels are lower in patients with Schizophrenia
D. both a and b

Answer 21

Correct Answer is: D
The Dopamine Hypothesis was originally based on two important findings: that antipsychotic medications, which can cause motor disturbances, affect dopamine in the brain; and that stimulants activate dopamine receptors. This latter finding is often neglected. However, knowing that stimulants stimulate dopamine helps explain why individuals intoxicated with cocaine or amphetamine often develop psychotic-like symptoms.

Question 22

If shown a word, a patient who has suffered brain damage only reads the right half of the word; she fails to eat the food on the left side of their plate and if asked to copy a picture, she only copies the right half. This patient seems to be suffering from:
Select one:
A. parietal syndrome.
B. right hemiblindness.
C. unilateral neglect syndrome.
D. hemispherectomy.

Answer 22

Correct Answer is: C
Unilateral neglect syndrome is a disorder in which patients seem unable to detect or respond to stimuli in regions of space contralateral to the damaged cerebral hemisphere. Some people may deny ownership of their contalateral limb and also neglect parts of their own body in the early stages. Neglect can be in the visual, auditory, tactile, and olfactory modalities, although the most commonly involve visuo-spatial neglect. Left neglect occurs following damage to the right hemisphere of the brain, in particular the right parietal lobe and, as in this question, it is associated with a failure to orient or respond to stimuli on the left side. Left neglect after right hemisphere damage is more frequent, severe, and long-lasting than right neglect after left hemisphere damage. Left neglect is also a significant negative prognostic factor after brain damage and is associated with poor performance on several recovery measures.
Hemispherectomy involves cutting the connections one cerebral hemisphere from the rest of the brain to control seizures in the hemisphere. Hemispherectomy, or functional hemispherectomy, is considered only for individuals, usually children, who have severe epilepsy with seizures arising from only one side of the brain and is performed only if that hemisphere is already functioning very poorly due to prior injury and continued seizure activity. As a result of the procedure, over 75% of patients experience complete or nearly complete seizure control.

Question 23

Which is the most common anticholinergic side-effect?
Select one:
A. Light tremor
B. Blurred vision
C. Diarrhea
D. Weight loss

Answer 23

Correct Answer is: B
Anticholinergic effects may be either central or peripheral. Central side effects are cerebral and include impaired concentration, confusion, attention deficit, and memory impairment. Peripheral side effects include dry mouth, constipation, urinary retention, bowel obstruction, dilated pupils, blurred vision, increased heart rate, and decreased sweating.
Light tremor and diarrhea are not associated side-effects, and while dry mouth may affect appetite and result in weight loss, it is not considered an anticholinergic side-effect either.

Question 24

Mental imaging or visualization, in the absence of external visual stimulation, is believed to be most associated with the:
Select one:
A. basal ganglia
B. frontal lobe
C. hippocampus
D. parietal lobe

Answer 24

Correct Answer is: C
The medial temporal lobe (limbic system) contains the hippocampus, amygdala, and other structures which have recently been associated with the ability to generate mental images

Question 25

Chronic pain that is due to a nervous system injury or dysfunction is referred to as neuropathic pain. Which of the following would be most useful for reducing this type of pain?
Select one:
A. tacrine hydrochloride
B. fluoxetine
C. amitriptyline
D. clozapine

Answer 25

Correct Answer is: C
Analgesics, including certain antidepressants, anticonvulsants, opioids, and local anesthetics are the first-line treatments for neuropathic pain. Antidepressants such as tricyclics may follow the failure of conventional analgesics or be used in addition to conventional analgesics. Tricyclic antidepressants, such as amitriptyline (Elavil), have been found to be most effective particularly if the pain is neuropathic (pain in a numb area, burning or shooting pain) or one of the headache syndromes.
SSRI antidepressants, such as fluoxetine, have been found to be effective at preventing headaches, including migraines, but are considered less effective than tricyclics and since they don’t have analgesic properties are not useful for alleviating neuropathic pain. Neuroleptics, like clozapine, are also not useful for reducing neuropathic pain and tacrine hydrochloride, is a cognitive-enhancer used to reduce cognitive deficits associated with Alzheimer’s dementia ( incorrect options).

Question 26

Of the following, which would be most useful for reducing neuropathic pain?
Select one:
A. amitriptyline
B. atomoxetine
C. olanzapine
D. fluoxetine

Answer 26

Correct Answer is: A
Neuropathic pain is chronic pain that is due to a nervous system injury or dysfunction. Analgesics, including certain antidepressants, anticonvulsants, opioids, and local anesthetics are the first-line treatments for neuropathic pain. Antidepressants such as tricyclics may follow the failure of conventional analgesics or be used in addition to conventional analgesics. Tricyclic antidepressants, such as amitriptyline (Elavil), have been found to be most effective particularly if the pain is neuropathic (pain in a numb area, burning or shooting pain) or one of the headache syndromes.
SSRI antidepressants, such as fluoxetine, have been found to be effective at preventing headaches, including migraines, but are considered less effective than tricyclics and since they don’t have analgesic properties are not useful for alleviating neuropathic pain. Atomoxetine, a SNRI often used as a non-stimulant treatment for ADHD and neuroleptics, like olanzapine, are also not useful for reducing neuropathic pain ( incorrect options).

Question 27

The thermal biofeedback technique of hand warming is used to treat migraine headaches. The therapeutic effects of this technique would be primarily mediated by the:
Select one:
A. somatic nervous system.
B. sympathetic nervous system.
C. parasympathetic nervous system.
D. spinal cord.

Answer 27

Correct Answer is: B
You might have known that biofeedback seeks to engender control over so-called involuntary processes, which are mediated by the autonomic nervous system. If so, you may have found it frustrating that autonomic nervous system wasn’t a choice here. However, if you knew that the autonomic nervous system consists of the sympathetic and parasympathetic branches, you may have been able to narrow it down to these two choices. On questions such as this one, if you are able to narrow it down in this manner, you are doing pretty well for yourself.
Anyway, the goal of biofeedback in the treatment of migraine headaches is to reduce pressure on the muscles in the forehead by reducing blood flow to the extracranial arteries. Since blood flow is regulated by body temperature, it is thought that warming the hands, coupled with feedback about finger temperature, can increase blood flow to the fingers, thereby reducing blood flow to the extracranial arteries. The sympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system controls the smooth muscles of the blood vessels; thus, it is the target of thermal hand warming biofeedback.
Although biofeedback is used to increase blood flow in the sympathetic nervous system, biofeedback can also be used to affect the parasympathetic nervous system for other physiological processes; for example, biofeedback would be used to induce relaxation by influencing the parasympathetic nervous system.

Question 28

The physiological cause of Wernicke’s encephalopathy due to alcoholism is
Select one:
A. damage to the endocrine system.
B. neural damage in the brain due to the toxic effects of alcohol.
C. a thiamine deficiency.
D. demyelination.

Answer 28

Correct Answer is: C
Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a syndrome characterized by ataxia, confusion, and impairment and short-term memory loss. It is characterized by lesions in brain areas such as the thalamus and results from inadequate intake or absorption of thiamine (Vitamin B1). Often, the deficiency is associated with prolonged alcohol consumption, but it could be due to other factors such as malnutrition. Untreated, Wernicke’s encephalopathy may progress to Korsakoff’s psychosis (a behavioral syndrome characterized by symptoms such as anterograde and retrograde amnesia, confabulation, lack of insight, and apathy), coma, and death.

Question 29

According to current research, an effective treatment for panic attacks is
Select one:
A. antimanic drugs.
B. anticonvulsant drugs.
C. antipsychotic drugs.
D. antidepressant drugs.

Answer 29

Feedback
Correct Answer is: D
Antidepressants have been shown to be effective in treating panic attacks.

Question 30

The prodromal symptoms of a tyramine-induced hypertensive crisis include:
Select one:
A. irritability, confusion, dizziness, and cardiac arrhythmia.
B. headache, stiff neck, nausea, vomiting, and sweating.
C. orthostatic hypotension, insomnia, and edema.
D. paresthesias, myoclonus, and muscle pain

Answer 30

Correct Answer is: B
When a person taking an MAOI consumes food containing tyramine, a life-threatening tyramine-induced hypertensive crisis may occur. The prodromal symptoms of a tyramine-induced hypertensive crisis include headache, stiff neck, nausea, vomiting, and sweating.
Common side effects of the MAOIs include orthostatic hypotension, insomnia, and edema* as well as paresthesias, myoclonus, and muscle pain. Irritability, confusion, dizziness, and cardiac arrhythmia are symptoms of serotonin syndrome, which may occur when an MAOI and an SSRI are taken together (* incorrect options).