I/O - test q's Flashcards
The best way to increase the intra-rater reliability of a test that is subjectively scored would be to
Select one:
A. train raters to pay very close attention to the scoring of the test.
B. have a second set of raters rescore the test.
C. use mutually exclusive and exhaustive rating categories.
D. ensure that the rating instrument is correlated with multiple criterion measures.
Correct Answer is: A
Note that this question is asking about intra-rater reliability, not inter-rater reliability. The prefix “intra” means the same thing it means in other contexts (e.g., intra-psychic): inside or internal. Thus, the question is asking you how to increase the internal consistency of a rating instrument. Of the choices listed, the only one which makes sense is to train the raters to pay more attention to what they are doing. If they pay closer attention, they are less likely to score the test inconsistently.
Incidentally, mutually exclusive and exhaustive rating categories are useful for increasing the inter-rater reliability of a test.
Factor analysis has shown that job commitment has three forms. Of these, job satisfaction is least correlated with: Select one: A. affective commitment. B. continuance commitment. C. normative commitment. D. instrumental commitment
Correct Answer is: B
Knowing what the three forms of job commitment are would have helped you answer this question: Affective commitment refers to the employee’s psychological attitudes toward the organization; normative commitment is the employee’s perceived obligation to stay with the company; and continuance commitment refers to the costs of leaving the company. Given these definitions, it makes sense that continuance commitment would be least related to job satisfaction and other job-related attitudes and more to practical considerations.
Research indicates the validity of structured interviews as predictors of performance:
Select one:
A. are the most valid across different jobs.
B. is increased when the interview includes both structured and unstructured items.
C. are no more valid than unstructured interviews when used alone.
D. is increased when the interview is used in combination with a measure of general mental ability.
Correct Answer is: D
Summarizing the predictive validity of interviews and other selection techniques in a meta-analysis of the research, Schmidt and Hunter (1998) report measures of general mental ability are the most valid predictors across different jobs. For structured and unstructured interviews, they note corrected validity coefficients of .51 and .38, respectively. When an interview is combined with another selection procedure, especially a general mental ability test, the predictive validity of interviews is increased.
We create expectations about future events as we are constantly predicting likely futures. This statement is associated with Expectancy Theory. Which of the following is not?
Select one:
A. The belief that if I complete certain actions then I will achieve the outcome.
B. The belief that I am able to complete the necessary actions.
C. The need to explain the world, to myself and others, ascribing cause to the events around me.
D. The value of the perceived outcome or “What’s in it for me?”
Correct Answer is: C
Expectancy theory is based on the premise that motivation is a cognitive process involving a combination of three variables: valence, instrumentality and expectancy. The theory is also referred to as Valence-Instrumentality-Expectancy Theory or VIE Theory.
The belief that if I complete certain actions then I will achieve the outcome: Expectancy refers to the belief that effort will lead to successful performance.
The belief that I am able to complete the necessary actions: Instrumentality refers to the beliefs that successful performance will result in certain outcomes.
The value of the perceived outcome or “What’s in it for me?” The value placed on the outcomes of performance is referred to as valence. The need to attribute cause describes Attribution Theory.
In a job selection decision, age can be used as an exclusionary criterion
Select one:
A. never.
B. if there is a ruling from the appropriate federal agency allowing it.
C. if there is a significant difference in mean ages of incumbents and applicants.
D. if age is directly related to job performance.
Feedback
Correct Answer is: D
Any limiting criterion is acceptable in a job selection procedure as long as the criterion is shown to be job-related. For instance, you could exclude people with very poor eyesight as air traffic controllers, you could exclude people with very little stamina and strength as firefighters, and so forth. Thus, if an employer can empirically demonstrate that being a certain age is a bona-fide occupational requirement, it could be used as a job criterion. Let’s say you were hiring painters to work on the Golden Gate Bridge. You might very well find that people over age 60 couldn’t do the job safely and well. If you could prove this finding empirically, you could use age as a criterion. Note, however, that if an employer is challenged on the use of a discriminatory exclusionary criterion, the employer bears the legal burden of demonstrating that it is job relevant.
"Business necessity" and "job relatedness" are related to: Select one: A. personnel training B. adverse impact C. comparable worth D. truth in testing
Correct Answer is: B
According to the Americans with Disabilities Act and the Federal Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures, business necessity and job relatedness are conditions that may permit the use of a selection or other employment procedure that results in an adverse impact. If an employer can demonstrate that it is job related and a business necessity, despite having adverse impact, the employer may be able to continue using the procedure.
The three dimensions of situational control identified by Fiedler include all of the following except: Select one: A. leader-employee relations B. position or legitimate power C. role expectations D. task structure
Correct Answer is: C
Fiedler’s Contingency Model states leaders have a dominant leadership style that is resistant to change and distinguishes between two types of leaders - high LPC leaders (person-oriented, more focused on maintaining good interpersonal relationships) and low LPC leaders (task-oriented, more focused on successful task performance). Changes in the structure of the situation can improve the chances of success as the leader’s success is contingent on the situation, task to be completed, leader’s style or personality, and the maturity of the group. Fielder proposes task-oriented (low-LPC) leaders are most effective when the leader has either low or high situational control and person-oriented (high-LPC leaders) are most effective when situational control is moderate. According to Fielder, situational control is determined by: leader-member relations, task-structure, and leader position power.`
The responses of interviewees, when using a structured interview, are evaluated by: Select one: A. interviewer subjectivity B. utility analysis C. pre-specified criteria D. subject matter experts consensus
Correct Answer is: C
In a structured interview, a series of job-related questions with predetermined “correct” answers are used consistently with all interviewees for a particular job. An advantage of this technique is the provision of individual item scores and a total score that are derived from prespecified criteria. To predict job performance, the interview score can then be combined with scores on other selection procedures in a multiple regression equation or similar technique.
Another advantage of the structured interview is that it reduces the impact of interviewer subjectivity. A utility analysis considers the procedure’s validity coefficient, employee job performance variability (typically in dollar value of output or mean output), and the selection ratio to evaluate the practical value of a selection procedure. Subject matter experts* are one of several methods for determining scores to responses to a structured interview (* incorrect options).
As opposed to industrial psychology, the approach of engineering psychology is to fit the Select one: A. job to the worker. Correct B. worker to the job. C. job to the organization. D. worker to the organization.
Correct Answer is: A
The engineering psychologist tends to examine the factors making up the job and how these impact the worker. The job elements, from such things as the illumination in the plant to the work rate, are manipulated to maximize the productive work of the employee. Fitting the worker to the job (e.g., hiring better people) is a function of personnel psychology. By contrast, the engineering psychologist works with the job elements and designs the most productive environment for the worker hired.
The belief that workers have just enough self motivation to show up at work, punch the time clock, and do only the minimum necessary to get the job done best exemplifies which theory? Select one: A. Three-needs theory B. Theory X C. Theory Y D. Theory Z
Correct Answer is: B
McGregor’s (1960) Theory X and Theory Y management theories reflect the key differences between the scientific management and human relations administrative models. The scientific management model assumes workers are primarily motivated by financial self-interest or pay; job demands must match workers’ skills; and workers need constant supervision and detailed guidelines as they are incapable of self-regulating or assuming personal responsibility. Theory X is similar to scientific management in that Theory X managers believe that workers dislike work and avoid it whenever possible, thus workers must be directed and controlled. Theory X advises managers to be very strict, closely monitor employee performance, diligently enforce policies and procedures, and carefully match employees to jobs. A military drill sergeant would be an example of this approach to management.
In contrast, Theory Y’s* management approach is based on the assumptions that workers are not naturally passive or lazy, they enjoy autonomy, and are willing to accept responsibility. Theory Y advises managers to smile, to treat workers with respect, to bend some of the rules to get the job done, and to be easy-going in their management styles.
While Theory X and Y talk about workers from the perspective of how to manage them, Theory Z* examines how workers contribute and proposes that workers naturally wish to cooperate and are loyal to the organization.
McClelland’s three needs, or Learned, theory proposes individuals learn needs from their culture and when one of these needs is strong in an individual, then it has the potential to motivate behavior that leads to its satisfaction ( incorrect choices). The theory’s three primary needs are: the need for affiliation (n Aff), which is a desire to establish social relationships with others; the need for power (n Pow), or a desire to control one’s environment and influence others; and the need for achievement (n Ach) or a desire to take responsibility, set challenging goals, and obtain performance feedback.
A highly differentiated profile on the Self-Directed Search inventory signifies:
Select one:
A. all six section scores on the instrument are high.
B. half of the section scores on the instrument are high and the other half low.
C. two of the section scores on the instrument are high and are opposites on the personality hexagon.
D. only one of the section scores on the instrument is high.
Correct Answer is: D
According to Holland (1997), differentiation is defined as the level of definition or distinctness of a profile and can be thought of as the difference between an individual’s highest and lowest summary scale score on the SDS. A highly differentiated profile would only have a high point code on one of the six types. Profile elevation is the sum of the six section scores on the instrument, so (“all six section scores on the instrument are high”) would be an example of high profile elevation.
A summative evaluation of a mental health program primarily deals with which of the following questions?
Select one:
A. Did the program meet its goals?
B. How can the program be improved in the future?
C. How can the strengths and weaknesses of the program be summarized?
D. What is preventing the program from operating more effectively right now?
Correct Answer is: A
In the terminology of program evaluation, a common distinction is between summative and formative evaluation. Summative evaluations deal with whether a program has achieved its intended objectives. They are typically used to address “bottom line” issues, such as if a program should continue existing, or if more or fewer resources should be allocated to it. By contrast, a formative evaluation addresses issues related to the implementation of a program. The main focus of a formative evaluation is how a program can be improved. In practice, most program evaluations contain elements of both formative and summative evaluation.
____________________________ is a basic concept of the organizational development strategy of process consultation.
Select one:
A. Attitude change follows behavior change
B. Behavior change follows attitude change
C. Attitude and behavior change simultaneously
D. Changes in attitude and behavior follow insight
Correct Answer is: A
Process consultation centers on distinguishing and changing obvious behaviors that disrupt the normal social processes of a job. A distinctive feature of process consultation is its assertion that behavior change is the main concern and precedes attitude change.
Which aspect is not associated with organizational citizenship behavior? Select one: A. contextual performance B. responsibility C. altruism D. generalized compliance
Correct Answer is: B
Organ defined organizational citizenship behavior as discretionary, voluntary behaviors that are not part of an employee’s specified role requirements nor formally rewarded by the organization and in aggregate, contribute to organizational effectiveness by enhancing the “social and psychological context that supports task performance” (Organ 1997: 91).
Smith, Organ, and Near (1983) initially identified two distinct OCB dimensions: altruism, defined as behaviors directed toward a specific person such as helping co-workers with work-related tasks and generalized compliance, defined as behaviors representative of what a “good worker” should do, such as arriving on time and not wasting time while at work. Organ (1988) later proposed a five-factor model of OCB which included altruism as previously defined; (2) conscientiousness, previously referred to as generalized compliance by Smith et al. (1983) and representing behaviors that go above and beyond minimal expectations of good workers in areas such as attendance, timeliness, and conservation of resources; (3) sportsmanship, referring to behaviors such as tolerating trivial or minor inconveniences without complaining or initiating a grievance; (4) courtesy, involving anticipatory acts that help someone else prevent a problem such as consulting with others when making decisions that may affect them or providing relevant information in advance; and (5) civic virtue, referring to constructive involvement or participation in the overall organization and may include attending meetings regarding the organization. A number of other OCB dimensions have since been proposed and examined, with estimates ranging from one to seven; however most of the OCB literature relies either on the initial two factors or the five dimensions of Organ’s (1988) taxonomy (LePine et al, 2002).
Contextual performance* is work behavior that affects organizational performance less directly than the task-related behavior typically construed as “performance” and is often used synonymously with OCB in recent studies (* incorrect choices).
Organizational surveys are most often used to
Select one:
A. Evaluate employee attitudes and opinions about an intervention
B. Evaluate the effects of an organization-wide intervention
C. Allow employees to evaluate the job performance of their coworkers
D. Identify employees who would likely benefit from an intervention
Correct Answer is: A
Survey feedback, also known as organizational surveys, are most often used to evaluate employee attitudes and opinions about job satisfaction, job conditions, and problems at work. They are also used to ask for opinions about interventions; however, they are not generally used to evaluate the effects of interventions.
According to the Ohio State University studies from the 1950s, what are the two dimensions of leadership?
Select one:
A. consideration and initiating structure
B. employee-centered and production-centered
C. autocratic and democratic
D. authoritarian and laissez-faire
Correct Answer is: A
Using a style approach, the Ohio State leadership studies identified two behavioral dimensions of leaders: initiating structure and consideration. These dimensions were treated as independent of each other in contrast to previous studies of leader behavior which placed related dimensions along a single continuum of leadership ranging from employee to production-centered (“employee-centered and production-centered”). In different models of leadership, the dimension of initiating structure is sometimes referred to as task-orientation and concern for production. The dimension of consideration has also been labeled employee orientation, relations-oriented and concern for people.
Patrick was elated, in a meeting with senior management, when he was told that the company president was impressed with his recent contributions. After he left the meeting and was alone in his office, however, Patrick started to experience feelings of anger. Which of the following best explains Patrick's circumstances? Select one: A. Model of Facet Satisfaction B. Opponent Process Theory C. The Vitamin Model D. Job Dissatisfaction Theory
Correct Answer is: B
Landy’s (1978) Opponent Process Theory of job satisfaction hypothesizes that job attitudes emanate from a person’s physiological state. Opponent process theory assumes that when a person experiences an extreme emotional state, his or her central nervous system mechanisms attempt to bring him or her back to a state of emotional equilibrium or neutrality. In returning to neutrality, the emotional state may even surpass equilibrium and progress to the opposite emotional state. In this case, Patrick initially felt elated when informed of the praise then when the positive emotional state waned over time it continued to the opposite emotional state of anger. (See: Landy, F. J. (1978). An opponent process theory of job satisfaction. Journal of Applied Psychology, 63, 533-547.)
Lawler’s (1973) Model of Facet Satisfaction* posits that job satisfaction is conceived in terms of different facets of an individual’s job; a compilation of feelings of satisfaction on an array of situational, biological, social and educational factors. Lawler’s model specifies that workers compare what their jobs should provide in terms of job facets to what they currently receive from their jobs. Examples of facets include: gender, age, race, work load, job security, working conditions, workplace location, supervisor-subordinate relations, status and prestige of job, compensation, etc. (See: Lawler, E.E. (1973), Motivation in Work Organizations, Brooks/Cole, Monterey CA.).
Warr’s (1987) Vitamin Model* of work and mental health suggests that certain features in the workplace act in much the same way as vitamins. The level and combination of stressors have an effect on well-being and as with vitamins, some of the features start to have a negative effect if they increase beyond a recommended daily dose. The nine proposed stressors include: opportunity for control, opportunity for skill use, externally generated goals, variety, environmental clarity, availability of money, physical security (freedom from physical threat or danger), opportunity for interpersonal contact and valued social position . There is substantial empirical support for the particular stressors identified by Warr as he developed the stressor content of his model by reviewing the empirical literature on workplace stressors. (See: Warr, P. (1987). Work, Unemployment, and Mental Health, Clarendon Press, Oxford.)
The job satisfaction/job dissatisfaction* theory is the basis of Herzberg’s concept of job satisfaction which distinguishes two separate groups of factors influencing individual job satisfaction and dissatisfaction (* incorrect choices). The first group, called “motivators,” leads to job satisfaction; the second group, called “hygienes,” leads to job dissatisfaction. Motivator or “intrinsic” factors of job satisfaction include achievement, recognition, the work itself, and the intrinsic interest of the job. Hygiene or “extrinsic” factors of the job include pay, job security, working conditions, policy and administration, and relationships with peers and supervisors.
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ may result in a job performance measure having low validity, even though it is reliable. Select one: A. differential validity B. criterion contamination C. criterion deficiency D. researcher deficiency
Correct Answer is: C
Criterion deficiency refers to what is missed or deficient in the criterion used. For example, if typing speed is used as the sole criterion for determining successful job performance by a secretary, it would be a deficient criterion, since typing speed is only one of several skills needed to be a successful secretary.
Differential validity refers to a test which has significantly different validity coefficients for different subgroups. Criterion contamination occurs when a rater’s knowledge of an employee’s performance on a predictor biases how the employee is rated on a criterion.
You are an organizational process consultant hired by a hospital. Several nurses tell you they feel they’re being overworked and underpaid. In this case, your most likely intervention would be to
Select one:
A. explain the nurses’ concerns to the hospital administrators.
B. conduct a job analysis to determine how much the nurses deserve to be paid and present your results to the hospital administrators.
C. act with the best interests of the hospital’s patients in mind.
D. help the nurses organize regular meetings with the physicians and administrators to discuss their concerns.
Correct Answer is: D
A process consultant, rather than merely correcting problems for his or her client, focuses on an organization’s underlying processes, with the goal of making changes in processes so that individuals within the organization can solve their own problems.
help the nurses organize regular meetings with the physicians and administrators to discuss their concerns.
Thus, this choice is the best answer, as it is the only one which offers a way in which the nurses and administrators can work together to solve the problem of dissatisfaction with work conditions.
explain the nurses’ concerns to the hospital administrators.
conduct a job analysis to determine how much the nurses deserve to be paid and present your results to the hospital administrators.
By comparison, these two choices would have the consultant diagnose and “fix” the problem; these interventions would be consistent with the medical rather than the process model of consultation.
If the predictor of a selection test is raised, this will:
Select one:
A. increase the probability of true positives Correct
B. increase the probability of false positives
C. decrease the probability of true positives
D. decrease the probability of false negatives
Correct Answer is: A
It might be helpful with these types of questions to draw and label the scatterplot. Keep in mind that the term “positive” is used to designate those selected or hired. “Negative” refers to those not selected or hired. “True” refers to a correct decision and “false” refers to an incorrect decision. When a predictor is raised, there are fewer people selected overall, that is, there are fewer positives (both true and false). However, the probability that those selected will meet the criteria (i.e. true positives) (e.g. successful job performance) increases.
Recent literature comparing leadership and management has identified several similarities and differences. Which of the following set of characteristics is more critical for today’s leaders than for managers?
Select one:
A. rational, persistent, and tough-minded
B. problem-solving, persistent, and independent
C. visionary, authoritative, and tough-minded
D. independent, innovative, and flexible
Correct Answer is: D
A topic of interest in the I/O literature is the difference between leaders and managers. Characteristics that are considered particularly important for leaders include: visionary, creative, flexible, inspiring, courageous, and independent.
The intervention known as organizational transformation typically focuses on
Select one:
A. identifying and implementing specific target areas for change.
B. increasing cohesiveness of the organization’s members.
C. group processes and dynamics within the organization.
D. the entire organization’s vision.
Correct Answer is: D
Organizational transformation is a term for an intervention that is one of the strategies in organizational development. Organizational development (OD) refers to a planned, organization-wide effort designed to improve the organization’s effectiveness and targets the organization as a whole rather than an individual unit such as an employee or job. Organizational transformation is a relatively newer method of OD that was developed in response to challenges such as layoffs, mergers, and rapidly changing markets in the corporate world. In organizational transformation, the target of change is the entire organization’s vision of its beliefs, purpose, or mission. It attempts to alter the viewpoints of the organization’s members. For example, it may involve mission statement changes, consciousness raising, and training exercises designed to help employees shift to an entirely new way of doing business, such as a change to a pay-for-performance pay scale or a new emphasis on vertical rather than horizontal markets.
Which of the following would be least useful as a method for management development? Select one: A. Outward Bound programs B. job rotation C. coaching or mentoring D. vestibule training
Correct Answer is: D
Management development is a growing field in organizational psychology. A number of techniques are used to train (develop) managers including job rotation, coaching, mentoring, and even Outward Bound, which fosters trust and cooperation. Vestibule training involves the use of procedures or an environment similar to the actual job and is used for such jobs as bank tellers, clerks, and typists.
A “needs assessment” is used to:
Select one:
A. identify the worth of a job so that an equitable wage can be determined.
B. determine if and what kind of training is needed in an organization.
C. describe the requirements of a job.
D. identify which type of job would be most satisfying for an individual
Correct Answer is: B
A “needs assessment” or “needs analysis” is the first step in developing a training program. Not surprisingly, this involves identifying the needs of the organization.
The organizational developmental intervention called team building is most appropriate for addressing which of the following issues?
Select one:
A. increasing the morale of an entire organization. Incorrect
B. diagnosing group interactional issues that interfere with group effectiveness.
C. reducing role ambiguity or role confusion in work groups.
D. providing feedback to group members about group norms of which they are unaware.
Correct Answer is: C
The term “organizational development” (OD) refers to a planned, organization-wide effort, managed from the top-down, designed to improve organizational health and effectiveness by applying behavioral science knowledge. It is distinct from other industrial-organizational interventions in that the target of intervention is an entire organization (or entire work group within an organization), as opposed to an individual unit such as an employee or job. There are a number of intervention strategies associated with OD, including team building, process consultation, and survey feedback. Team building is designed to improve the problem-solving abilities of goal-oriented work groups. It can involve a variety of exercises, activities, and games. The specific goals of the technique include increasing motivation, increasing team cohesiveness, reducing interpersonal conflict and, clarifying team members’ roles.
reducing role ambiguity or role confusion in work groups.
Thus, of the choices listed, only the correct answer identifies a specific goal of team building.
increasing the morale of an entire organization.
You may have thought this choice was a good answer, and team building exercises do often have a positive effect on morale. However, increasing morale is usually not identified as a specific goal of team building.
In any organized setting of more than a few people, paired-comparisons is the preferred rating system when the goal is to
Select one:
A. establish a standard performance criterion for the average productivity rate in that organization.
B. rank-order the people in the organization in the most cost-effective manner.
C. maximally differentiate among the people in the organization.
D. set the most attainable and acceptable production goals for each person in that organization
Correct Answer is: C
The paired comparison technique involves comparing each person to every other person in the organization in reference to one or more variables such as productivity. It is a time-consuming and expensive process but results in highly precise and differentiated evaluations of each person in the group evaluated.
Job rotation challenges the notion that:
Select one:
A. on-the-job training is the only way to achieve adequate transfer of training.
B. mastery of basic skills must always precede mastery of more complex skills.
C. workers will be most productive when the job matches their particular talents and interests.
D. jobs that provide greater individual challenge and responsibility lead to greater satisfaction and better performance.
Correct Answer is: C
As its name implies, job rotation (a type of on-the-job training) involves rotating a worker though a variety of jobs. Its use is based on the assumption that workers can perform many different kinds of tasks.
Of the following, the best way to reduce rater errors such as the halo and leniency biases would be
Select one:
A. use of a forced-choice rating scale.
B. use of the forced distribution rating scale.
C. use of Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales.
D. adequate training of raters.
Correct Answer is: D
A number of special types of rating scales designed to reduce rater bias (such as the forced-choice and the Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales) have been derived, and, in fact, there is some research to show that they are effective in doing so. However, no rating scale will be effective unless raters are trained adequately in its use. Indeed, research shows that relevant training can minimize some rating errors – specifically, the halo effect, constant error such as the leniency or strictness bias, and contrast effects. The operative word here is “relevant”: unless training focuses on matters such as the multi-dimensionality of work performance, objective recording of behavior, and rating people in terms of actual job requirements, training the raters won’t work.
When several individuals are to be compared by a supervisor in a work setting, paired comparisons, as compared to order of merit comparisons, are Select one: A. more precise but more difficult. B. less precise but easier. C. more precise and easier. D. less precise and more difficult.
Correct Answer is: A
When using the paired comparison technique, a rater compares each person with every other person. It’s specific but time-consuming, as you can see. The order of merit comparisons has the rater rank order the people in terms of some criterion, such as overall job performance. You can see that it wouldn’t take as long as paired comparisons, but wouldn’t be as precise either.
A “mixed standard scale” helps reduce rater biases by:
Select one:
A. using a forced-choice format that matches items with a comparable level of social desirability.
B. using a specific description of work-related behavior to anchor each point on the rating scale.
C. comparing two or more employees on each job behavior.
D. obscuring order-of-merit when describing work-related behaviors.
Correct Answer is: D
A mixed standard scale tries to overcome halo, leniency, and similar rater biases by arranging, in a non-hierarchal manner, items that describe performance as either good, average, or poor and then the rater rates whether the individual performs better, equal to, or worse (+, 0, -) than the behavior described in the item. Items are arranged in a way, which supposedly helps reduce rater biases.
Eagly et al.’s (2003) meta-analysis of transformational, transactional, and laissez-faire leadership styles comparing women and men found:
Select one:
A. female leaders engaged in more of the contingent reward behaviors than male leaders.
B. male leaders engaged in more of the contingent reward behaviors than female leaders.
C. female leaders were more likely to employ a laissez-faire leadership style
D. there were no significant differences in leadership styles.
Correct Answer is: A
The results of meta-analyses suggest that there are slight but statistically significant overall differences between men and women in leadership style. The results of Eagly et al’s meta-analysis of transformational, transactional, and laissez-faire leadership styles indicate female leaders were more transformational than male leaders, however they also engaged in more of the contingent reward behaviors - a component of transactional leadership. Male leaders were found to be more likely to manifest other aspects of transactional leadership, such as active and passive management by exception, and laissez-faire leadership. The implications of these results are positive for female leadership as it supports other research that has found the aspects of leadership style on which women exceeded men relate positively to leaders’ effectiveness, while the aspects on which men exceeded women have null or negative relations to effectiveness.
Job evaluation methods have been criticized for containing biases against work typically performed by women. This criticism most directly pertains to the standard of Select one: A. employment equity. B. procedural justice. C. comparable worth. D. job fairness.
Correct Answer is: C
The term “job evaluation” refers to procedures used within a workplace to establish the relative worth of particular jobs and tasks within the organization. If a job evaluation were biased against work typically performed by women, this would mean that the value of such work to the organization would be unfairly set too low. The term “comparable worth” refers to the standard that wages for jobs with different titles and/or duties should be based on their actual worth to the organization rather then the gender makeup of the workers in those jobs. In other words, a gender biased job evaluation would contradict the standard of comparable worth.
Regarding the other choices, employment equity refers to multidimensional efforts to promote fair representation of minority groups in the workplace–not only through hiring practices but also through retention, promotion, and training efforts. Procedural justice refers to perceptions of fairness in the processes that resolve disputes and allocate resources. It is not as good an answer as comparable worth because it usually refers to perceptions rather than actual practice and because comparable worth refers specifically to the undervaluation of tasks that women typically perform. A bias in a job evaluation method relates more to distributive justice, or fairness in outcomes, because a job evaluation is typically used to establish salary. And “job fairness” is a broad term that generally means that distribution of workplace rewards, such as salaries and selection for jobs, is based on merit rather than some form of bias.