Marisa's Missed Neuropsych ?'s

Question 1

Question ID #897: Compared to traditional neuroleptics, risperidone:
Select one:
A. is significantly more effective in treating the “positive” symptoms of psychotic disorders
B. has a higher risk of causing cognitive blunting
C. has a higher risk of extrapyramidal symptoms
D. has a lower risk of tardive dyskinesia

Answer 1

Correct Answer is: D
Risperidone (brand name Risperdal) is one of several atypical antipsychotics that has emerged more recently. Risperdal has also become a commonly prescribed antipsychotic medication. The most significant difference between the traditional antipsychotics and the newer atypical antipsychotics is that the atypicals have a much lower incidence of causing tardive dyskinesia and extrapyramidal side effects. However, they are generally considered to be equally effective in treating the positive symptoms (e.g., hallucinations, delusions) of Schizophrenia. They have often been considered to be more effective for treating the “negative” symptoms (e.g., affective and cognitive blunting, apathy, poverty of speech); however, the research for this remains inconclusive.
Additional Information: Atypical Antipsychotics

Question 2

Question ID #788: An individual with apperceptive visual agnosia would have difficulty:
Select one:
A. locating an object in space Incorrect
B. perceiving the placement of their limbs in space
C. identifying familiar faces
D. identifying an object from an atypical view

Answer 2

Correct Answer is: D
Visual agnosia refers to the inability to recognize familiar objects by sight. The type of visual agnosia described in this question is referred to as apperceptive agnosia and involves an inability to recognize familiar objects, especially in low-light conditions, when there are many shadows, when objects overlap, or from an atypical view.

Question 3

Question ID #796: The term “serial lesion effect” refers to the fact that in certain cases:
Select one:
A. damage to one area leads to malfunction in another area. Incorrect
B. damage to an area in infancy may lead to mild deficits at first and more severe deficits later.
C. damage to one area of the brain causes extra growth of another area.
D. a number of small lesions produces less deficit than one large lesion.

Answer 3

Correct Answer is: D
The observation that lesions sustained over multiple sessions appear to result in less behavioral deficits than single lesions which create equivocal tissue damage. There are several studies showing that following certain types and location of brain damage, a given lesion created on a single occasion will have more detrimental behavioral effects than exactly the same type and size of lesion created in a stepped fashion over a number of occasions.

Question 4

Question ID #924: Severing the corpus callosum will have the greatest impact on which of the following?
Select one:
A. sensory systems
B. motor systems Incorrect
C. memory
D. mood

Answer 4

Correct Answer is: A
Recalling the studies on split-brain patients would have helped you answer this question. Remember that these patients had trouble verbally identifying stimuli received by sensory systems on the left side because those signals were received by the right hemisphere and not “shared with” the left hemisphere.

Question 5

Question ID #997: Following a stroke, a patient exhibits right hemiplegia. Other symptoms are likely to include:
Select one:
A. speech-language deficits and slow-cautious behavior style.
B. spatial-perceptual deficits and slow-cautious behavior style.
C. speech-language deficits and quick-impulsive behavior style.
D. spatial-perceptual deficits and quick-impulsive behavior style.

Answer 5

Correct Answer is: A
Note that the individual has right-sided hemiplegia, which makes the left side of the brain the area that has been affected.
speech-language deficits and slow-cautious behavior style.

speech-language deficits and quick-impulsive behavior style.

This should have helped you narrow the choices down to these two responses since the left side of the brain is responsible for language. At that point you may have had to guess. Now you know that left hemisphere damage is associated with a slow-cautious behavioral style (and that right hemisphere damage is associated with a quick-impulsive style).

Question 6

Question ID #1034: Research on sleep patterns in the elderly have generally found that compared to young adults they have:
Select one:
A. decreased non-REM sleep in stages 3 and 4, and increased absolute amounts of REM
B. increased non-REM sleep in stages 1 and 2, and decreased absolute amounts of REM
C. increased non-REM sleep in stage 4, and decreased absolute amounts of REM
D. the same amounts of REM and non-REM sleep, but it is distributed around the clock, with less sleep at night and naps during the day

Answer 6

Correct Answer is: B
Research has shown that in the elderly, the absolute amount of REM sleep decreases and there is an increased amount of non-REM sleep in stages 1 and 2 (lighter sleep) along with decreased amounts of non-REM sleep in stage four (deeper sleep).
the same amounts of REM and non-REM sleep, but it is distributed around the clock, with less sleep at night and naps during the day.

This choice is partly correct, in that their sleep does tend to be more distributed around the clock, but the amounts of REM and non-REM are still altered. [See I. Feinberg, Changes in sleep cycle pattern with age. Journal of Psychiatric Research, 1974,10, 283-306].

Question 7

Question ID #904: A seizure that begins with uncontrollable twitching of a small part of the body and gradually spreads throughout one side or the entire body is referred to as:
Select one:
A. partial
B. petit mal
C. tonic-clonic
D. generalized

Answer 7

Correct Answer is: A
Seizures are generally divided into two main types: “partial” or “focal,” and generalized. Partial (focal) seizures typically begin with uncontrollable twitching of a small part of the body, for example, one finger, which may start to jerk, followed by jerking of the entire arm and then the rest of that side of the body, and may lead to jerking of the entire body. Although it can eventually affect the entire body, it is referred to as a “partial” seizure because of how it initially developed. This is sometimes called “partial seizure with secondary generalization.” Partial seizures are further subdivided into “simple partial seizures,” which have no alteration of consciousness, and “complex partial seizures,” which do alter consciousness.
The generalized type of seizures include the petit mal and tonic-clonic (grand mal) types. Petit mal (absence) seizures are characterized by minimal motor activity and a lack of awareness. Generalized tonic-clonic (grand mal) seizures begin as bilaterally symmetrical at onset and involve episodes of violent shaking, during which the person becomes blue and stiff.

Question 8

Question ID #774: Benzodiazepines such as alprazolam and diazepam function as
Select one:
A. GABA agonists.
B. GABA antagonists.
C. serotonin agonists. Incorrect
D. serotonin antagonists.

Answer 8

Correct Answer is: A
Benzodiazepines are a class of anti-anxiety drugs that include alprazolam (brand name Xanax), diazepam (Valium), Flunitrazepam (Rohypnol), and Lorazepam (Ativan). Benzodiazepines act by enhancing the effects of the neurotransmitter GABA. A drug that increases the effects of a particular neurotransmitter is called an agonist for that transmitter. GABA is an inhibitory neurotransmitter; i.e., it inhibits neurons from firing and therefore has a general quieting effect on the brain.

Question 9

Question ID #828: The most accurate statement about anxiolytic drugs is:
Select one:
A. older adults experience a higher rebound effect than younger adults.
B. older adults experience higher effectiveness from anxiolytics with a long half-life.
C. the half-life of the drug decreases with increasing age.
D. the half-life of the drug increases with increasing age.

Answer 9

Correct Answer is: D
Due to age-related decreases in metabolism or reduction in renal functioning, the time it takes for the body to eliminate half of the given dose (half-life) of the anxiolytics and many drugs increases with increasing age. Consequently, lower doses and anxiolytics with a short half-life are usually administered to older adults to avoid toxicity.

Question 10

Question ID #805: Indifference and apathy are the likely consequences of lesions in the:
Select one:
A. thalamus, hippocampus, or prefrontal cortex. Incorrect
B. dominant temporal lobe.
C. right hemisphere of the cerebral cortex.
D. medial hypothalamus.

Answer 10

Correct Answer is: C
Indifference and apathy are the likely consequences of lesions in certain areas in the right hemisphere of the cerebral cortex.
thalamus, hippocampus, or prefrontal cortex.

Lesions or damage to the thalamus, hippocampus or prefrontal cortex have been linked to memory loss.

dominant temporal lobe.

Damage to the dominant temporal lobe, including the Wernicke’s area, causes receptive aphasia.

medial hypothalamus.

The hypothalamus is associated with regulating the release of hormones from the pituitary and other endocrine glands, maintaining the body’s homeostasis, and mediating aggressive responses. In particular, lesions in the medial hypothalamus have been associated with outbursts of rage and aggressive behavior (See: Swaab, D.F. (2003). The human hypothalamus: Basic and human aspects, Elsevier Health Sciences, Amsterdam.)

Question 11

Question ID #982: Tricyclic antidepressants, as compared to MAO inhibitors,
Select one:
A. are more effective in the treatment of the vegetative symptoms of depression.
B. are more effective in the treatment of atypical depressions.
C. are less effective in the treatment of panic disorder.
D. are associated with a greater range of dangerous side effects.

Answer 11

Correct Answer is: A
The tricyclic antidepressants include imipramine, clomimpramine, and amitriptyline. In the treatment of depression, they are most effective in relieving vegetative symptoms such as appetitive, sleep, and motor disturbances. By contrast, the MAO inhibitors are more effective in the treatment of atypical depressions.

Question 12

Question ID #929: Presbyopia, a common result of normal aging, is most likely to increase the near point from four inches at 20 years of age to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ at 60 years of age.
Select one:
A. 8 inches
B. 12 inches 
C. 24 inches
D. 48 inches

Answer 12

Correct Answer is: D
As we age the ability of our eyes to focus on objects declines due to a loss of elasticity in the lens of the eye. This condition, known as “presbyopia,” typically increases the near point (the shortest distance at which we can focus) from four inches at 20 years of age to about four feet at 60 years of age. Although some people have different rates of decline, presbyopia eventually affects everyone.

Question 13

Question ID #873: The effectiveness of thermal biofeedback as a treatment for migraine headaches is:
Select one:
A. less effective than relaxation therapy but more effective than electromyogram (EMG) biofeedback
B. equally as effective as relaxation therapy Incorrect
C. more effective than relaxation therapy but less effective than electromyogram (EMG) biofeedback
D. more effective than relaxation therapy

Answer 13

Correct Answer is: D
Biofeedback, a form of complementary and alternative medicine (CAM) that falls under the category of mind-body therapies, refers to a technique that can give people better control over such body function indicators as blood pressure, heart rate, temperature, muscle tension, and brain waves. The National Institutes of Health (NIH) found thermal biofeedback, which measures skin temperature, to be more effective in treating migraines than relaxation therapy. EMG biofeedback, which measures muscle tension, is used as a treatment for tension headaches and data indicates it is equally effective as relaxation therapy. (See: National Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke (NIDS) of the National Institutes of Health (NIH). (2001). 21st Century Prevention and Management of Migraine Headaches. [Monograph]. Clinical Courier, 19(11).)

Question 14

Question ID #975: The brain part or system that manages the circadian rhythm is located in the
Select one:
A. caudate nucleus.
B. cerebellum.
C. reticular activating system. 
D. hypothalamus.

Answer 14

Correct Answer is: D
You may have thought the answer was reticular activating system, which is involved in many functions related to sleep. However, the circadian rhythm, or the innate, 24-hour cycle of biological activity (i.e., the biological clock) is managed by the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN), a group of cells found within the hypothalamus. The SCN gets information about day length via a pathway between it and light receptors in the retina. The SCN interprets this information and passes it to the pineal gland, which secretes the hormone melatonin in response (nighttime increases melatonin secretion, while daylight inhibits it). Destruction of the SCN causes circadian rhythms to disappear entirely.

Question 15

Question ID #808: A split-brain patient is shown a picture of an object to his left visual field then told to pick the object out from behind a screen. Which of the following will the patient will be able to do?
Select one:
A. pick the object with either hand
B. pick the object with only his left hand
C. pick the object with only his right hand
D. able to say what the object was however unable to pick it with either hand

Answer 15

Correct Answer is: B
The visual information about the object crosses in the patient’s optic chiasm and ends up in the right hemisphere so when the person is asked to pick out the object he will be able to correctly pick out the object because touch information from the left hand crosses over to the right hemisphere.

Question 16

Question ID #1040: Which of the following neurotransmitters is most associated with Tourette's Disorder?
Select one:
A. serotonin
B. dopamine
C. GABA 
D. acetylcholine

Answer 16

Correct Answer is: B
Although the research findings are mixed, most studies have focused on the role of dopamine in Tourette’s Disorder. Antipsychotic medications such as Haloperidol (Haldol) are often used to control the tics in Tourette’s Disorder by affecting the dopamine level. The findings suggest that either an excess of dopamine or an increased sensitivity of dopamine receptors is related to Tourette’s. However, other studies have also linked serotonin and norepinephrine to the disorder.

Question 17

Question ID #773: A patient who has recently suffered a stroke speaks only with great effort and uses two word sentences such as “eat dinner” to indicate he would like to eat his dinner. He is able to comprehend the speech of others well if they speak in simple sentences. He has weakness on the right side of the body and displays occasional outbursts of anger. The patient is most likely suffering from
Select one:
A. Vascular Dementia.
B. Personality Disorder Due to a General Medical Condition.
C. Broca’s aphasia.
D. Wernicke’s aphasia.

Answer 17

Correct Answer is: C
Broca’s aphasia is caused by damage to an area of the left frontal lobe of the brain called Broca’s area. It plays a role in the production of language. People with Broca’s aphasia typically speak in short phrases that are produced with great effort. They may use short phrases instead of full sentences, omitting small words such as “is” and “and.” Though Broca’s area has long been associated only with speech production, recent evidence also suggests that damage to it can impair verbal comprehension as well. Nonetheless, individuals with damage to this area often have at least a moderate ability to understand others, and they are also often aware of their difficulties, which can cause them to become easily frustrated. They also may display right-sided weakness or paralysis of the arm and leg. Of the choices listed, the presentation is most consistent with Broca’s aphasia.
Wernicke’s aphasia, caused by damage to an area in the left temporal lobe of the brain that is known as Wernicke’s area, is characterized by fluent but often unintelligible speech, and deficits in understanding speech and written language. Vascular Dementia is caused by cerebrovascular accidents such as stroke, but there is no evidence in this case of the cognitive and memory deficits that characterize Dementia. And though medical conditions can cause personality disturbances, there is no condition with the label Personality Disorder Due to a General Medical Condition.

Question 18

Question ID #958: Huntington's Disease is most associated with decreased amounts of:
Select one:
A. dopamine 
B. epinephrine
C. GABA
D. norepinephrine

Answer 18

Correct Answer is: C
Huntington’s Disease is believed to begin when cells within the striatum (caudate and putamen) of the basal ganglia begin to be destroyed. The striatum is responsible for producing GABA, which regulates the levels of dopamine in the brain through an inhibitory process. The death of the striatum cells causes decreased amounts of GABA which leads to an overproduction of dopamine and results in chorea (uncontrollable and irregular muscle movements, especially of the arms, legs, and face).

Question 19

Question ID #786: Memory impairment is to Alzheimer's disease as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is to Parkinson's disease:
Select one:
A. bradykinesia/akinesia
B. dyspraxia
C. hyperkinesia
D. hypophonia

Answer 19

Correct Answer is: A
Bradykinesia/akinesia refer to slowness and absence of movement, respectively, and is one of the primary symptoms of Parkinson’s disease. Other primary symptoms of PD are tremor or trembling in hands, arms, legs, jaw, and face; rigidity or stiffness of the limbs and trunk; and postural instability, or impaired balance and coordination. Other symptoms may include depression and other emotional changes; sleep disruptions; skin problems; difficulty in swallowing, chewing, and speaking; and urinary problems or constipation. Motor planning or “praxis” is the ability of the brain to conceive, organize, and carry out a sequence of unfamiliar actions. Praxis enables us to deal with the physical environment in an adaptive manner. In Dyspraxic Syndrome there is a reduced ability to carry out non-learned movements, even though adequate physical and conceptual capacity exists. Dyspraxia* is a lifelong disorder that affects a person’s development in the area of motor development. People with dyspraxia have difficulty planning and completing intended fine motor tasks. It is estimated that as many as 6% of all children show some signs of dyspraxia, and in the general population, about 70% of those affected by dyspraxia are male. Dyspraxia can affect different areas of functioning, varying from simple motor tasks such as waving goodbye to more complex tasks like brushing teeth. Hyperkinesia* refers to abnormally increased motor function or activity; hyperactivity. Hypophonia* refers to a weak voice due to incoordination of the vocal muscles (* incorrect options).

Question 20

Question ID #780: Bupropion is a form of antidepressant known as a \_\_\_\_\_\_.
Select one:
A. NDRI
B. NRI
C. MAOI 
D. SSRI

Answer 20

Correct Answer is: A
Bupropion (also known as Wellbutrin and Zyban) is a norepinephrine dopamine reuptake inhibitor (NDRI) prescribed for depression, smoking cessation and, off-label, for distractability due to ADHD. Side effects include abdominal pain, constipation, decrease in appetite, dizziness, dry mouth, increased sweating, nausea, trembling, difficulty sleeping, unusual dreams and may induce pre-existing seizures or psychosis.
NRIs include selective norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (e.g., Strattera, a non-stimulant used for the treatment of ADHD), and work by blocking the reuptake of norepinephrine. Common side effects include decreased appetite, dizziness, fatigue, and irritability, and, in adults, sexual dysfunction and menstrual cramps.

Question 21

Question ID #882: In most species of animals the differences between males and females in body size and shape is referred to as:
Select one:
A. androgyny
B. sexual bifurcation
C. gender dichotomy 
D. sexual dimorphism

Answer 21

Correct Answer is: D
The term “sexual dimorphism” may be new to you, but now you know that it refers to any consistent differences between males and females in size or shape. Sexual dimorphism enables animals to readily identify males and females of their species which serves to facilitate mating.

Question 22

Question ID #918: A person whose corpus callosum has been severed will be able to do all of the following except
Select one:
A. name an object he cannot see but has felt with his left hand.
B. say “spoon” when a picture of a spoon is flashed to his right visual field at the same time that a picture of a plate is flashed to his left visual field.
C. use his left hand to find and match an object that appears in his left visual field.
D. repeat a sentence that has been whispered into his right ear.

Answer 22

Correct Answer is: A
Remember, the left side of the brain controls the functions of the right side of the body and, in most people, language. Keeping this in mind would have helped you pick the right answer to this question.

Question 23

Question ID #750: The "temporal lobe personality" is characterized by
Select one:
A. inability to attend to details.
B. apathy and flat affect.
C. inappropriate euphoria. 
D. paranoia and argumentativeness.

Answer 23

Correct Answer is: D
The term “temporal lobe personality” refers to a pattern of personality disturbances seen in people with lesions to the temporal lobe. Signs include an emphasis on trivial aspects of daily life, pedantic speech, perseveration of speech, paranoia, preoccupation with theological or philosophical issues, argumentativeness, and occasional aggressive outbursts. Temporal lobe lesions can be caused by a number of conditions such as stroke, brain tumors, or head trauma; in addition, signs of this personality syndrome are sometimes present in patients with temporal lobe epilepsy.

Question 24

Question ID #821: Individuals who have had a stroke are at risk for a variety of neuropsychiatric symptoms, not just immediately poststroke, but up to six months after the event. Which of the symptoms provided is the least common?
Select one:
A. depressed mood
B. disinhibition and euphoria
C. pseudobulbar affect
D. catastrophic reaction

Answer 24

Correct Answer is: B
Disinhibition and euphoria are uncommon, whereas depression* is considered the most common psychiatric complication of stroke. The prevalence of major depression following stroke ranges from 10% to 40%, although a recent finding indicates the rate may be as high as 61% (Bourgeois et al, 2004). Other psychiatric conditions such as anxiety disorders, apathy and cognitive impairment are also common and often comorbid with depression.
Two other neuropsychiatric manifestations of stroke include pseudobulbar affect and a catastrophic reaction. Pseudobulbar affect* is a clinical syndrome seen in approximately 10% to 15% of poststroke patients and involves frequent and easily provoked spells of emotion (typically manifested by laughing and crying). Brief fits of crying or laughing occur with appropriate changes in mood in its most common form, however crying or laughing may develop in situations inappropriate to the context in more serious cases.

A catastrophic reaction* is seen in about 10% of individuals poststroke and involves a collection of symptoms (e.g., intense desperation and frustration) that is uncharacteristic of the individual’s prestroke personality (* incorrect options). A catastrophic reaction is strongly associated with poststroke depression as well as a personal and family history of psychiatric disorders. (See: Kaplan, A. (2005) Neuropsychiatric Symptoms in Poststroke Patients. Psychiatric Times. Vol. XXII, Issue 1; J. A. Bourgeois et al., Poststroke neuropsychiatric illness: An integrated approach to diagnosis and management, Current Treatment Options in Neurology, 2004, 6(5), 403-420.)

Question 25

Question ID #1038: A person who has difficulty repeating words just spoken by another person and recalling the name of a familiar object has symptoms of:
Select one:
A. Wernicke’s aphasia
B. Wernicke’s and Broca’s aphasia
C. Wernicke’s and conduction aphasia
D. Wernicke’s, Broca’s, and conduction aphasia

Answer 25

Correct Answer is: D
Wernicke’s or receptive aphasia primarily affects comprehension; however, as a result of impaired comprehension there is also impairment in spoken and written language, and problems in recalling words (anomia). People with Broca’s aphasia have difficulty expressing language and would, therefore, also have difficulty repeating what another has said. Conduction aphasia is due to damage to the nerve fibers (arcuate fasciculus) which connect Broca’s area to Wernicke’s area. The most typical result of conduction aphasia is difficulty repeating what one has heard. Thus, the symptoms listed are characteristic of all three disorders.

Question 26

Question ID #867: Gould and Gross (1999) found neurogenesis, the formation of new neurons or nerve cells, in all of the following areas, except:
Select one:
A. the olfactory system
B. the hippocampus 
C. the prefrontal region
D. the striate cortex

Answer 26

Correct Answer is: D
Traditionally it has been believed that no new neurons are added to the brain in maturity. In the last decade, evidence has accumulated for neurogenesis in several evolutionarily older parts of the brain such as the olfactory system and the hippocampus, which is believed to play role in memory formation. Gould and Gross, furthermore, identified neurogenesis in three areas of the cerebral cortex: 1) the prefrontal region, which controls executive decision making and short-term memory; 2) the inferior temporal region, which plays a crucial role in the visual recognition of objects and faces; and 3) the posterior parietal region, which is important for the representation of objects in space. The striate cortex, which handles the initial, and more rudimentary, steps of visual processing, had no sign of neurogenesis. (See: Gould, E., and Gross, C.G. (2002). Neurogenesis in Adult Mammals: Some Progress and Problems. The Journal of Neuroscience. 22, 619-623.)

Question 27

Question ID #916: The experience of REM-rebound occurs most often when
Select one:
A. barbiturates are used chronically
B. a person begins using sedatives.
C. the use of sedatives is discontinued.
D. alcohol is substituted for barbiturates.

Answer 27

Correct Answer is: C
Most drugs suppress REM sleep. When REM sleep is suppressed, a sudden rebound effect occurs soon after the removal of the suppressing agent.

Question 28

Question ID #984: The Acute phase of antidepressant treatment is generally
Select one:
A. 4 to 6 weeks
B. 4-9 months
C. 6-12 months
D. 2 years to lifetime

Answer 28

Correct Answer is: A
Barry Pierce, M.D. considers 4-6 weeks the Acute phase for antidepressant treatment. The Continuation phase which is used to prevent a relapse is 4-9 months and the Maintenance phase to prevent recurrent episodes is 2 years to lifetime.

Question 29

Question ID #883: The Dopamine Hypothesis was based on research findings indicating that:
Select one:
A. psychomotor stimulants activate dopamine receptors
B. brain dopamine is involved in neuroleptic-induced extrapyramidal motor disturbances
C. dopamine levels are lower in patients with Schizophrenia
D. both a and b

Answer 29

Correct Answer is: D
The Dopamine Hypothesis was originally based on two important findings: that antipsychotic medications, which can cause motor disturbances, affect dopamine in the brain; and that stimulants activate dopamine receptors. This latter finding is often neglected. However, knowing that stimulants stimulate dopamine helps explain why individuals intoxicated with cocaine or amphetamine often develop psychotic-like symptoms [A.A. Baumeister and J.L. Francis, Historical development of the dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia, Journal of the History of the Neurosciences, 2002, 11(3), 265-277].

Question 30

Question ID #804: If an individual consistently neglects the left side of his body he likely has damage to the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ lobe of his \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ hemisphere.
Select one:
A. parietal; right
B. parietal; left
C. temporal; right 
D. temporal; left

Answer 30

Correct Answer is: A
The parietal lobe is concerned mainly with sensory activities, such as receiving and interpreting information from all parts of the body. A stroke or damage to the parietal lobes in the right hemisphere can cause agnosia, which involves being unable to understand what one is perceiving, or unilateral neglect syndrome, which involves ignoring everything on the stroke-involved side of the body.

Question 31

Question ID #1009: Symptoms of memory impairment, faulty judgment, and impaired concentration would most likely result from lesions to the:
Select one:
A. frontal lobe.
B. parietal lobe.
C. temporal lobe.
D. occipital lobe.

Answer 31

Correct Answer is: C
Faulty judgment and problems in concentration could be either frontal lobe- or temporal lobe-related. However, since memory impairment is included in this question, the best answer is the temporal lobe. The subcortical nuclei implicated in memory lie under the temporal lobes. The parietal lobe is responsible for orientation in space. The occipital lobe is where vision is mediated.

Question 32

Question ID #979: Your client has been injured in a car wreck and now reports that he has "lost his sense of touch." At what level has the spinal injury most likely occurred?
Select one:
A. L1
B. S1 to S3
C. C8 to T1
D. T2 to T3

Answer 32

Correct Answer is: C
T1 is the first level of the thoracic spinal cord and innervates the hand and arm. C8 innerverates the ring and little fingers.
L1 refers to the lumbar region which contains nerves that affect to hip, thigh, and leg.

S1 to S3 is referring to the sacral region which innerverates parts of the foot and leg.

T2 to T3 is referring to the lower thoracic region which innervates the trunk. It would be good to know that the spinal cord is divided into four regions: cervical, thoracic, lumbar, and sacral.

Question 33

Question ID #940: Recent longitudinal studies investigating the relationship between menopause and psychological well-being have suggested that:
Select one:
A. women experiencing menopause are more likely to report significant depression than pre-menopausal or post-menopausal women.
B. post-menopausal women are likely to have higher general levels of psychological well-being than either pre-menopausal women or women in the midst of menopause.
C. pre-menopausal are likely to have higher general levels of psychological well-being than either post-menopausal women or women in the midst of menopause.
D. there is no evidence that menopause is linked to either depression or psychological well-being.

Answer 33

Correct Answer is: D
there is no evidence that menopause is linked to either depression or psychological well-being.
This choice describes the results of a longitudinal study published in 1994. Though the study did not concern itself with short-term mood swings that may be caused by the menopausal transition, it did suggest that menopause does not have any effect on long-term psychological functioning.