PrepJet Diagnostic Test

Question 1

Damage to which of the following areas of the brain is responsible for the memory impairment associated with Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome?
A. hypothalamus and suprachiasmatic nucleus
B. hypothalamus and cingulate gyrus
C. thalamus and suprachiasmatic nucleus
D. thalamus and mammillary bodies

Answer 1

D. thalamus and mammillary bodies

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical Forebrain Structures-06 Answer D is correct. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome has been linked to a thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency that’s usually caused by the long-term abuse of alcohol. The amnesia associated with this disorder is due to damage to the thalamus and mammillary bodies.

Question 2

Research participants are asked to memorize a list of unrelated words and then immediately recall the words in any order. Most likely, the participants will recall:
A. only words from the beginning of the list.
B. only words from the end of the list.
C. words from the beginning and end of the list about equally well and better than words from the middle of the list.
D. words from the middle and end of the list about equally well and better than words from the beginning of the list.

Answer 2

CORRECT ANSWER

C. words from the beginning and end of the list about equally well and better than words from the middle of the list.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-LEA-Memory and Forgetting-06 Answer C is correct. The serial position effect occurs when a person is asked to memorize a list of unrelated words and then to recall as many words as possible in any order either immediately or after a brief delay. When asked to recall the words immediately, a person is likely to exhibit both primacy and recency effects – i.e., to recall words at the beginning and end of the list about equally well and better than words in the middle of the list. In contrast, when asked to recall the words after a brief delay, the person will exhibit only a primacy effect.

Question 3

When using \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, the presence of a discriminative stimulus increases the probability that a particular behavior will occur.
A. successive approximation conditioning
B. stimulus generalization
C. stimulus control
D. differential reinforcement

Answer 3

CORRECT ANSWER

C. stimulus control

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-LEA-Operant Conditioning-02 Answer C is correct. As its name suggests, stimulus control involves bringing a behavior under the control of a stimulus. When the stimulus signals that a behavior will be reinforced, it’s referred to as a discriminative stimulus and its presence increases the probability that the behavior will occur.

Question 4

Taddio and Katz (2005) reviewed research on the effects of exposure to painful medical procedures soon after birth on subsequent reactivity to pain. They found that early exposure to pain:
A. increased subsequent pain responsivity for both preterm and full-term infants.
B. decreased subsequent pain responsivity for both preterm and full-term infants.
C. increased subsequent pain responsivity for preterm infants but reduced pain responsivity for full-term infants.
D. increased subsequent pain responsivity for full-term infants but reduced pain responsivity for preterm infants.

Answer 4

CORRECT ANSWER

D. increased subsequent pain responsivity for full-term infants but reduced pain responsivity for preterm infants.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-LIF-Physical Development-09 Answer D is correct. A. Taddio and J. Katz reviewed research on the effects of exposure to painful medical procedures soon after birth and found that it affects subsequent reactivity to pain, with different effects for preterm and full-term infants: Preterm infants who were hospitalized as neonates and were subjected to painful procedures had a reduced reaction to painful procedures later in infancy, while full-term infants exposed to extreme stress during delivery or painful procedures as neonates had a heightened reaction to painful procedures later in infancy [The effects of early pain experience in neonates on pain responses in infancy and childhood, Paediatric Drugs, 7(4), 245-257, 2005].

Question 5

According to the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ theory of emotion, all emotions are essentially the same in terms of physiological arousal and people experience a particular emotion only after they experience physiological arousal and then assign a cognitive label to that arousal.
A. James-Lange
B. Sperry-Gazzaniga
C. Cannon-Bard
D. Schachter-Singer

Answer 5

CORRECT ANSWER

D. Schachter-Singer

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-PHY-Emotions and Stress-04 Answer D is correct. According to Schachter and Singer’s (1962) two-factor theory, emotions are the consequence of physiological arousal plus cognitive interpretation of that arousal. An important assumption of their theory is that the physiological responses associated with different emotions are essentially the same and what differs is the cognitive interpretation of those responses.

Question 6

In adulthood, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ memory is most negatively affected by increasing age while \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ memory is relatively unaffected.
A. primary; secondary
B. secondary; primary
C. primary; tertiary
D. tertiary; secondary

Answer 6

CORRECT ANSWER

B. secondary; primary

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-LIF-Cognitive Development-04 Answer B is correct. Secondary memory is another name for recent long-term memory and is associated with the greatest age-related decline. In contrast, primary memory (which is the storage aspect of short-term memory) and tertiary memory (which is another name for remote long-term memory) are relatively unaffected by increasing age.

Question 7

A child explores the use of a ball by using it to push a small toy away from him and dropping the ball from different heights to see what happens. This behavior is characteristic of which substage of Piaget’s sensorimotor stage?
A. primary circular reactions
B. secondary circular reactions
C. coordination of secondary circular reactions
D. tertiary circular reactions

Answer 7

CORRECT ANSWER

D. tertiary circular reactions

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-LIF-Cognitive Development-01 Answer D is correct. Piaget described the sensorimotor stage as consisting of six substages: reflexive reactions, primary circular reactions, secondary circular reactions, coordination of secondary circular reactions, tertiary reactions, and internalization of schemas. Tertiary circular reactions emerge between 12 and 18 months of age and involve exploring the properties of an object by, for example, using it to move another object and seeing what happens to it when it’s dropped from different heights.

Question 8

Mary Rothbart’s (2011) research with infants, toddlers, children, adolescents, and adults revealed that temperament can be described in terms of three dimensions that include all of the following except:
A. negative affectivity.
B. effortful control.
C. surgency/extraversion.
D. regularity/predictability.

Answer 8

CORRECT ANSWER

D. regularity/predictability.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Temperament and Personality-07 Answer D is correct. The three dimensions of temperament identified by Rothbart are surgency/extraversion, negative affectivity, and effortful control. See, e.g., M. Rothbart, Becoming who we are: Temperament and personality in development, New York, Guilford Press, 2011.

Question 9

Hamilton and Gifford (1976) concluded that the tendency to overestimate the extent to which members of some minority groups have certain undesirable traits is due to the fact that minority group status and the undesirable traits are distinctive and relatively rare phenomena. They also used which of the following to explain this tendency?
A. base rate fallacy
B. false consensus effect
C. illusory correlation
D. confirmation bias

Answer 9

CORRECT ANSWER

C. illusory correlation

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-SOC-Social Cognition – Errors, Biases, and Heuristics-07 Answer C is correct. An illusory correlation occurs when people overestimate the relationship between two variables that are unrelated or only slightly related (e.g., between group membership and certain undesirable traits). Hamilton and Gifford propose that the illusory correlation occurs because people tend to pay more attention to rare and distinctive information and that this helps explain the formation and acceptance of stereotypes of members of minority groups.

Question 10

Kluver and Bucy (1938) found that bilateral lesions in which of the following areas of the brain in rhesus monkeys produced a variety of symptoms including visual agnosia, placidity with a loss of normal fear, hyperorality, and indiscriminate hypersexuality?
A. the temporal lobes and most of the medulla and hippocampus
B. the frontal lobes and most of the medulla and hypothalamus
C. the temporal lobes and most of the amygdala and hippocampus
D. the frontal lobes and most of the amygdala and hypothalamus

Answer 10

CORRECT ANSWER

C. the temporal lobes and most of the amygdala and hippocampus

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical Forebrain Structures-05 Answer C is correct. The combination of symptoms listed in this question is caused by bilateral lesions in the temporal lobes, amygdala, and hippocampus and is referred to as Kluver-Bucy syndrome.

Question 11

For a test that consists of 45 true/false questions, the optimal average item difficulty level (p) is which of the following?
A. 1.0
B. .75
C. .50
D. .25

Answer 11

CORRECT ANSWER

B. .75

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-TES-Item Analysis and Test Reliability-04 Answer B is correct. The optimal difficulty level for test questions depends on several factors including the chance that examinees can choose correct answers just by guessing. With regard to this factor, the optimal difficulty level falls halfway between 100% and the probability of choosing the correct answer by guessing: For true/false questions, the probability of guessing correctly is 50%, so the optimal difficulty level is halfway between 1.0 and .50, which is .75.

Question 12

You have been seeing Ramona in therapy for four weeks and, at the beginning of her current session, she tells you her ex-boyfriend is threatening to physically harm you because he blames you for her unwillingness to get back together with him. You know from what Ramona has told you about her ex-boyfriend that he has a history of violent behavior and that you should take his threat seriously. To be consistent with ethical requirements, you:
A. should continue seeing Ramona in therapy but contact the police about her ex-boyfriend’s threat.
B. should continue seeing Ramona in therapy and suggest that she bring her ex-boyfriend with her to the next therapy session.
C. may terminate therapy with Ramona but only after providing her with pretermination counseling and a referral to another therapist.
D. may terminate therapy with Ramona with or without providing her with pretermination counseling and a referral.

Answer 12

CORRECT ANSWER

D. may terminate therapy with Ramona with or without providing her with pretermination counseling and a referral.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 9 & 10-05 Answer D is correct. This situation is addressed in Standard 10.10 of the Ethics Code and the Values Statement for Principle II of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 10.10(b) states that psychologists may terminate therapy with clients when they’re “threatened or otherwise endangered by the client/patient or another person with whom the client/patient has a relationship.” And Standard 10.10(c) states that, “except where precluded by the actions of clients/patients or third-party payors, prior to termination psychologists provide pretermination counseling and suggest alternative service providers as appropriate.” As noted by C. B. Fisher, Standard 10.10(c) applies when a psychologist terminates therapy with a client because he/she is endangered by the client or someone involved in a relationship with the client [Decoding the ethics code (4th ed.), Los Angeles, SAGE, 2017].

Question 13

When using a selection test to predict the job performance scores of job applicants, you would use which of the following to construct a confidence interval around each applicant’s predicted job performance score?
A. regression equation
B. multiple regression equation
C. standard error of measurement
D. standard error of estimate

Answer 13

CORRECT ANSWER

D. standard error of estimate

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-TES-Test Validity – Criterion-Related Validity-03 Answer D is correct. The standard error of estimate indicates the amount of error that can be expected when an examinee’s predictor score is used to predict his or her score on a criterion (e.g., when a selection test score will be used to predict a job performance score), and it’s used to construct a confidence interval around the predicted criterion score. The standard error of measurement (answer C) indicates the amount of error that can be expected in an examinee’s obtained (rather than predicted) score and is used to construct a confidence interval around the obtained score.

Question 14

The Kuder Occupational Interest Survey (KOIS) includes all of the following except:
A. Personal Styles Scales.
B. Occupational Scales.
C. College Major Scales.
D. Vocational Interest Estimates.

Answer 14

CORRECT ANSWER

A. Personal Styles Scales.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-PAS-Interest Inventories-02 Answer A is correct. The KOIS includes Occupational Scales, College Major Scales, and Vocational Interest Estimates. The Strong Interest Inventory (SII) includes the Personal Styles Scales.

Question 15

Which of the following is not one of the core symptoms identified in the DSM-5 for neurocognitive disorder with Lewy bodies?
A. fluctuating cognition that involves changes in attention and executive functions
B. recurrent and detailed visual hallucinations
C. compulsive/ritualistic behaviors
D. spontaneous features of parkinsonism

Answer 15

CORRECT ANSWER

C. compulsive/ritualistic behaviors

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-PPA-Neurocognitive Disorders-10 Answer C is correct. The DSM-5 identifies the symptoms listed in answers A, B, and D as the core diagnostic features of neurocognitive disorder with Lewy bodies. Perseverative, stereotyped, or compulsive/ritualistic behavior is a diagnostic criterion for frontotemporal neurocognitive disorder.

Question 16

Which of the following is most useful for understanding McGregor’s (1960) predictions about Theory X and Theory Y management styles?
A. self-fulfilling prophecy effect
B. Hawthorne effect
C. self-serving bias
D. ultimate attribution error

Answer 16

CORRECT ANSWER

A. self-fulfilling prophecy effect

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-ORG-Organizational Theories-10 Answer A is correct. According to McGregor, a supervisor’s beliefs about subordinates’ work-related attitudes and behaviors determine how the supervisor acts toward subordinates which, in turn, affects how subordinates behave. In other words, the supervisor’s beliefs about subordinates have a self-fulfilling prophecy effect on their job performance.

Question 17

The earliest time in fetal development when the fetus has a good chance of survival outside the womb is referred to as the age of viability. The age that marks the lower limit of viability is generally considered to be \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ weeks after conception.
A. 18
B. 22
C. 26
D. 30

Answer 17

CORRECT ANSWER

B. 22

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-LIF-Early Influences on Development – Prenatal Development-03 Answer B is correct. The age of viability reported by different authors varies somewhat, but most agree that it’s between 22 and 26 weeks after conception. See, e.g., L. E. Berk, Child Development (9th ed.), Boston, Pearson, 2013.

Question 18

The Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scales, Fifth Edition (SB5) provides scores on all of the following factors except:
A. Visual-Spatial Processing.
B. Knowledge.
C. Abstract Reasoning.
D. Working Memory.

Answer 18

CORRECT ANSWER

C. Abstract Reasoning.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-PAS-Stanford-Binet and Wechsler Tests-06 Answer C is correct. The SB5 provides scores on five factors: Fluid Reasoning, Knowledge, Quantitative Reasoning, Visual-Spatial Processing, and Working Memory.

Question 19

Technostructural interventions address all of the following except:
A. business process reengineering.
B. process consultation.
C. job enrichment.
D. downsizing.

Answer 19

CORRECT ANSWER

B. process consultation.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-ORG-Organizational Change and Development-05 Answer B is correct. Technostructural interventions focus on an organization’s technology or structure and include business process reengineering, downsizing, job enrichment, and alternative work schedules.

Question 20

Based on the results of their meta-analysis of the research, Khoury and his colleagues (2013) conclude that mindfulness-based therapy (MBT) is:
A. more effective for treating psychological disorders than physical/medical conditions.
B. more effective for treating physical/medical conditions than psychological disorders.
C. equally effective for treating psychological disorders and physical/medical conditions.
D. more effective than traditional CBT for treating both psychological disorders and physical/medical conditions.

Answer 20

CORRECT ANSWER

A. more effective for treating psychological disorders than physical/medical conditions.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-CLI-Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies-11 Answer A is correct. B. Khoury and his colleagues conclude that MBT is (a) moderately effective but not more effective than traditional CBT and (b) more effective for treating psychological disorders than physical/medical conditions (Mindfulness-based therapy: A comprehensive meta-analysis, Clinical Psychology Review, 33, 763-771, 2013).

Question 21

The law of attraction (Byrne, 1971) predicts that people prefer spending time with others who have attitudes that are similar to their own attitudes, and it attributes this preference to which of the following?
A. reciprocity
B. reinforcement
C. self-monitoring
D. social comparison

Answer 21

CORRECT ANSWER

B. reinforcement

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-SOC-Affiliation, Attraction, and Intimacy-06 Answer B is correct. Donn Byrne’s law of attraction states that there’s a positive relationship between attitude similarity and attraction and that this relationship is due to the fact that interacting with people who have similar attitudes is reinforcing because it validates one’s views and produces good feelings.

Question 22

In response to the “Heinz dilemma,” some of Kohlberg’s research subjects said Heinz should steal the drug for his wife because, if he doesn’t do so, other family members will be angry at him and think he’s a horrible person. This response is characteristic of Kohlberg’s \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ level of moral development.
A. unconventional
B. preconventional
C. conventional
D. postconventional

Answer 22

CORRECT ANSWER

B. preconventional

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Moral Development-10 Answer B is correct. Kohlberg’s theory of moral development distinguishes between three levels – preconventional, conventional, and postconventional – and each level includes two stages. Individuals in the first stage of the preconventional level (punishment and obedience orientation) base their judgments on the outcomes of the act and say that Heinz should (or should not) steal the drug because of the negative consequences of doing (or not doing) so.

Question 23

A person who receives a Level X rating on the revised version of the Rancho Scale of Cognitive Functioning:
A. is nonresponsive to all stimuli and requires total assistance.
B. is agitated and confused and requires maximal assistance.
C. is oriented to familiar surroundings but requires supervision due to lack of judgment, problem solving, and planning skills.
D. is able to independently initiate and complete familiar and unfamiliar tasks but may need extra time or compensatory strategies to do so.

Answer 23

CORRECT ANSWER

D. is able to independently initiate and complete familiar and unfamiliar tasks but may need extra time or compensatory strategies to do so.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-PAS-Clinical Tests-04 Answer D is correct. The Rancho Scale of Cognitive Functioning is also known as the Rancho Los Amigos Scale and Rancho Los Amigos Cognitive Scale and is used to assess a patient’s current cognitive functioning following brain injury. Knowing that the revised version consists of 10 levels (I through X) and that higher levels are indicative of better functioning would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.

Question 24

With regard to the transtheoretical model, self-reevaluation and self-liberation are most useful for helping clients transition from the:
A. precontemplation to the contemplation stage.
B. contemplation to the preparation stage.
C. preparation to the engagement stage.
D. maintenance to the termination stage.

Answer 24

CORRECT ANSWER

B. contemplation to the preparation stage.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-CLI-Brief Therapies-05 Answer B is correct. Self-reevaluation and self-liberation are useful strategies for clients in the contemplation and preparation stages because they help them transition to the next stage – i.e., from the contemplation to the preparation stage and then from the preparation to the action stage. Note that answer C is not correct because engagement is not one of the stages identified by the transtheoretical model.

Question 25

When using Meichenbaum’s (1977) self-instructional training to help impulsive children control their behaviors while completing certain tasks, the initial step of training involves which of the following?
A. covert modeling
B. cognitive modeling
C. problem specification
D. orientation

Answer 25

CORRECT ANSWER

B. cognitive modeling

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-CLI-Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies-02 Answer B is correct. Self-instructional training was originally developed to help impulsive children have greater self-control when completing tasks by teaching them to use helpful self-statements to guide their behaviors. It involves five steps: cognitive modeling, overt external guidance, overt self-guidance, faded overt self-guidance, and covert self-instruction.

Question 26

With regard to the transtheoretical model, self-reevaluation and self-liberation are most useful for helping clients transition from the:
A. precontemplation to the contemplation stage.
B. contemplation to the preparation stage.
C. preparation to the engagement stage.
D. maintenance to the termination stage.

Answer 26

CORRECT ANSWER

B. contemplation to the preparation stage.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-CLI-Brief Therapies-05 Answer B is correct. Self-reevaluation and self-liberation are useful strategies for clients in the contemplation and preparation stages because they help them transition to the next stage – i.e., from the contemplation to the preparation stage and then from the preparation to the action stage. Note that answer C is not correct because engagement is not one of the stages identified by the transtheoretical model.

Question 27

When using Meichenbaum’s (1977) self-instructional training to help impulsive children control their behaviors while completing certain tasks, the initial step of training involves which of the following?
A. covert modeling
B. cognitive modeling
C. problem specification
D. orientation

Answer 27

CORRECT ANSWER

B. cognitive modeling

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-CLI-Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies-02 Answer B is correct. Self-instructional training was originally developed to help impulsive children have greater self-control when completing tasks by teaching them to use helpful self-statements to guide their behaviors. It involves five steps: cognitive modeling, overt external guidance, overt self-guidance, faded overt self-guidance, and covert self-instruction.

Question 28

During their initial therapy session with Dr. Haley, Maxine complains that her husband, Max, always makes decisions that affect the two of them without consulting her and she sometimes doesn’t like the outcomes of the decisions he makes. Max says that he often makes major decisions without consulting his wife because she tends to get anxious whenever she has to make a decision. Dr. Haley responds by saying that it sounds like Maxine wants Max to consult her before making any decision – big or small – that will affect both of them, even if this might create a problem such as causing them to miss a deadline or opportunity. The paradoxical technique being used by Dr. Haley is referred to as:
A. reframing.
B. restraining.
C. positioning.
D. prescribing.

Answer 28

CORRECT ANSWER

C. positioning.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-CLI-Family Therapies and Group Therapies-01 Answer C is correct. When using positioning, a therapist aligns with a client’s position but exaggerates it to make it less desirable to the client. Prescribing (answer D) is not the correct answer because it involves telling the client to deliberately engage in the undesirable behavior, often in an exaggerated way. In the situation described in this question, Maxine describes the undesirable behavior as her husband’s making decisions without consulting her, and the therapist is not asking him to continue doing this.

Question 29

Which of the following is not a monocular cue that facilitates depth perception?
A. interposition
B. convergence
C. motion parallax
D. linear perspective

Answer 29

CORRECT ANSWER

B. convergence

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-PHY-Sensation and Perception-07 Answer B is correct. Monocular cues depend on one eye and include the relative size of objects, the overlap (interposition) of objects, linear perspective, texture gradients, and the relative motion of objects (motion parallax). Binocular cues depend on both eyes and include retinal disparity and convergence.

Question 30

When measuring the relationship between Variable X and Variable Y, a restriction in the range of scores on the variables will most likely produce a correlation coefficient that:
A. underestimates the actual relationship between the variables.
B. overestimates the actual relationship between the variables.
C. either under- or overestimates the actual relationship between the variables.
D. neither under- nor overestimates the actual relationship between the variables.

Answer 30

CORRECT ANSWER

A. underestimates the actual relationship between the variables.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-RMS-Correlation and Regression-05 Answer A is correct. To determine the true relationship between variables, scores on both variables must be unrestricted in terms of range. When the range is restricted (e.g., when only low scorers are included in the sample), the resulting correlation coefficient is likely to underestimate their actual relationship.

Question 31

Sleep abnormalities are considered to be core features of major depressive disorder, with research linking it to all of the following except:
A. decreased REM density.
B. decreased REM latency.
C. reduced slow-wave sleep.
D. prolonged sleep latency.

Answer 31

CORRECT ANSWER

A. decreased REM density.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-PPA-Bipolar and Depressive Disorders-05 Answer A is correct. Decreased REM latency (shortened latency from sleep onset to REM sleep), reduced slow-wave (stages 3 and 4) sleep, prolonged sleep latency (a longer time to fall asleep), and increased REM density (more rapid eye movements per unit of time) have been linked to major depressive disorder, especially in adults.

Question 32

Data from the National Epidemiologic Survey on Alcohol and Related Conditions indicate that the rate of alcohol use disorder is highest for first-generation immigrants who:
A. emigrated as adults and have been in the United States for 10 years
B. emigrated as adolescents or adults and have been in the United States for 10 years.
C. emigrated as adolescents or adults and have been in the United States for 15 years.
D. emigrated as children and have been in the United States for 15 years.

Answer 32

CORRECT ANSWER

D. emigrated as children and have been in the United States for 15 years.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-PPA-Substance-Related and Addictive Disorders-07 Answer D is correct. Data from the National Epidemiologic Survey on Alcohol and Related Conditions indicate that the prevalence of alcohol use disorder is highest among native-born Americans, slightly lower among second-generation immigrants, and markedly lower among first-generation immigrants. In addition, among first-generation immigrants, individuals who emigrated to the United States as children have higher rates than those who emigrated as adolescents or adults [C. P. Salas-Wright et al., Substance use disorders among first- and second-generation immigrant adults in the United States: Evidence of an immigrant paradox?, Journal of Studies on Alcohol and Drugs, 75(6), 958-967, 2014].

Question 33

The results of their meta-analysis of the research led Rhodes and Wood (1992) to conclude that which of the following are associated with the greatest susceptibility to persuasion?
A. low levels of both self-esteem and intelligence
B. moderate levels of both self-esteem and intelligence
C. low levels of self-esteem and moderate levels of intelligence
D. moderate levels of self-esteem and low levels of intelligence

Answer 33

CORRECT ANSWER

D. moderate levels of self-esteem and low levels of intelligence

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-SOC-Persuasion-04 Answer D is correct. Rhodes and Wood found an inverted U-shaped relationship between self-esteem and influenceability with moderate levels of self-esteem being associated with the greatest susceptibility to influence. In contrast, they found a linear relationship between intelligence and influenceability, with lower levels of intelligence being associated with greater influenceability.

Question 34

Which of the following is most consistent with ethical guidelines for accepting contingent fees when providing professional services in a legal proceeding?
A. Accepting contingent fees is prohibited under any circumstances.
B. Accepting contingent fees should usually be avoided.
C. Accepting contingent fees is acceptable when all parties voluntarily agree to this arrangement.
D. Accepting contingent fees is acceptable only when a psychologist has determined that doing so is in the best interests of all parties.

Answer 34

CORRECT ANSWER

B. Accepting contingent fees should usually be avoided.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 5 & 6-10 Answer B is correct. The APA Ethics Code does not refer to contingent fees, but they are addressed in Paragraph 5.02 of the APA’s Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology. It states that, “because of the threat to impartiality presented by the acceptance of contingent fees and associated legal prohibitions, forensic practitioners strive to avoid providing professional services on the basis of contingent fees.” This answer is also consistent with the requirements of the Canadian Code of Ethics regarding fees for professional services and conflicts of interest (e.g., Principle III.28).

Question 35

Linking the requirements for successful job performance for all jobs or a subset of jobs within an organization to the organization’s mission, values, goals, and strategies is characteristic of which of the following?
A. organizational analysis
B. strategic job analysis
C. competency modeling
D. job evaluation

Answer 35

CORRECT ANSWER

C. competency modeling

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-ORG-Job Analysis and Performance Assessment-04 Answer C is correct. Competency modeling is similar to job analysis but focuses on the core competencies that are required to successfully perform all jobs or a subset of jobs within an organization and are linked to the organization’s mission, values, goals, and strategies.

Question 36

The Introduction and Applicability section of APA’s Ethics Code states that the APA may take action against a member when:
A. a complaint has been filed against the member with the ethics committee.
B. a complaint has been filed against the member with the ethics committee or the member has been expelled from an affiliated state psychological association or convicted of a felony.
C. a complaint has been filed against the member with the ethics committee or the member has been expelled from an affiliated state psychological association or convicted of a felony or misdemeanor.
D. a complaint has been filed against the member with the ethics committee or the member has been expelled from an affiliated state psychological association or convicted of a felony or misdemeanor that’s related to his/her role as a psychologist.

Answer 36

CORRECT ANSWER

B. a complaint has been filed against the member with the ethics committee or the member has been expelled from an affiliated state psychological association or convicted of a felony.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Overview and Standards 1 & 2-08 Answer B is correct. The Introduction and Applicability section of APA’s Ethics Code states that “APA may take action against a member after his or her conviction of a felony, expulsion or suspension from an affiliated state psychological association, or suspension or loss of licensure.” As noted by C. B. Fisher, the felony conviction does not have to be related to activities the member performed in his or her role as a psychologist (Decoding the Ethics Code, Thousand Oaks, CA, SAGE Publications, 2017).

Question 37

According to the DSM-5, about \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ of women have symptoms that are sufficiently severe to meet the criteria for a major depressive episode during pregnancy or the weeks or months after delivery. In contrast, other sources most often report \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ rates.
A. 3 to 6%; lower
B. 3 to 6%; higher
C. 8 to 12%; lower
D. 8 to 12%; higher

Answer 37

CORRECT ANSWER

B. 3 to 6%; higher

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-PPA-Bipolar and Depressive Disorders-06 Answer B is correct. Estimates of peripartum depression (major depressive disorder with peripartum onset in the DSM-5) vary somewhat: The DSM-5 states that “between 3% and 6% of women will experience the onset of a major depressive episode during pregnancy or in the weeks or months following delivery.” In contrast, other sources usually report higher rates, often in the 10 to 20% range.

Question 38

An orthogonal rotation of factors identified in a factor analysis produces a communality of .30 for one of the tests included in the analysis. This means that \_\_\_\_% of variability in scores on that test is explained by the factor analysis.
A. 9
B. 49
C. 30
D. 70

Answer 38

CORRECT ANSWER

C. 30

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-TES-Test Validity – Content and Construct Validity-02 Answer C is correct. For the exam, keep in mind that a factor loading is interpreted by squaring it to determine the amount of variability in test scores that’s explained by ONE factor, while a communality is interpreted directly as the amount of variability in test scores that’s explained by ALL of the identified factors: When a test’s communality is .30, this means that the identified factors explain 30% of variability in test scores.

Question 39

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease ordinarily has a:
A. long latency period followed by a rapid deterioration in functioning.
B. long latency period followed by a gradual deterioration in functioning.
C. short latency period followed by a rapid deterioration in functioning.
D. short latency period followed by a gradual deterioration in functioning.

Answer 39

CORRECT ANSWER

A. long latency period followed by a rapid deterioration in functioning.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-PPA-Neurocognitive Disorders-11 Answer A is correct. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is categorized in the DSM-5 as a neurocognitive disorder due to prion disease. It’s caused by a slow-acting virus that has a long latency period; however, once symptoms appear, deterioration in functioning is rapid.

Question 40

When using percent agreement to assess the inter-rater reliability of a behavior observation scale, it’s important to keep in mind that doing so may:
A. underestimate reliability because it’s susceptible to rater biases.
B. overestimate reliability because it’s susceptible to rater biases.
C. underestimate reliability because it’s affected by chance agreement.
D. overestimate reliability because it’s affected by chance agreement.

Answer 40

ORRECT ANSWER

D. overestimate reliability because it’s affected by chance agreement.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-TES-Item Analysis and Test Reliability-01 Answer D is correct. A certain amount of chance agreement between two or more raters is possible, especially for behavior observation scales when the behavior occurs frequently. Percent agreement is easy to calculate but, because it’s affected by chance agreement, it may overestimate a measure’s inter-rater reliability. (Note that answers A and B can be eliminated because, while behavior observation scales are often susceptible to rater biases, this question is asking about percent agreement as a measure of inter-rater reliability, not about behavior observation scales.)

Question 41

Which of the following is least likely to be the optimal intervention when a child’s target behavior is harmful to him/herself or others?
A. response cost
B. operant extinction
C. overcorrection
D. DRO

Answer 41

CORRECT ANSWER

B. operant extinction

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-LEA-Interventions Based on Operant Conditioning-04 Answer B is correct. Of the interventions listed in the answers, operant extinction would be the least desirable when the target behavior is harmful to the individual or others because extinction often causes an increase in the behavior (an extinction burst) before the behavior begins to decrease.

Question 42

The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is a nonverbal measure of fluid intelligence that provides information on attention, memory, visualization, and reasoning.
A. PPVT
B. Leiter-3
C. KABC-2
D. Raven’s SPM

Answer 42

CORRECT ANSWER

B. Leiter-3

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-PAS-Other Measures of Cognitive Ability-07 Answer B is correct. The Leiter-3 is a nonverbal measure of fluid intelligence for individuals ages 3 to 75+ years of age and includes subtests that measure attention, memory, visualization, and reasoning.

Question 43

The manifest needs identified by Henry Murray are assessed by which of the following?
A. 16 PF
B. MBTI
C. NEO-PI-3
D. EPPS

Answer 43

CORRECT ANSWER

D. EPPS

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-PAS-Other Measures of Personality-05 Answer D is correct. The items included in the EPPS (Edwards Personal Preference Schedule) assess the 15 manifest needs identified in Murray’s theory of needs (e.g., achievement, autonomy, affiliation, dominance).

Question 44

Which of the following best describes ethical requirements regarding debriefing research participants about the nature and results of a research study?
A. Participants must always be debriefed as soon as possible after their participation in a research study.
B. Participants should ordinarily be debriefed as soon as possible but, in some cases, debriefing may be delayed or withheld.
C. Participants must be debriefed only when there’s a chance they were psychologically or physically harmed by the research.
D. Participants must be debriefed as soon as possible only when they were deceived about important aspects of the study.

Answer 44

CORRECT ANSWER

B. Participants should ordinarily be debriefed as soon as possible but, in some cases, debriefing may be delayed or withheld.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 7 & 8-06 Answer B is correct. Debriefing is addressed in Standard 8.08 of the APA’s Ethics Code and in Principles III.16 and III.25 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 8.08(a) requires psychologists to promptly debrief research participants “about the nature, results, and conclusions of the research.” However, Standard 8.08(b) states that “if scientific or humane values justify delaying or withholding this information, psychologists take reasonable measures to reduce the risk of harm.” Answer D is not the best answer because it’s not true that participants must be debriefed as soon as possible only when the study involved deception.

Question 45

Baddeley’s (2000) multi-component model of working memory describes the episodic buffer as being responsible for:
A. integrating new verbal and visual information with information in long-term memory.
B. selectively attending to and encoding incoming sensory signals.
C. storing incoming verbal and visual information before it’s transmitted to short-term memory.
D. temporarily storing incoming information before it’s transferred to the phonological loop or visuo-spatial sketchpad.

Answer 45

CORRECT ANSWER

A. integrating new verbal and visual information with information in long-term memory.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-LEA-Memory and Forgetting-01 Answer A is correct. A. D. Baddeley’s multi-component model describes working memory as consisting of a central executive and three subcomponents – the phonological loop, visuo-spatial sketchpad, and episodic buffer. The episodic buffer is responsible for integrating new verbal and visual information from the phonological loop and visuo-spatial sketchpad with information that’s already stored in long-term memory (The episodic buffer: A new component of working memory, Trends in Cognitive Science, 4, 417-423, 2000).

Question 46

The reinforcing effects of alcohol, psychostimulants, and opiates have been linked to elevated levels of dopamine in the:
A. mesolimbic pathway.
B. nigrostriatal pathway.
C. cortico-striatal pathway.
D. ventromedial pathway.

Answer 46

CORRECT ANSWER

A. mesolimbic pathway.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-PHY-Nervous System, Neurons, and Neurotransmitters-09 Answer A is correct. The mesolimbic dopaminergic pathway is also known as the brain’s reward pathway. Elevated activity in this pathway is responsible for the reinforcing (addictive) effects of drugs that increase dopamine levels.

Question 47

Sue and Sue (2015) propose that an African American client who has which of the following is most likely to challenge the credibility and trustworthiness of a White therapist who has an internal locus of control and internal locus of responsibility.
A. internal locus of control and internal locus of responsibility
B. internal locus of control and external locus of responsibility
C. external locus of control and internal locus of responsibility
D. external locus of control and external locus of responsibility

Answer 47

CORRECT ANSWER

B. internal locus of control and external locus of responsibility

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-10 Answer B is correct. Sue and Sue describe worldview in terms of two dimensions – locus of control and locus of responsibility. They note that an internal locus of control and internal locus of responsibility are characteristic of Western approaches to psychotherapy. They also state that White therapists with this worldview are likely to have the most problems when working with clients from racial/ethnic minority groups who have an internal locus of control and external locus of responsibility because these clients are most likely to challenge the therapist’s credibility and trustworthiness.

Question 48

Researchers using the mirror task have found that self-recognition emerges in about 50% of children at \_\_\_\_\_ months of age.
A. nine
B. twelve
C. fifteen
D. eighteen

Answer 48

CORRECT ANSWER

D. eighteen

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Temperament and Personality-02 Answer D is correct. The mirror task involves putting a mark on an infant’s head before placing the infant in front of a mirror. Infants demonstrate self-recognition when they see the mark in the mirror and touch their own foreheads rather than the forehead of the image in the mirror. For about 50% of infants, this first occurs when they’re 18 months of age. See, e.g., M. Nielsen, T. Suddendorf, and V. Slaughter, Mirror self-recognition beyond the face, Child Development, 77(1), 176-185, 2006.

Question 49

Organizational analysis, task analysis, person analysis, and demographic analysis are the four levels of a:
A. work-oriented job analysis.
B. worker-oriented job analysis.
C. needs assessment.
D. job evaluation.

Answer 49

CORRECT ANSWER

C. needs assessment.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-ORG-Training Methods and Evaluation-09 Answer C is correct. A needs assessment (also known as needs analysis) is conducted to identify training needs and often includes an organizational analysis, task analysis, person analysis, and demographic analysis.

Question 50

Integrity tests used to assist with selection decisions are categorized as either:
A. situational judgment or behavioral.
B. covert or behavior-based.
C. objective or subjective.
D. overt or personality-based.

Answer 50

CORRECT ANSWER

D. overt or personality-based.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-ORG-Employee Selection – Techniques-01 Answer D is correct. There are two main types of integrity tests: Overt integrity tests ask directly about attitudes toward and previous history of dishonesty and theft, while personality-based integrity tests (also known as covert tests) assess aspects of personality that have been linked to dishonesty, disciplinary problems, sabotage, and other counterproductive behaviors.

Question 51

Which of the following drugs slows the cognitive decline associated with Alzheimer’s disease by blocking the effects of glutamate rather than by increasing cholinergic activity?
A. galantamine.
B. memantine.
C. rivastigmine.
D. donepezil.

Answer 51

CORRECT ANSWER

B. memantine.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-PHY-Psychopharmacology – Other Psychoactive Drugs-02 Answer B is correct. All four drugs listed in the answers to this question are used to slow the cognitive decline caused by Alzheimer’s disease. Galantamine (Razadyne), rivastigmine (Exelon), and donepezil (Aricept) do so by increasing cholinergic activity (i.e., by preventing the breakdown of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine), while memantine (Namenda) does so by regulating glutamate activity.

Question 52

During the first phase of stress inoculation training (SIT), a therapist will most likely help a client:
A. recognize that his/her stress-related performance problems are due to skill deficits.
B. identify ways to minimize the stressors that are negatively impacting his/her life.
C. increase his/her sense of coping self-efficacy for dealing with stress.
D. construct a stress management hierarchy.

Answer 52

CORRECT ANSWER

A. recognize that his/her stress-related performance problems are due to skill deficits.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-CLI-Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies-07 Answer A is correct. SIT consists of three phases (conceptualization, skill acquisition and rehearsal, and application and follow-through), and helping clients recognize that stress-related performance problems are due to skill deficits is one of the tasks of the initial conceptualization phase. This is a difficult question but knowing that skill acquisition and rehearsal is the second phase of SIT would have helped you identify the correct answer: It makes sense that, before learning new skills, a client would have to recognize that his/her inability to adequately cope with stress is due to skill deficits. See, e.g., D. Meichenbaum and R. Cameron, Stress inoculation training: Toward a paradigm for training coping skills, in D. Meichenbaum and M. E. Jaremko (Eds.), Stress reduction and prevention (pp. 115-154), New York, Plenum Press, 1983.

Question 53

According to Helms’s (1993) White racial identity development model, a person in the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ stage has little awareness of racial/cultural issues and has adopted a race- or culture-neutral perspective.
A. conformity
B. pre-encounter
C. pseudo-independence
D. contact

Answer 53

CORRECT ANSWER

D. contact

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Identity Development Models-04 Answer D is correct. Helms’s White racial identity development model distinguishes between six stages (statuses). In order, these are contact, disintegration, reintegration, pseudo-independence, immersion-emersion, and autonomy. According to this model, people in the initial contact stage have little awareness of racial or cultural issues, are satisfied with the racial status quo, and have adopted a race- or culture-neutral perspective.

Question 54

The Halstead-Reitan produces an Impairment Index, and the recommended cutoff score for brain impairment for individuals with IQ scores of 100 or higher is:
A. .4
B. .8
C. -1.0
D. 5.0

Answer 54

CORRECT ANSWER

A. .4

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-PAS-Clinical Tests-03 Answer A is correct. The Halstead-Reitan Impairment Index indicates the proportion of subtests that show evidence of brain impairment and ranges from 0 to 1.0, with higher scores indicating greater impairment. The recommended cutoff score for brain impairment depends on the individual’s IQ: For those with an IQ of 100 or higher, the cutoff score is .4; for those with an IQ less than 100, the cutoff is .5. See, e.g., A. M. Horton, The Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Test Battery: Past, present, and future, A. M. Horton and D. Wedding (Eds.), The neuropsychology handbook (3rd ed., pp. 251-278), New York, Springer Publishing Company, 2008.

Question 55

During a couple’s first therapy session, the husband says, “my life would be a lot better if I wasn’t so angry all of the time.” The therapist, a practitioner of narrative family therapy, will most likely respond to the man’s statement by asking him which of the following questions?
A. How has your anger affected your marriage?
B. How long has anger been controlling your life?
C. What would your life be like if you weren’t so angry?
D. Does being angry help you in any way?

Answer 55

CORRECT ANSWER

B. How long has anger been controlling your life?

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-CLI-Family Therapies and Group Therapies-06 Answer B is correct. Externalizing the problem is a core strategy of narrative family therapy and involves “reframing the problem from an internal deficiency or pathological condition in the individual to an objectified external and unwelcome narrative with a will of its own to dominate their lives” [H. Goldenberg and I. Goldenberg, Family therapy: An overview (8th ed.), Belmont, CA, 2012, p. 403]. Of the questions listed in the answers, a narrative family therapist is most likely to ask how long the man’s anger has been controlling his life since this would help externalize and objectify the anger.

Question 56

Sherif and Hovland’s (1961) social judgment theory predicts that which of the following affects the size of a person’s latitudes of acceptance, rejection, and non-commitment when that person is exposed to a persuasive message advocating a position that’s opposite to his/her current position?
A. the person’s use of the peripheral or central route to process the information contained in the message
B. the person’s belief about his/her ability to perform the behavior advocated by the message
C. the person’s prior exposure to the arguments presented in the message
D. the person’s ego-involvement with the issue addressed by the message

Answer 56

CORRECT ANSWER

D. the person’s ego-involvement with the issue addressed by the message

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-SOC-Attitudes and Attitude Change-02 Answer D is correct. Social judgment theory is based on the assumption that the relative sizes of the latitudes of acceptance, rejection, and non-commitment are affected by the person’s ego-involvement with the issue addressed by the persuasive message: As the person’s level of ego-involvement increases, the latitudes of acceptance and non-commitment become smaller and the latitude of rejection becomes larger.

Question 57

The research suggests that, of the following individuals, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ are most likely to report seeking treatment for substance use and/or psychological problems.
A. heterosexual women
B. lesbian and bisexual women
C. heterosexual men
D. gay and bisexual men

Answer 57

CORRECT ANSWER

B. lesbian and bisexual women

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-CLI-Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-08 Answer B is correct. Consistent with other studies, C. E. Grella, L. Greenwell, V. M. Mays, and S. D. Cochran found that lesbian and bisexual women were most likely to report seeking treatment for substance use and mental disorders, followed by gay and bisexual men, heterosexual women, and heterosexual men [Influence of gender, sexual orientation, and need on treatment utilization for substance use and mental disorders: Findings from the California quality of life survey, BMC Psychiatry, 9(52), 1-10, 2009].

Question 58

Hackman and Oldham’s (1980) job characteristics model distinguishes between five core job dimensions that contribute to three critical psychological states that, in turn, promote work satisfaction, motivation, and performance. Which of the following is not one of the five core job dimensions?
A. feedback
B. task significance
C. autonomy
D. task complexity

Answer 58

CORRECT ANSWER

D. task complexity

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-ORG-Theories of Motivation-03 Answer D is correct. The five core job dimensions identified by the job characteristics model are skill variety, task identity, task significance, autonomy, and feedback.

Question 59

Of the following, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ conditioning produces the fastest acquisition of a conditioned response.
A. backward
B. trace
C. delay
D. simultaneous

Answer 59

CORRECT ANSWER

C. delay

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-LEA-Classical Conditioning-07 Answer C is correct. Delay conditioning is a type of forward conditioning in which presentation of the conditioned stimulus precedes and overlaps presentation of the unconditioned stimulus. Of the methods for presenting the conditioned and unconditioned stimuli, delay conditioning produces the fastest acquisition of the conditioned response.

Question 60

A revised version of the original dopamine hypothesis proposes that the negative symptoms of schizophrenia are due to:
A. hyperactive dopamine transmission in certain subcortical areas of the brain.
B. hypoactive dopamine transmission in certain subcortical areas of the brain.
C. hyperactive dopamine transmission in certain cortical areas of the brain.
D. hypoactive dopamine transmission in certain cortical areas of the brain.

Answer 60

CORRECT ANSWER

D. hypoactive dopamine transmission in certain cortical areas of the brain.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-PPA-Schizophrenia Spectrum/Other Psychotic Disorders-08 Answer D is correct. The research has not provided entirely consistent results but suggests that factors that contribute to the positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia differ: One theory is that positive symptoms are due to dopamine hyperactivity in subcortical regions of the brain (especially certain striatal areas), while negative symptoms are due to dopamine hypoactivity in cortical regions (especially the prefrontal cortex). See, e.g., R. Kuepper, M. Skinbjerg, and A. Abi-Dargham, The dopamine dysfunction in schizophrenia revisited: New insights into topography and course, in G. Gross and M. A. Geyer (Eds.), Current antipsychotics (pp. 1-26), New York, Springer, 2012.

Question 61

Which of the following is not one of the required conditions for a claim of malpractice against a psychologist?
A. The psychologist had a legal duty to provide professional services to the client.
B. The client was psychologically or physically harmed or injured.
C. The psychologist breached his/her legal duty by providing services that did not meet the professional standard of care.
D. The psychologist knew or should have known the professional services he/she provided would cause harm to the client.

Answer 61

CORRECT ANSWER

D. The psychologist knew or should have known the professional services he/she provided would cause harm to the client.

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-ETH-Professional Issues-09 Answer D is correct. Four conditions are required for a claim of malpractice: (a) The psychologist must have had a professional relationship with the client that established the psychologist’s duty to conform to a professional standard of care. (b) There was a dereliction or breach of the duty on the part of the psychologist. (c) The client suffered injury or harm as a result of this dereliction or breach. (d) The psychologist’s dereliction or breach of duty was the direct or proximate cause of the person’s harm or injury.

Question 62

Research has found that in-group members consistently attribute the behaviors of out-group members to dispositional factors when the behaviors produce undesirable outcomes, but consistently attribute the behaviors of out-group members to situational factors when they produce desirable outcomes. This result is consistent with the predictions of which of the following?
A. fundamental attribution error
B. actor-observer effect
C. ultimate attribution error
D. confirmation bias

Answer 62

CORRECT ANSWER

C. ultimate attribution error

EXPLANATION

EPPP-D1-SOC-Social Cognition – Causal Attributions-05 Answer C is correct. The ultimate attribution error applies to attributions made about members of an entire group. It occurs when members of an in-group consistently attribute negative outcomes for out-group members to dispositional factors and positive outcomes to situational factors.

Question 63

Linking the requirements for successful job performance to organizational values, goals, and strategies is characteristic of which of the following?

A. job evaluation

B. job analysis

C. competency modeling

D. performance feedback

Answer 63

CORRECT ANSWER

C. competency modeling
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P3-ORG-Job Analysis and Performance Assessment-01 Answer C is correct. Competency modeling is similar to job analysis but focuses on the core competencies that are required to successfully perform all jobs or a subset of jobs within an organization and are linked to the organization’s values, goals, and strategies

Question 64

You would use which of the following statistical tests to compare the number of adults living in a rural, urban, or suburban community who have received a diagnosis of a bipolar disorder, depressive disorder, or anxiety disorder?

A. single-sample chi-square test

B. multiple-sample chi-square test

C. one-way ANOVA

D. factorial ANOVA

Answer 64

B is correct. The first and second steps in identifying the appropriate statistical test are identifying the study’s independent and dependent variables and the scale of measurement of the dependent variable. This study has two variables (diagnosis and community type); however, it’s a descriptive study rather than an experimental study, so it’s difficult to identify one of the variables as the independent variable and the other as the dependent variable. In this situation, you identify the scale of measurement of the data to be analyzed. The data are the frequency (number) of individuals in each category – e.g., the number of people who live in an urban area and have received a diagnosis of a bipolar disorder. In other words, the scale of measurement is nominal: Subjects will not receive a score but will belong to a category. The chi-square test is used to analyze nominal data and, when there’s more than one variable, the multiple-sample chi-square test is the appropriate test. Note that the multiple-sample chi-square test is also known as the chi-square test for contingency tables.

Question 65

Antisocial and histrionic personality disorders share several characteristics. In contrast to antisocial personality disorder, however, histrionic personality disorder is characterized by which of the following?

A. superficiality

B. manipulativeness

C. exaggerated expression of emotions

D. feelings of deep emptiness

Answer 65

C is correct. The DSM-5 notes that antisocial and histrionic personality disorders share several characteristics including impulsivity, superficiality, and manipulativeness; however, people with histrionic personality disorder “tend to be more exaggerated in their emotions and do not characteristically engage in antisocial behaviors” (p. 669). In addition, people with histrionic personality disorder are manipulative in order to gain nurturance, while those with antisocial personality disorder are manipulative in order to gain power or material rewards.

Question 66

A psychologist designs a study to compare the effects of mindfulness-based cognitive therapy (MBCT) and mindfulness-based stress reduction (MBSR) on the anxiety symptoms of clinic patients who have just received a diagnosis of social anxiety disorder. The study will involve randomly assigning patients to one of the two treatments and measuring their level of social anxiety during the first treatment session and one week, one month, and three months following the end of treatment. The psychologist is using which of the following research designs?

A. counterbalanced

B. between subjects

C. multiple baseline

D. mixed

Answer 66

D is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question, you have to recognize that this study has two independent variables: type of treatment and time. (Time is an independent variable when the dependent variable is measured on multiple occasions during the course of the study.) Type of treatment is a between-subjects variable because each subject will participate in only one of the two interventions (MBCT or MBSR), while time is a within-subjects variable because each subject’s level of anxiety will be measured four times. When a study includes at least one between-subjects variable and one within-subjects variable, the study has a mixed design.

Question 67

When designing and conducting a research study, you can increase statistical power by doing which of the following?

A. reducing the size of alpha

B. decreasing the effect size

C. randomly selecting subjects from the population

D. using a parametric test when it’s appropriate to do so

Answer 67

Answer D is correct. Increasing the size of alpha, increasing the effect size (the magnitude of the effects of the independent variable), and using a parametric test when it’s appropriate to do so are methods for increasing statistical power, which is the ability to reject a false null hypothesis. Randomly selecting subjects from the population increases a study’s external validity but does not affect statistical power.