RRS, RPCB (Reactor Regulating System, Reactor Power Cut Back) Flashcards

1
Q

Group 5 CEAs are 140 inches withdrawn with CEDMCS in Auto sequential.
A Control Channel detector fails high.
RRS is selected to the failed detector.
Which of the following describes the RRS Response?

A. No CEA motion will occur due to the AMI being generated.
B. CEAs may insert a few steps due to the Rate of Change circuit sensing a power error.
C. No CEA motion will occur due to the Rate of Change circuit eliminating the effects of the instrument failure.
D. CEAs may attempt to withdraw a few steps due to the Rate of Change circuit sensing a power error.

A

B. CEAs may insert a few steps due to the Rate of Change circuit sensing a power error.

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2
Q

The loss of which power supply causes the following impact on RRS?
No input to rod control system.
Auto rod control is inoperable.
Loss of input to Pressurizer Level Control System.

A. NNN-D11
B. NNN-D12
C. NNN-D15
D. NNN-D16

A

B. NNN-D12

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3
Q

The function of the Dropped Rod Contact (DRC) is to…

A. Reset the individual CEA pulse counter.
B. Stop all rod motion in any CEDMCS mode.
C. Reset Reactor Power Cutback (RPCB) flag in COLSS.
D. Initiate an auto reactor trip if two or more rods drop in the core.

A

A. Reset the individual CEA pulse counter.

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4
Q

Unit is operating at rated power.
Regulating Group 5 has been transferred to the hold bus.
The ‘B’ Main Feed Pump trips.
Which of the following describes the plant response?

A. A normal RPCB will be initiated with all RPCB selected subgroups dropping into the core.
B. The reactor will trip if group 5 is not inserted manually within 40 seconds following the RPCB signal.
C. A RPCB will initiate with group four providing sufficient negative reactivity to offset the reduction of feedwater.
D. A RPCB will initiate but the reactor will trip immediately.

A

D. A RPCB will initiate but the reactor will trip immediately.

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5
Q

How is a CEA determined to be fully inserted?

A. Lower Group Stop (LGS)
B. CEA Withdrawal Prohibit (CWP)
C. Automatic Motion Inhibit (AMI)
D. Lower Electrical Limit (LEL)

A

D. Lower Electrical Limit (LEL)

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6
Q

In response to a Continuous Gripper High Voltage alarm, an operator is transferring a subgroup to the hold bus. What operator action actually energizes the upper gripper from the hold bus?

A. Operating the transfer toggle switch.
B. Selecting the appropriate subgroup on the SG/SEL thumbwheel.
C. Pushing the red light above the subgroup number on the hold bus panel.
D. Closing the Individual CEA breakers on the Hold Bus Power Switch Assembly.

A

A. Operating the transfer toggle switch.

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7
Q

In the CPCs which one of the following describes how the ‘A’ CPC determines where its ‘Target CEAs’ are located?
CEA position information is provided by:

A. RSPT-1 to CPP-1A to CEAC-1A to CPC A
B. RSPT-1 to CPP-1A to CEAC-2A to CPC A
C. RSPT-2 to CPP-1A to CEAC-1A to CPC A
D. RSPT-2 to CPP-1A to CEAC-2A to CPC A

A

A. RSPT-1 to CPP-1A to CEAC-1A to CPC A

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8
Q

Which of the following conditions will cause a CWP?

A. ASI pre trip
B. Reactor Power Cutback
C. VOPT pre trip
D. Low SG pressure pre trip

A

B. Reactor Power Cutback

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9
Q

Unit is operating at 100% power.
RRS Tavg is selected to LOOP #2.
TAVG-TREF HI-LO alarms.
Loops Temp Hi alarms.
All Control Systems in their normal Full Power Line-up.
Which of the following would be an immediate consequence of the above indications, if the alarms were caused by an instrument malfunction?

A. Pressurizer spray full on.
B. CEAs driving in.
C. Letdown increasing dramatically.
D. SBCS permissive signal in for all valves.

A

B. CEAs driving in.

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10
Q

Which one of the following RRS failures would result in an AMI (Automatic Motion Inhibit) and an AWP (Automatic Withdrawal Prohibit)? Assume all switches are in AVERAGE.

A. Tcold fails low.
B. TLI fails high.
C. UIC #1 fails low.
D. Tcold fails high.

A

D. Tcold fails high.

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11
Q

With the plant operating at 100% power steady state conditions, which of the following describes plant response to a T-hot input failing high when RRS is selected to that channel?
(Assume all controls are in automatic and NO operator action)
RRS will send…

A. An AMI signal to CEDMCS.
B. An AWP signal to CEDMCS due to Tref>Tavg.
C. A signal to CEDMCS causing CEA’s to withdraw.
D. A signal to CEDMCS causing CEA’s to insert.

A

D. A signal to CEDMCS causing CEA’s to insert.

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12
Q

A large load rejection has resulted in a RPCB.
This load rejection was due to a spurious failure in the EHC system and did NOT result in a turbine trip.
The operating crew desires to pick up load on the Main Turbine.
RPCB has been taken to Test Reset and Auto Actuate Out of Service.
In order to accomplish this, the Secondary Operator must…

A. Reduce turbine load below 15% to clear the SETBACK, then raise load as desired using the LOAD LIMIT potentiometer.
B. Raise the setting of the LOAD LIMIT potentiometer, since the setting of this control follows the SETBACK and RUNBACK down.
C. Simply reduce the LOAD LIMIT potentiometer until the LOAD LIMITING light comes on, then pick up load as necessary.
D. Perform this manipulation with the LOAD SET pushbutton since the LOAD LIMIT potentiometer is out of the circuit until the original (pre-rejection) load has been established.

A

C. Simply reduce the LOAD Limit potentiometer until the LOAD LIMITING light comes on, then pick up load as necessary.

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13
Q
Unit 1 is operating at rated power.
A Main Turbine trip occurs.
A RPCB fails to automatic actuate.
The Primary Operator IMMEDIATELY depresses the following two push buttons simultaneously:
‘DROP SUBGRPS’
‘LOSS OF FEEDPUMP’
Comparing the plant response to this action versus how the plant would have responded if the ‘LARGE LOAD REJECT’ pushbutton has been depressed, which of the following is accurate?
The actions taken would result in....

A. More CEAs dropped on the RPCB.
B. A larger rise in pressurizer pressure.
C. Fewer CEAs dropped on the RPCB.
D. A smaller rise in pressurizer pressure.

A

B. A larger rise in pressurizer pressure.

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14
Q

Which one of the following describes how a loss of NNN-D12 effects the operation of the RPCS?

A. A turbine setback and runback will function, the CEAs will not drop.
B. The system will function to drop CEAs and all turbine features will not operate.
C. The system will function to drop CEAs and runback the turbine and the setback feature will not function.
D. The system will function to drop CEAs, the runback feature will not function and the turbine will setback.

A

D. The system will function to drop CEAs, the runback feature will not function and the turbine will setback.

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15
Q

Unit 1 is operating at rated power with the Reactor Power Cutback System in service.
The TEST/RESET pushbutton is inadvertently pressed and backlit, he presses it again to get the light to go out and doesn’t tell anyone.
Several minutes later, one of the Main Feed Pumps trip.
Which ONE of the following describes the plant response?

A. A normal RPCB will occur.
B. CEAs will drop, but a turbine setback and runback will not occur.
C. A RPCV will not occur.
D. A turbine setback and runback will occur, but the CEAs will not drop.

A

D. A turbine setback and runback will occur, but the CEAs will not drop.

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16
Q

Unit 1 is operating at rated power.
RPCS is in service with subgroups 4, 5 and 22 selected.
A Main Feed Pump trips.
In an unrelated failure, a Steam Header Pressure Transmitter (PT-1024) fails high.
Based on this, the RPCS will drop selected CEAs and the Main Turbine will ____.

A. Setback, Continuously Runback.
B. Setback, Not Runback.
C. Not Setback, Not Runback.
D. Not Setback, Continuously Runback

A

A. Setback, Continuously Runback.

17
Q

Which of the following statements is true concerning the Turbine Setback Signal sent to the EHC system on a Reactor Power Cutback Actuation?

A. The Turbine Setback Signal is generated by a circuit that looks at steam header pressure and Tavg.
B. The Turbine Setback Signal drives the load set motor back at 480%/min until TLI is at 60% load.
C. The Turbine Setback seal-in contact in the EHC system is automatically cleared 10 seconds after the Reactor Power Cutback System is reset.
D. The load limit potentiometer must be run up until the ‘LOAD LIMIT’ light illuminates to reset the Turbine setback.

A

B. The Turbine Setback Signal drives the load set motor back at 480%/min until TLI is at 60% load.

18
Q

Unit 1 is operating at rated power.
Reactor Power Cutback is in service with rods selected.
The Big Main Feed Pump trips.
Which of the following conditions will NOT result in a reactor trip?

A. Subgroup 5 has been transferred to the hold bus.
B. A single rod in group 4 fails to drop.
C. SGN-PT-1024 fails high.
D. Concurrent loss of NNN-D11

A

C. SGN-PT-1024 fails high.

19
Q

Which of the following happens 10 seconds following a Reactor Power Cutback Signal?

A. Drop signal #1 is removed allowing the turbine to respond to load changes.
B. Drop #1 and #2 signal lock in until reset by the TEST/RESET pushbutton.
C. The arm signal is removed allowing CEA withdrawal under automatic control
D. Turbine increase inhibit signal prevents the Increase Load pushbutton from increasing load.

A

C. The arm signal is removed allowing CEA withdrawal under automatic control.

20
Q

Which one of the following describes how RRS develops CEA motion demand?

A. Power error signal ONLY.
B. Temperature error ONLY.
C. Power error compensated by rate of change of temperature error signal.
D. Temperature error compensated by rate of change of power error signal.

A

D. Temperature error compensated by rate of change of power error signal.

21
Q

With RRS Tavg selected to AVERAGE, which of the following will generate a Reactor Regulating System Automatic Motion Inhibit (AMI):

A. Th > 575F
B. RC > 575F
C. Tavg deviation > 5F
D. Tavg - Tref > 6F

A

C. Tavg deviation > 5F

22
Q

Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.
RRS Tavg is selected to LOOP #2.
TAVG-TREF HI-LO alarms.
All Control Systems in their normal Full Power Line-up.
Which of the following would be an immediate consequence of the above indications, if the alarms were caused by an instrument malfunction?

A. Pressurizer spray full on.
B. CEAs driving in.
C. Letdown increasing dramatically.
D. Auto Motion Inhibit alarm.

A

B. CEAs driving.

23
Q

Which one of the following RRS failures would result in an AMI (Automatic Motion Inhibit) and an AWP (Automatic Withdrawal Prohibit)? Assume all switches are in AVERAGE.

A. Tcold fails high.
B. Tcold fails low.
C. TLI fails high.
D. UIC #1 fails low.

A

A. Tcold fails high.

24
Q
Reactor power 50% and stable.
CEDMCS in Auto Sequential.
RRS selected to Tavg 1.
T-hot instrument RCN-TDI-111X fails low.
CEAs are withdrawing.
Crew selects Tavg 2 at RRS Test Panel.
If no other actions are taken by the crew, the CEAs will:

A. Insert to match Tavg with Tref.
B. Stop moving due to generated AMI.
C. Withdraw to match Tavg with Tref.
D. Continue to withdraw until stopped by an AWP.

A

A. Insert to match Tavg with Tref.

25
Q

Group 5 CEAs are 140 inches withdrawn with CEDMCS in Auto sequential.
A Control Channel detector fails high.
RRS is selected to the failed detector.
Which of the following describes the RRS response.

A. No CEA motion will occur due to the Rate of Change circuit eliminating the effects of the instrument failure.
B. CEAs may attempt to withdraw a few steps due to the Rate of Change circuit sensing a power error.
C. No CEA motion will occur due to an AMI being generated.
D. CEAs may insert a few steps due to the Rate of Change circuit sensing a power error.

A

D. CEAs may insert a few steps due to the Rate of Change circuit sensing a power error.

26
Q

Unit 1 is operating at 95% power.
The crew is performing 40OP-9SF05 section 7.0 EXERCISING STAM BYPASS VALVE(S) WITH ACTUAL STEAM FLOW IN MODE 1.
Regulating Group 5 is at 135 inches.
Turbine load is being shifted SBCS valve 1001 in order to stroke the valve open.
Due to poor place keeping, CEDMCS is inadvertently left in AUTO SEQUENTIAL.
Assuming Steam Demand remains constant.
The Operating Crew should expect…

A. Turbine first stage pressure to rise.
B. An Auto Motion Inhibit Alarm.
C. CEAs to start stepping out.
D. CEAs to start stepping in.

A

D. CEAs to start stepping in.

27
Q

Unit 1 is currently at 20% power.
All control systems are in their normal automatic alignment.
Pressurizer level control is selected to channel ‘Y’.
T-hot instrument, RCN-TT-111X fails high.
Which one of the following conditions will or could occur?

A. A continuous turbine runback demand to the Reactor Cutback System would be generated in case of a main feed pump trip.
B. A Quick Open signal is blocked in the Steam Bypass Control System to prevent an excessive Cooldown if a reactor trip were to occur.
C. A high rate insertion demand will be generated by the Control Element Drive Mechanism Control System and will drive CEAs inward in CEDMCS is in Auto Sequential.
D. A high level error signal will be generated by the Pressurizer Level Control System, letdown control valves will maintain a minimum flow to avoid thermal shock of the RCS charging nozzle.

A

D. A high level error signal will be generated by the Pressurizer Level Control System, letdown control valves will maintain a minimum flow to avoid thermal shock of the RCS charging nozzle.

28
Q

Unit 1 has stabilized power at 52% following a trip of the B Main Feedwater pump.
30 minutes later the following conditions are noted:
Reactor power is stable at 52%.
T-cold is lowering.
T-avg is dropping below T-ref.
CEA overlap has not been restored.
Which one of the following events/actions would cause these conditions?

A. A small steam leak has occurred, trip the reactor and implement 40EP-9EO05, Excess Steam Demand.
B. A slipped/dropped CEA has occurred, implement 40AO-9ZZ11, CEA Malfunctions and restore CEA positions.
C. A HI-HI level has caused extraction steam to be isolated to a High Pressure feedwater heater, implement 40OP-9ZZ14, Feedwater and Condensate.
D. These are expected xenon responses, lower turbine load and continue performance of 40AO-9ZZ09, Reactor Power Cutback (Loss of Feedpump)…

A

D. These are expected xenon responses, lower turbine load and continue preformance of 40AO-9ZZ09, Reactor Power Cutback (Loss of Feedpump)…

29
Q

Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.
Group 5 CEAs are at 140 inches withdrawn.
The Reactor Regulating System (RRS) is aligned to average Tavg.
RCN-TT-111Y (Tcold) input intro the RRS fails LOW.
Which ONE of the following conditions has, or could, occur due to this failure?

A. The letdown control valve(s) will modulate open.
B. Prevents a ‘Quick Open Block’ following a reactor trip.
C. Prevents turbine runback demand to RPCS on a cutback.
D. A maximum SG refill demand would be generated following a reactor trip.

A

A. The letdown control valve(s) will modulate open.

30
Q

Unit 1 is operating at 50% power.
RCN-TT-111Y, Looper 1A Tcold, has failed high.
Which one of the following identifies ____ the impact on the Main Feedwater system and ____. The procedure and actions to mitigate these consequences?

A. (1) No refill demand in Reactor Trip Override.
(2) Select the Loop 2 temperature instrument at the RRS Test Panel per 40AO-9ZZ16, RRS Malfunctions.
B. (1) Maximum refill demand in Reactor Trip Override.
(2) Select the Loop 2 temperature instrument at the RRS Test Panel per 40AO-9ZZ16, RRS Malfuntions.
C. (1) No refill demand in Reactor Trip Override.
(2) Place the faulty transmitter in maintenance mode per 40AL-9RK6A, B06 Alarm Response procedure.
D. (1) Maximum refill demand in Reactor Trip Override.
(2) Place the faulty transmitter in maintenance mode per 40AL-9RK6A, B06 Alarm Response procedure.

A

B. (1) Maximum refill demand in Reactor Trip Override.

(2) Select the Loop 2 temperature instrument at the RRS Test Panel per 40AO-9ZZ16, RRS Malfuntions.

31
Q

A Reactor Power Cutback occurs in response to a loss of a Main Feedwater Pump.
The cutback signal is generated by Main Feedwater Pump ____ and the associated Turbine Setback signal will lower turbine load ____.

A. 1. Control Oil Pressure lowering to 75 psig.
2. At 480%/min to ~60% turbine load.
B. 1. Control Oil Pressure lowering to 75 psig.
2. At 130%/min to match turbine power with reactor power.
C. 1. Discharge flow lowering to 8% below setpoint.
2. At 480%/min to ~60% turbine load.
D. 1. Discharge flow lowering to 8% below setpoint.
2. At 130%/min to match turbine power with reactor power.

A

A. 1. Control Oil Pressure lowering to 75 psig.

2. At 480%/min to ~60% turbine load.

32
Q

What setpoints and coincidence is required for a Reactor Power Cutback to occur on a loss of feedpump event? (Plant power was raised in accordance with the plant procedures)

A. Reactor power is increased to 78% with one control oil pressure switch on either feedpump less than 75 psig.
B. Reactor power is increased to 55% with one control oil pressure switch on both feed pumps less than 55 psig.
C. Reactor power is increased to 78% with two control oil pressure switches on one feedpump less than 75 psig.
D. Reactor power is increased to 55% with two control oil pressure switches on both feedpump s less than 55 psig.

A

C. Reactor power is increased to 78% with two control oil pressure switches on one feedpump less than 75 psig.

(Note: Two control oil pressure switches provide the necessary input to each feedpump to cause a feedpump trip. By procedure, the operator manually selects the RPCB subgroups at 74% power. If he did not do this, only a setback would occur. The rods would not drop.)

33
Q
The Main Turbine tripped 60 minutes ago.
Rx power was stabilized at 55%.
Tavg was stabilized at 576F
Now:
PZR level is on program.
Letdown flow is 72 gpm and lowering.
Rx power is slowly dropping.
Tavg is slowly dropping.
CEDMCS has a withdraw demand.
Which one of the following is the most likely event in progress?

A. A small RCS leak, implement 40AO-9ZZ02, Excessive RCS Leakage.
B. A small steam leak. Trip the Reactor and implement 40EP-9EO06, Excess Steam Demand.
C. Thot instrument RCN-TT-111X is failing low, implement 40AO-9ZZ16, RRS Malfunctions.
D. Normal xenon response following a Large Load Reject. Direct a Dilition per 40OP-9CH01.

A

D. Normal xenon response following a Large Load Reject. Direct a Dilition per 40OP-9CH01

34
Q
Unit is operating at 100% power.
Regulating Group 5 is at 135” for ASI control.
RRS selected to Control Channel #1. 
Control Channel #1 Fails High.
Which one of the following is correct?

A. CEAs may insert a few steps.
B. CEAs may withdraw a few steps.
C. CEAs will insert until CEDMCS is taken out of automatic.
D. No CEA motion will occur due to an AMI being generated.

A

A. CEAs may insert a few steps.

35
Q

Unit 1 was manually tripped from 100% power
All 4 RCPs were secured due to a loss of Nuclear Cooling Water.
Assuming no additional Operator actions, which one of the following represents the operational implications of this condition?

A. Low Tavg will require manual control of SBCS due to Quick Open block being generated.
B. High Tavg will require manual control of the SBCS due to Overcooling if left in automatic control.
C. Low Tavg will require manual Feedwater control due to the low Refill demand while in Reactor Trip Override.
D. High Tavg will require manual Feedwater control due to the high Refill demand while in Reactor Trip Override.

A

D. High Tavg will require manual Feedwater control due to the high Refill demand while in Reactor Trip Override.

(Note: With a constant Tcold, Thot will elevate when Natl Circ is being established higher than normal Tavg will cause RTO to feed excessively requiring Operator to take manual control of Downcomer.)