review deck Flashcards
4 types of fibrocystic changes
duct proliferation
duct dilation
apocrine metaplasia
fibrosis
3 fibrocystic changes associated with increased risk of breast CA
ductal hyperplasia- 2x
sclerosing adenosis- 2x
atypical hyperplasia- 5x
cell type and staining in rhabdomyosarcoma
cell type- rhabdomyoblast
staining + myogenic and desmin
3 risk factors for cervical cancer
HPV infection
smoking
immune deficiency
somatic mutation associated with development of cervical cancer
LKB1 (Peutz-Jeghers)
most important risk factor for the progression of endometrial hyperplasia to carcinoma
atypia
hyperplasia pathway endometrial CA (arises from, influenced by, assoc mutation, spread)
arises from hyper plastic endometrium
influenced by unopposed estrogen
assoc with PTEN mutation
spreads locally
sporadic pathway endometrial CA (arises from, histologic finding, assoc mutation, spread)
arises from atrophic endometrium
histologic- psammoma bodies
p53 mutation
aggressive spread
3 histologic classifications of endometrial hyperplasia
simple- cystic
complex- crowded
atypical- crowded and atypical
unique mets for ovarian cystadenocarcinoma
to omentum (omental caking)
2 types of GYN tumors with psammoma bodies
ovarian cystadeno/carcinoma
sporadic endometrial ca
most common cause of pregnancy loss (0-12 weeks, 13-19 weeks, 20-24 weeks, over 25 weeks)
0-12 weeks- chromosomal
13-19 weeks- organ specific
20-24 weeks- inflammatory
over 25 weeks- vascular/placental
teratogenic effects of isotretinoin, phenytoin and cyclopamide
isotretinoin- hearing/visual, cleft lip/palate
phenytoin- digit hypoplasia, cleft lip/palate
cyclopamide- cycloplegia
epithelium of ovary
simple cuboidal
epithelium of fallopian tubes
simple columnar
epithelium of uterus
simple columnar
call-exner bodies
in granolas cell tumors of the ovary, rosette pattern with pink (eosinophilic) center
uterine changes from adenomyosis
diffuse enlargement
biggest risk factor for penile CA
being uncircumcised
epispadias is related to ___ which has an increased risk for ____
bladder exostrophy
adenocarcinoma of the bladder
appearance of the testes after mumps orchitis
patchy atrophy, may lead to infertility
elevated B-HCG in men can cause (2)
gynecomastia, hyperthryoidism
why does bHCG cause hyperthyroidism?
very similar in structure to TSH, can bind receptor
where is inhibin made? function?
made in seminiferous tubules
functions to exert - feedback on FSH
patent processus vaginalis increases risk for (2)
indirect inguinal hernia
hydrocele
klinefleters- chromosomes, hormones
47 XXY
low testosterone, increased FSH and LH,
increased estrogen
3 changes in kidney secondary to malignant nephrosclerosis
flea bitten appearacne
fibrinoid necrosis
onion skinning
4 predisposing factors to renal papillary necrosis
DM
analgesic abuse
sickle cell
chronic pyelonephritis
in membranous GN, autoantibodies are directed against-
podocytes
why does diabetic nephropathy initially cause hyper filtration?
affects efferent arteriole first
what is the appearance of the glomerulus in diffuse proliferative GN?
wire loop
2 m/c causes of asymptomatic hematuria
IgA nephropathy
benign familial hematuria (thin BM)
histologic finding in chronic pyelonephritis
thyroidization
2 findings in malakoplakia
raised mucosal lesions in bladder, PAS+ macrophages in kidney
condition associated with angiomyolipoma of the kidney
tuberous sclerosis
gene loss in sporadic RCC
VHL (3p)
pathogenesis of RCC
loss of VHL - increased IGF1 - increased HIF - increased VEGF
WAGR syndrome
Wilms, aniridia, genital, retardation (WT1)
Denys-Drash
Wilms, male pseudohermaphrodite (WT1)
Beckwith-Wiedeman
Wilms, organomegaly, hemihypertrophy (WT2)
3 causes of SCC of bladder
chronic cystitis, schistosoma hematobium, chronic renal stones
3 causes of adenocarcinoma of bladder
bladder exostrophy
urachal remnant
cystitis glandularis
most RCC originate from what part of the nephron
proximal tubules
antibodies associated with idiopathic membranous nephropathy
IgG4 antibodies against PLA2R
what does ANCA stand for?
anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody
what is the MOST specific urine finding for acute pyelonephritis?
WBC casts
appearance of GBM in Alport disease
lamellated
shape of cysteine stones
hexagonal
effect of prolonged obstructive uropathy on kidneys
parenchymal pressure atrophy
describe recovery phase of ATN, complications (2)
recovery = polyuric phase
complications are dehydration, hypokalemia
why do RCC cells appear clear?
full of lipid and glycogen
labs in post-strep GN (5)
elevated ASO titer, elevated anti-DNase B, decreased C3, decreased total complement, present cryoglobulins
precursor to wilm’s tumor
nephrogenic “rests”
HSP characteristic kidney/skin/GI/joint findings
kidney- IgA immune complexes
Skin- palpable purpura
GI- pain, bleeding
Joints- pain
TTP-HUS pentad
fever, neurologic symptoms, renal failure, anemia, low platelets
why does TTP-HUS cause renal symptoms? blood smear?
microvascular thrombosis of renal vessels, blood smear has schistocytes
BRCA1
medullary breast cancer
cystdenocarcinoma of the ovary/tubes
17q21
BRCA2
breast cancer (males, females) 13q12.3
CDH
gene for E-cadherin (lost in LCIS and invasive lobular carcinoma)
p53 mutations present in (3)
sporadic pathway of endometrial ca
flat transitional cell cancer
non-HPV vulvar cancer
LKB1
peutz-jeghers
associated with cervical cancer
PTEN mutations present in (2)
hyperplasia pathway of endometrial cancer
prostate cancer
NR51A and ESR2
endometriosis
GSTP1 and TMPRSS2-ETS
prostate cancer
PKDH1
fibrocystin
AR PKD
APKD 1/2
polycystin
AD PKD
NPHS2
podocin
MCD and FSGS
VHL
3p
renal cell carcinoma (clear cell)
MET
papillary RCC
WT1
11p13- WAGR, DD
WT2
11p15.5- BW
