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RESP II Exam 2 > Respiratory Antibiotics > Flashcards

Respiratory Antibiotics Flashcards

1
Q

amoxicillin

A

aminopenicillin

PO

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2
Q

ampicillin

A

aminopenicillin

PO, IV, IM

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3
Q

piperacillin

A

anti-pseudo penicillin

IV

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4
Q

ceftriaxone

A

third generation cephalosporin

IV, IM

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5
Q

ceftazidime

A

third generation cephalosporin

IV, IM

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6
Q

cefepime

A

fourth generation cephalosporin

IV, IM

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7
Q

meropenem

A

carbapenem

IV

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8
Q

ertapenem

A

carbapenem

IV, IM

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9
Q

beta-lactamase inhibitors

A

sulbactam
clavulinic acid
taxobactam

often given with the PCNs

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10
Q

ciprofloxacin

A

FQ

PO, IV, topical

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11
Q

levofloxacin

A

FQ

PO, IV, topical

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12
Q

moxifloxacin

A

FQ

PO, IV, topical

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13
Q

gentamicin

A

aminoglycosides

IV, IM, topical

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14
Q

doxycycline

A

tetracycline

PO, IV

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15
Q

azithromycin

A

macrolide

PO, IV, topical

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16
Q

clindamycin

A

lincosamide

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17
Q

linezolid

A

oxazolidinone

PO, IV

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18
Q

oseltamivir

A

anti-viral

-PO

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19
Q

flucanozole

A

antifungal

PO, IV

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20
Q

intraconazole

A

antifungal

PO

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21
Q

voriconazole

A

antifungal

PO, IV

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22
Q

penicillin resistance

A

drug destruction and inactivation by beta-lactamases

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23
Q

aminopenicillins

A

extended-spectrum

gram positive, gram negatives

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24
Q

upper resp infections with strep pyogenes, strep pneumoia, h flu

A

ampicillin

amoxicillin

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25
Q

hospital acquired pneumonia

A

pseudomonas

piperacillin

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26
Q

DOC for serious gram negatives

A

third gen cephalospirins

-ceftriaxone and ceftazidimine

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27
Q

pseudomonas coverage

A

cefepime

-4th gen cephalosporin

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28
Q

glycopeptide MOA

A

vancomycin

inhibit cell wall synthesis binding to D-Ala-D-Ala terminal

cannot penetrate cell wall of gram negatives

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29
Q

vancomycin

A

glycopeptide
IV***

monitor levels closely

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30
Q

clostridium dificile tx

A

oral vancomycin

31
Q

red man syndrome

A

vancomycin adverse effect - due to rapid infusion - flushing, tachycardia, hypotension

also - macular rash, chills, fever, rash

32
Q

fluoroquinolone MOA

A

bacterial DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV

bactericidal - concentration dependent

33
Q

ciprofloxacin

A

covers pseudomonas

34
Q

respiratory FQs

A

levofloxacin
moxifloxacin
gemifloxacin

35
Q

gonorrhea DOC

A

ceftriaxone

36
Q

adverse with cephalosporins

A

GI sx

achilles tendon rupture in children

37
Q

achilles tendon rupture in children

A

side effect of cephalosporins

38
Q

aminoglycoside MOA

A

bind 30S ribosome subunit
-interfere initiation of protein synthesis

alter membrane permeability

39
Q

tetractcycline MOA

A

binding 30S ribosome

-prevent access of aminoacyl tRNA to acceptor A site on mRNA ribosome complex

40
Q

all strains pseudomonas

A

resistant to tetracyclines

41
Q

macrolide MOA

A

reversibly bind 50S subunit

inhibit translocation where newly synthesized peptidyl tRNA molecule moves from acceptor site on ribosome to peptidyl donor site

42
Q

atypical pneumonia tx

A

macrolides

-azithromycin

43
Q

CYP3A4 inhibition

A

macrolides

44
Q

lincosamide MOA

A

50S binding and suppress protein synthesis

clindamycin

45
Q

oxazolidinones MOA

A

linezolid

inhibit protein synthesis - bind 50S subunit
-prevention formation of alrger fmet-tRNA complex that initiates protein synthesis

46
Q

linezolid use

A

only MDR organisms

47
Q

risk fx for drug resistance strep pneumonia

A 
beta-lactam use within 3 months
age < 2 or > 65
alcoholic
immunosuppressive therapy
exposure to day care child
48
Q

underlying bronchopulmonary disease

A

h flu

moraxella catarrhalis

49
Q

outpatient CAP

A 
strep pneumo
mycoplasma pneumo
h flu
chlamydophila pneumo
resp viruses
50
Q

hospitalized CAP

A 
strep pneumo
mycoplasma pneumo
h flu
chlamydophil pneumo
resp viruses
legionella
aspiration
51
Q

ICU CAP

A 
strep pneumo
staph aureus
legionella
gram negative bacilli
h flu
52
Q

outpatient tx CAP previously healthy

A

macrolide PO

or

doxycycline PO

53
Q

outpatient tx CAP at risk for DRSP

A

resp FQ PO
-levo, moxi, gemi

or

beta-lactam PO + macrolide PO
-amoxicillin

54
Q

inpatient, non ICU CAP tx

A

resp FQ IV or PO

or

beta-lactam IV + macrolide IV

55
Q

inpatient, ICU pt CAP tx

A

beta-lactam IV + azithromycin IV

or

resp FQ

56
Q

risk fx for pseudomonas

A

structural lung disease
COPD exacerbation
frequent corticosteroids and antibiotic use

57
Q

tx pseudomonas CAP

A

anti-pseudo beta-lactam IV + cipro (or levofloxacin)
-piperacillin,cefepime

or

beta-lactam + aminoglycoside + azithromycin

or

beta-lactam + aminoglycoside + anti-pseudo FQ

58
Q

risk fx for MRSA

A

ESRD - on dialysis
IV drug use
prior influenza
prior antibiotics

59
Q

tx MRSA

A

add vancomycin IV or linezolid

panton-valentine leucocidin necrotizing pneumonia - add clindamycin or use linezolid

60
Q

CAP therapy

A

minimum 5 days
must be afebrile 48-72 hours

exception - pseudomonas - 8 day course led to more relapse than 15 day course**

61
Q

hospital acquire pneumonia bugs

A 
pseudomonas
E. coli
klebsiella
acinetobacter
MRSA - in ICU, head trauma
62
Q

pseudomonas resistance

A

efflux pumps
decreased porin channels
beta-lactamases

63
Q

MRSA resistanace

A

reduced PBP affinity for beta-lactams

64
Q

oseltamivir MOA

A

neurominidase inhibitor
-interferes with release of progeny influenza virus from infected cells

influenza A and B

65
Q

oseltamivir adverse effects

A

N/V/D, psych sx

66
Q

influenza prophylaxis

A

oseltamivir

67
Q

HSV and VZV tx

A

acyclovir

-inhibit step 1 virus specific thymidine kinase

68
Q

CMV tx

A

ganciclovir

-guanosine analog - requires activation by tri-P before inhibiting DNA polymerase

69
Q

azole MOA

A

inhibit fungal CYP450 - reducing production of ergosterol

flucanazole, itraconazole, voriconazole

lots of drug interactions**

70
Q

candida, blastomycosis, coccidiomycosis, histoplasmosis coverase

A

azoles

71
Q

strep pneumo resistance

A

PBP reduced affinity

72
Q

staph aureus resistance

A

PBP reduced affinity

73
Q

gram positive resistance

A

reduced PBP affinity

74
Q

gram negative resistance

A

beta-lactamase production

RESP II Exam 2 (23 decks)

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