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1MRCPCH FOP and TAS > Respiratory > Flashcards

Respiratory Flashcards

1
Q

What is the function of the CFTR protein?

A

Enables movement of chloride from intracellular to extracellular space in the lungs

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2
Q

What are the high risk determinants in pulmonary hypertension?

A

Systemic venous sats <58%
Echo shows RA/RV enlargement
Reduced LV size
Increased RV:LV ratio
Pericardial effusion
Systemic cardiac index - <2.5l/min/m2
mRAP >10mmHg
Acute vasoreactivity
6-minute walk test <350m

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3
Q

What is the most common embryological aetiology of isolated cleft lip?

A

Failure of the fusion of the medial nasal and maxillary processes

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3
Q

Until what age does alveolar development continue?

A

8 years

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4
Q

In CF, what is the most primary mechanism acting to reduce mucociliary clearance?

A

Decreased volume of the periciliary layer - cilia become embedded and therefore their movement is impeded.

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4
Q

What does a right shift in the oxygen dissociation curve indicate?

A

Decreased oxygen affinity for Hb, favouring oxygen release to the tissues?

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4
Q

What does a left shift in the oxygen dissociation curve indicate?

A

Increased affinity for Hb, favouring less oxygen release to the tissues

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5
Q

What can shift the oxygen dissociation curve to the left?

A

Alkalosis
CO poisoning
Low CO2
Fetal Hb

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6
Q

What can shift the oxygen dissociation curve to the right?

A

Acidosis
Fever
Increased CO2
HbS

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6
Q

What conditions lead to a low transfer factor (TLCO)?

A

Pneumonia
Smoking
Obesity

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7
Q

What occurs in the first stage of lobar pneumonia?

A

Vascular congestion and alveolar oedema
High numbers of infecting organism

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7
Q

What occurs in the second stage of lobar pneumonia?

A

Significant infiltration of RBCs, fibrin and neutrophils

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8
Q

What occurs in the third stage of lobar pneumonia?

A

Breakdown of fibrin and RBCs create fibrinopurulent exudate

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9
Q

What occurs in the fourth stage of lobar pneumonia?

A

Resolution caused by macrophage clearance

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10
Q

ABCA3 protein mutations can lead to what respiratory condition?

A

Interstitial lung disease secondary to surfactant deficiency

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11
Q

What would Weber’s test show in conductive hearing loss?

A

Localises to affected ear

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12
Q

What is the classical triad of submucosal cleft palate?

A

Bifid uvula
Absent or notched posterior nasal spine
Translucent or blue area in the midline of the soft palate

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13
Q

What would Weber’s test show in SN hearing loss?

A

Localises to unaffected ear

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13
Q

What would Rinne’s test show in conductive hearing loss?

A

Bon conduction > air (-ve) on affected side

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14
Q

What would Weber’s test show in severe SN hearing loss?

A

Localises to unaffected ear

15
Q

What is the most common GI manifestation of CF?

A

Rectal prolapse

15
Q

What is the physiological motor for cilia within the lungs?

A

Dynein

15
Q

What would Rinne’s test show in SN hearing loss?

A

Air conduction > bone (+ve)

16
Q

What would Rinne’s test show in severe SN hearing loss?

A

Bone conduction > air (-ve) on affected side

17
Q

In what syndrome is dynein absent?

A

Kartagener syndrome

18
Q

At what gestational age does the external ear begin to develop?

A

6 weeks

19
Q
A
19
Q

What kind of staining is needed to diagnose Neuroendocrine cell hyperplasia of infancy (NEHI)?

A

Bombesin staining

19
Q

What is the monoclonal antibody treatment for asthma?

A

Omalizumab

19
Q

What type of bacteria is pseudomonas?

A

Gram negative rods

19
Q

What is the role of thromboxane in PE?

A

Pulmonary and systemic vasoconstrictor

19
Q

What has been found on the aryepiglottic folds in laryngomalacia?

A

Shortening

20
Q

Which soft palate muscle is innervated by the medial pterygoid nerve?

A

Tensor veli palatini

20
Q

What are the histopathological features of alveolar capillary dysplasia?

A

Reduced pulmonary capillaries unable to make contact with the epithelial bed
Thickened alveolar septum
Hypertrophy of arterioles
Abnormal positioning of pulmonary vein branches
Immature lobular development

20
Q

How does alveolar capillary dysplasia present?

A

Hypoxia
PPHN - unresponsive to NO and ECMO

21
Q

What is total lung capacity?

A

Total volume of air in lungs following a maximal inspiration

22
Q

What is vital capacity?

A

Maximum volume of air that can be expired after a maximal inspiration

23
Q

What is inspiratory reserve volume?

A

Maximum volume of air that can be inspired at the end of a normal tidal inspiration

24
Q

What is functional residual capacity?

A

Volume of air that remains in the lung after a normal tidal expiration

25
Q

What is expiratory reserve volume?

A

Maximum volume of air that can be expired after a normal tidal expiration

26
Q

What is residual volume?

A

Volume of air remaining after maximal expiration

27
Q

What are the common symptoms of EVALI?

A

Cough
Fever
Chest pain
Dyspnoea
Vomiting
Weight loss

28
Q

What is the most common chemical compound associated with EVALI?

A

Tetrahydrocannabinol

29
Q

What is the first histopathological process in AOM?

A

Oedema within the subepithelial space

30
Q

Is the LDH level high or low in exudative pleural fluid?

A

High

31
Q

What conditions can cause exudative pleural effusion?

A

Malignancy
Pericarditis
Autoimmune disease

32
Q

What does the Guthrie card read to diagnose CF?

A

IRT - immunoreactive trypsinogen

33
Q

What cells line the lingual surface of the epiglottis?

A

Stratified squamous epithelium

34
Q
A

1MRCPCH FOP and TAS (23 decks)

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