Respiratory Flashcards

1
Q

What is the function of the CFTR protein?

A

Enables movement of chloride from intracellular to extracellular space in the lungs

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2
Q

What are the high risk determinants in pulmonary hypertension?

A

Systemic venous sats <58%
Echo shows RA/RV enlargement
Reduced LV size
Increased RV:LV ratio
Pericardial effusion
Systemic cardiac index - <2.5l/min/m2
mRAP >10mmHg
Acute vasoreactivity
6-minute walk test <350m

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3
Q

What is the most common embryological aetiology of isolated cleft lip?

A

Failure of the fusion of the medial nasal and maxillary processes

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3
Q

Until what age does alveolar development continue?

A

8 years

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4
Q

In CF, what is the most primary mechanism acting to reduce mucociliary clearance?

A

Decreased volume of the periciliary layer - cilia become embedded and therefore their movement is impeded.

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4
Q

What does a right shift in the oxygen dissociation curve indicate?

A

Decreased oxygen affinity for Hb, favouring oxygen release to the tissues?

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4
Q

What does a left shift in the oxygen dissociation curve indicate?

A

Increased affinity for Hb, favouring less oxygen release to the tissues

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5
Q

What can shift the oxygen dissociation curve to the left?

A

Alkalosis
CO poisoning
Low CO2
Fetal Hb

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6
Q

What can shift the oxygen dissociation curve to the right?

A

Acidosis
Fever
Increased CO2
HbS

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6
Q

What conditions lead to a low transfer factor (TLCO)?

A

Pneumonia
Smoking
Obesity

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7
Q

What occurs in the first stage of lobar pneumonia?

A

Vascular congestion and alveolar oedema
High numbers of infecting organism

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7
Q

What occurs in the second stage of lobar pneumonia?

A

Significant infiltration of RBCs, fibrin and neutrophils

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8
Q

What occurs in the third stage of lobar pneumonia?

A

Breakdown of fibrin and RBCs create fibrinopurulent exudate

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9
Q

What occurs in the fourth stage of lobar pneumonia?

A

Resolution caused by macrophage clearance

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10
Q

ABCA3 protein mutations can lead to what respiratory condition?

A

Interstitial lung disease secondary to surfactant deficiency

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11
Q

What would Weber’s test show in conductive hearing loss?

A

Localises to affected ear

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12
Q

What is the classical triad of submucosal cleft palate?

A

Bifid uvula
Absent or notched posterior nasal spine
Translucent or blue area in the midline of the soft palate

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13
Q

What would Weber’s test show in SN hearing loss?

A

Localises to unaffected ear

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13
Q

What would Rinne’s test show in conductive hearing loss?

A

Bon conduction > air (-ve) on affected side

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14
Q

What would Weber’s test show in severe SN hearing loss?

A

Localises to unaffected ear

15
Q

What is the most common GI manifestation of CF?

A

Rectal prolapse

15
Q

What is the physiological motor for cilia within the lungs?

15
Q

What would Rinne’s test show in SN hearing loss?

A

Air conduction > bone (+ve)

16
Q

What would Rinne’s test show in severe SN hearing loss?

A

Bone conduction > air (-ve) on affected side

17
In what syndrome is dynein absent?
Kartagener syndrome
18
At what gestational age does the external ear begin to develop?
6 weeks
19
19
What kind of staining is needed to diagnose Neuroendocrine cell hyperplasia of infancy (NEHI)?
Bombesin staining
19
What is the monoclonal antibody treatment for asthma?
Omalizumab
19
What type of bacteria is pseudomonas?
Gram negative rods
19
What is the role of thromboxane in PE?
Pulmonary and systemic vasoconstrictor
19
What has been found on the aryepiglottic folds in laryngomalacia?
Shortening
20
Which soft palate muscle is innervated by the medial pterygoid nerve?
Tensor veli palatini
20
What are the histopathological features of alveolar capillary dysplasia?
Reduced pulmonary capillaries unable to make contact with the epithelial bed Thickened alveolar septum Hypertrophy of arterioles Abnormal positioning of pulmonary vein branches Immature lobular development
20
How does alveolar capillary dysplasia present?
Hypoxia PPHN - unresponsive to NO and ECMO
21
What is total lung capacity?
Total volume of air in lungs following a maximal inspiration
22
What is vital capacity?
Maximum volume of air that can be expired after a maximal inspiration
23
What is inspiratory reserve volume?
Maximum volume of air that can be inspired at the end of a normal tidal inspiration
24
What is functional residual capacity?
Volume of air that remains in the lung after a normal tidal expiration
25
What is expiratory reserve volume?
Maximum volume of air that can be expired after a normal tidal expiration
26
What is residual volume?
Volume of air remaining after maximal expiration
27
What are the common symptoms of EVALI?
Cough Fever Chest pain Dyspnoea Vomiting Weight loss
28
What is the most common chemical compound associated with EVALI?
Tetrahydrocannabinol
29
What is the first histopathological process in AOM?
Oedema within the subepithelial space
30
Is the LDH level high or low in exudative pleural fluid?
High
31
What conditions can cause exudative pleural effusion?
Malignancy Pericarditis Autoimmune disease
32
What does the Guthrie card read to diagnose CF?
IRT - immunoreactive trypsinogen
33
What cells line the lingual surface of the epiglottis?
Stratified squamous epithelium
34