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1MRCPCH FOP and TAS > Ophthalmology > Flashcards

Ophthalmology Flashcards

1
Q

What is the first choice antibiotic in orbital cellultis?

A

Co-amoxiclav

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2
Q

What are the first choice IV antibiotics in orbital cellulitis?

A

Cefuroxime or ceftriaxone

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3
Q

Which HLA is associated with uveitis typically?

A

B27

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4
Q

What is the mainstay of treatment for uveitis?

A

Corticosteroids

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5
Q

Which medications used in uveitis cause mydriasis and reduce symptoms of photophobia?

A

Cyclopentolate
Atropine

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6
Q

What is mydriasis?

A

Pupillary dilatation

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7
Q

Which gene is responsible for retinoblastoma and where is it located?

A

RB1 gene on chromosome 13q14

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8
Q

What is leukocoria?

A

White pupillary reflex

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9
Q

What is strabismus?

A

Abnormal alignment of the eyes

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10
Q

When is ROP screening performed for infants <31 weeks gestation at birth?

A

Between 31+0-31+6 weeks or 4 weeks postnatal, whichever is later

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11
Q

What kind of visual defect will a retinal lesion cause?

A

Ipsilateral visual defect, opposite to site of lesion

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12
Q

What kind of visual defect will a optic nerve lesion cause?

A

Monocular visual field loss

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13
Q

What kind of visual defect will a optic chiasm lesion cause?

A

Bitemporal hemianopia

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14
Q

What kind of visual defect will a optic tract lesion cause?

A

Homonymous hemianopia

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15
Q

What kind of visual defect will a visual cortex lesion cause?

A

Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing

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16
Q

What does the pharmacological treatment of optic neuritis usually entail?

A

High-dose corticosteroids e.g. methylprednisolone

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17
Q

What does the pharmacological treatment of ischaemic optic neuropathy usually entail?

A

Anti-platelets or anticoagulants
(aspirin or warfarin)

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18
Q

What does the pharmacological treatment of prolactinomas usually entail?

A

Dopamine agonists e.g. cabergoline or bromocriptine

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19
Q

What does the pharmacological treatment of GH-secreting tumours usually entail?

A

Somatostatin analogues e.g. octreotide

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20
Q

What does the pharmacological treatment of acromegaly usually entail?

A

GH-receptor antagonists e.g.peguisomant

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21
Q

What does the pharmacological treatment of IIH usually entail?

A

Diuretics (acetazolamide or furosemide)
Corticosteroids (dexamethasone)

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22
Q

What is the difference between esophoria and esotropia?

A

Esophoria is a latent squint whereas esotropia is visible at all times

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23
Q

What is amblyopia?

A

aka a lazy eye where the brain ignores visual input from one side for a variety of reasons.

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24
Q

Which gene is vital to initiation of eye development?

A

PAX6 gene

25
Q

When does eye development occur during gestation?

A

3-10weeks

26
Q

What is anophthalmia?

A

The absence of one or both eyes

27
Q

What is microphthalmia?

A

One or both eyes are small and have anatomical abnormalities

28
Q

What is a coloboma?

A

Hole in an ocular structureWhat

29
Q

What causes a coloboma?

A

Failure of choroid fissure to fuse

30
Q

What is aniridia?

A

Complete absence of 1 or both iris’

31
Q

In cerebellar nystagmus is the fast component directed towards or away from the side of the lesion?

A

Towards

32
Q

In vestibular nystagmus is the fast component directed towards or away from the side of the lesion?

A

Away

33
Q

Vertical nystagmus is caused by a lesion to where?

A

Brainstem at the pontomedullary junction

34
Q

What would typically be seen on fundoscopy in stage I sickle cell retinopathy?

A

Salmon patches and sunburst spots

35
Q

What would typically be seen on fundoscopy in stage II sickle cell retinopathy?

A

Arteriovenous anastomoses

36
Q

What would typically be seen on fundoscopy in stage III sickle cell retinopathy?

A

Sea-fan pattern

37
Q

What would typically be seen on fundoscopy in stage IV sickle cell retinopathy?

A

Vitreous haemorrhage

38
Q

What would typically be seen on fundoscopy in stage V sickle cell retinopathy?

A

Tractional retinal detachment

39
Q

Which syndrome causes ptosis, miosis, reduced sweating on affected side and slow pupillary response to light?

A

Horner Syndrome

40
Q

Which syndrome causes the eyelid to move upwards when the jaw is opened?

A

Marcus-Gunn syndrome

41
Q

What is the classic triad of glaucoma presentation?

A

Tearing, photophobia and blepharospasm

42
Q

What is Duane syndrome?

A

Eye unable to turn out and retracts into socket on adduction

43
Q

What is Brown syndrome?

A

Defect in superior oblique tendon sheath meaning eye cannot look upwards especially in adduction

44
Q

What is the most common pathogen that causes styes?

A

S.aureus

45
Q

What is the first sign of diabetic retinopathy?

A

Dot haemorrhages

46
Q

At what age does screening start for diabetic retinopathy?

A

12 years

47
Q

Which nerve innervates the lateral rectus muscle?

A

6th - abducens

48
Q

Which nerve innervates the medial rectus muscle?

A

3rd - oculomotor

49
Q

Which nerve innervates the superior rectus muscle?

A

3rd - oculomotor

50
Q

Which nerve innervates the inferior rectus muscle?

A

3rd - oculomotor

51
Q

Which nerve innervates the superior oblique muscle?

A

4th - trochlear

52
Q

Which nerve innervates the inferior oblique muscle?

A

3rd - oculomotor

53
Q

What are the actions of the lateral rectus muscle?

A

Abduction

54
Q

What are the actions of the medial rectus muscle?

A

Adduction

55
Q

What are the actions of the superior rectus muscle?

A

elevation, adduction and intorsion

56
Q

What are the actions of the inferior rectus muscle?

A

depression, adduction and extorsion

57
Q

What are the actions of the superior oblique muscle?

A

depression, intorsion and adduction

58
Q

What are the actions of the inferior oblique muscle?

A

elevation, extorsion and abduction

1MRCPCH FOP and TAS (11 decks)

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