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1MRCPCH FOP and TAS > Ophthalmology > Flashcards

Ophthalmology Flashcards

1
Q

What is the first choice antibiotic in orbital cellultis?

A

Co-amoxiclav

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2
Q

What are the first choice IV antibiotics in orbital cellulitis?

A

Cefuroxime or ceftriaxone

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3
Q

Which HLA is associated with uveitis typically?

A

B27

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4
Q

What is the mainstay of treatment for uveitis?

A

Corticosteroids

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5
Q

Which medications used in uveitis cause mydriasis and reduce symptoms of photophobia?

A

Cyclopentolate
Atropine

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6
Q

What is mydriasis?

A

Pupillary dilatation

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7
Q

Which gene is responsible for retinoblastoma and where is it located?

A

RB1 gene on chromosome 13q14

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8
Q

What is leukocoria?

A

White pupillary reflex

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9
Q

What is strabismus?

A

Abnormal alignment of the eyes

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10
Q

When is ROP screening performed for infants <31 weeks gestation at birth?

A

Between 31+0-31+6 weeks or 4 weeks postnatal, whichever is later

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11
Q

What kind of visual defect will a retinal lesion cause?

A

Ipsilateral visual defect, opposite to site of lesion

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12
Q

What kind of visual defect will a optic nerve lesion cause?

A

Monocular visual field loss

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13
Q

What kind of visual defect will a optic chiasm lesion cause?

A

Bitemporal hemianopia

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14
Q

What kind of visual defect will a optic tract lesion cause?

A

Homonymous hemianopia

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15
Q

What kind of visual defect will a visual cortex lesion cause?

A

Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing

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16
Q

What does the pharmacological treatment of optic neuritis usually entail?

A

High-dose corticosteroids e.g. methylprednisolone

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17
Q

What does the pharmacological treatment of ischaemic optic neuropathy usually entail?

A

Anti-platelets or anticoagulants
(aspirin or warfarin)

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18
Q

What does the pharmacological treatment of prolactinomas usually entail?

A

Dopamine agonists e.g. cabergoline or bromocriptine

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19
Q

What does the pharmacological treatment of GH-secreting tumours usually entail?

A

Somatostatin analogues e.g. octreotide

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20
Q

What does the pharmacological treatment of acromegaly usually entail?

A

GH-receptor antagonists e.g.peguisomant

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21
Q

What does the pharmacological treatment of IIH usually entail?

A

Diuretics (acetazolamide or furosemide)
Corticosteroids (dexamethasone)

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22
Q

What is the difference between esophoria and esotropia?

A

Esophoria is a latent squint whereas esotropia is visible at all times

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23
Q

What is amblyopia?

A

aka a lazy eye where the brain ignores visual input from one side for a variety of reasons.

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24
Q

Which gene is vital to initiation of eye development?

A

PAX6 gene

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25
When does eye development occur during gestation?
3-10weeks
26
What is anophthalmia?
The absence of one or both eyes
27
What is microphthalmia?
One or both eyes are small and have anatomical abnormalities
28
What is a coloboma?
Hole in an ocular structureWhat
29
What causes a coloboma?
Failure of choroid fissure to fuse
30
What is aniridia?
Complete absence of 1 or both iris'
31
In cerebellar nystagmus is the fast component directed towards or away from the side of the lesion?
Towards
32
In vestibular nystagmus is the fast component directed towards or away from the side of the lesion?
Away
33
Vertical nystagmus is caused by a lesion to where?
Brainstem at the pontomedullary junction
34
What would typically be seen on fundoscopy in stage I sickle cell retinopathy?
Salmon patches and sunburst spots
35
What would typically be seen on fundoscopy in stage II sickle cell retinopathy?
Arteriovenous anastomoses
36
What would typically be seen on fundoscopy in stage III sickle cell retinopathy?
Sea-fan pattern
37
What would typically be seen on fundoscopy in stage IV sickle cell retinopathy?
Vitreous haemorrhage
38
What would typically be seen on fundoscopy in stage V sickle cell retinopathy?
Tractional retinal detachment
39
Which syndrome causes ptosis, miosis, reduced sweating on affected side and slow pupillary response to light?
Horner Syndrome
40
Which syndrome causes the eyelid to move upwards when the jaw is opened?
Marcus-Gunn syndrome
41
What is the classic triad of glaucoma presentation?
Tearing, photophobia and blepharospasm
42
What is Duane syndrome?
Eye unable to turn out and retracts into socket on adduction
43
What is Brown syndrome?
Defect in superior oblique tendon sheath meaning eye cannot look upwards especially in adduction
44
What is the most common pathogen that causes styes?
S.aureus
45
What is the first sign of diabetic retinopathy?
Dot haemorrhages
46
At what age does screening start for diabetic retinopathy?
12 years
47
Which nerve innervates the lateral rectus muscle?
6th - abducens
48
Which nerve innervates the medial rectus muscle?
3rd - oculomotor
49
Which nerve innervates the superior rectus muscle?
3rd - oculomotor
50
Which nerve innervates the inferior rectus muscle?
3rd - oculomotor
51
Which nerve innervates the superior oblique muscle?
4th - trochlear
52
Which nerve innervates the inferior oblique muscle?
3rd - oculomotor
53
What are the actions of the lateral rectus muscle?
Abduction
54
What are the actions of the medial rectus muscle?
Adduction
55
What are the actions of the superior rectus muscle?
elevation, adduction and intorsion
56
What are the actions of the inferior rectus muscle?
Depression, adduction and extorsion
57
What are the actions of the superior oblique muscle?
Depression, intorsion and adduction
58
What are the actions of the inferior oblique muscle?
Elevation, extorsion and abduction
59
What clinical sign within the eye is most expected to be seen in long chain hydroxy acyl-CoA dehydrogenase (LCHAD) deficiency?
Pigmentary retinopathy
60
At what gestation is the vascularisation of the retina complete?
40 weeks
60
What occurs in internuclear ophthalmoplegia?
One eye shows nystagmus on abduction whilst the other eye fails to adduct properly
61
At what age are Kay cards best used for measuring visual acuity?
2-4years
61
Which embryological structure goes on to form the vasculature and vitreous within the eye?
Mesenchyme
62
How does ornithine aminotransferase affect the eye?
Choroid and retinal atrophy Presents with worsening myopia and poor night vision
62
Which cranial nerve is responsible for raising the upper eyelid?
CNIII
62
Findings of a swollen optic disc and RAPD should raise the concern of a lesion of which structure?
Optic nerve
63
What is the sign of stage 4 sickle cell retinopathy?
Retinal haemorrhage - sudden loss of vision
63
At what week of gestation does the optic fissure close?
Week 6
64
Which area of the brain is a lesion located in internuclear ophthalmoplegia?
Pons
65
Which nerve palsy presents with head tilt towards the unaffected side as well as vertical diplopia?
Trochlear nerve
66
What is the usual incubation period for chlamydia conjunctivitis in neonates?
5-28days
67
What is the usual incubation period for gonorrhoea conjunctivitis in neonates?
3-5days

1MRCPCH FOP and TAS (23 decks)

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