Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

1MRCPCH FOP and TAS > Nephrology > Flashcards

Nephrology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the main functions of the kidney?

A

Filtering water soluble salts and ions from the blood
Reabsorption of necessary small molecules
Dilution or concentration of urine to optimise fluid balance
Regulation of BP
Metabolism of vitamin D
Regulation of acid-base balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is plasma creatinine a product of?

A

Muscle breakdown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is a MAG3 renogram and what does it test for?

A

Dynamic scan of isotope-labelled substance excreted from blood into urine
Can identify VUR during micturition in children >age 4.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the negatives for performing an MCUG?

A

Invasive
Unpleasant
High radiation dose
Can introduce infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How is a micturating cystourthrogram
(MCUG) performed and what does it test for mainly?

A

Contrast in introduced to the bladder via a catheter and visualised bladder and urethral anatomy
Looks for VUR and urethral obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How is eGFR calculated?

A

31xheight(cm)/creatinine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How is a DMSA scan performed and what does it look for?

A

TC99m dimercaptosuccinic acid static scan of renal cortex
Detects functional defects e.g. scars or non-functioning renal tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How does renal agenesis usually present?

A

If bilateral with severe oligohydramnios and causes Potter syndrome which is fatal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How does Potter syndrome present?

A

Low set ears
Beaked nose
Prominent epicanthic folds
Downward slant to eyes
Limb deformities
Failure of fetal lung development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which part of the nephron does ADH primarily work on?

A

Collecting duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the symptoms of post-streptococcal GN?

A

Haematuria
Oliguria
Oedema
Hypertension
Pulmonary oedema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the CH50 test?

A

Measures total activity of all major complement proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Wat would you expect to happen to CH50 levels in post-streptococcal GN?

A

Decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which hormones play a factor in the inguinoscrotal stage of testicular descent?

A

Testosterone
Calcitonin gene-related peptide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is nephronophthisis?

A

AR ciliopathy causing medullary cystic kidney disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the symptoms of nephronophthisis?

A

Polyuria
Polydipsia
Progressive renal failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What extra-renal features can be associated with nephronophthisis?

A

Hepatic fibrosis
Cardiac anomalies
Situs inversus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What do struvite stones consist of?

A

Mg
Ammonia
PO4
Calcium apatite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What typically causes struvite stones?

A

Proteus bacteria UTI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What would typically be seen on electron microscopy in post-streptococcal GN?

A

Subepithelial humps - caused by immune deposits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the defect associated with type I renal tubular acidosis?

A

Reduced H+ excretion in distal tubule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the defect associated with type II renal tubular acidosis?

A

Impaired HCO3- reabsorption in the proximal tubule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the defect associated with type IV renal tubular acidosis?

A

Impaired aldosterone action causing reduced H+ and NH3+ excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the usual plasma HCO3- in type I renal tubular acidosis?

A

<10mmol/l

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the usual plasma HCO3- in type IV renal tubular acidosis?

A

Usually >15mmol/l

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the usual plasma K+ in type IV renal tubular acidosis?

A

High

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the usual plasma HCO3- in type II renal tubular acidosis?

A

Usually 10-20mmol/l

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the usual plasma K+ in type I renal tubular acidosis?

A

Low-normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the usual plasma K+ in type I renal tubular acidosis?

A

Low-normal

11
Q

What type of renal tubular acidosis is associated with nephrocalcinosis?

A

Type I

12
Q

What type of renal tubular acidosis is associated with high urine calcium:creatinine ratio?

A

Type I

13
Q

What are factors predictive of a poorer prognosis in HUS?

A

Non-Shiga toxin HUS
Prolonged oliguria or anuria
Severe hypertension
Involvement of medium-sized arteries
Severity of CNS symptoms
Extensive glomerular involvement (>80%)
Age >5years

14
Q

What are the indicators for renal biopsy in HSP?

A

Proteinuria (>200mg/mmol) with increasing trend >4weeks after diagnosis
Nephrotic syndrome
Nephritic syndrome
Hypertension
Macroscopic haematuria

15
Q

What are the features of nephrotic syndrome?

A

Low albumin
Oedema
Heavy proteinuria

16
Q

What are the features of nephritic syndrome?

A

Hypertension
Haematuria
Rapidly deteriorating renal function

17
Q

What are the typical features of Bartter syndrome?

A

Faltering growth
Hypokalaemia
Metabolic alkalosis with low chloride

18
Q

What is the treatment of Bartter syndrome?

A

Electrolyte replacement
Potassium-sparing diuretics
NSAIDs

19
Q

What is grade V VUR?

A

Grossly dilated ureter, pelvis and calyces along with loss of papillary impressions

19
Q

What is grade I VUR?

A

Urine which refluxes into a non-dilated ureter

20
Q

What is grade II VUR?

A

Reflux up into the pelvis and calyces with no dilatation

20
Q

What is grade III VUR?

A

Mild ureteric dilatation, renal pelvis dilatation and minimal calyceal blunting

21
Q

What is an absolute indication for renal biopsy in nephrotic syndrome?

A

Steroid resistant disease

21
Q

What are the inheritable renal cystic diseases?

A

Cysts associated with multiple malformations
Infantile (AR) PCKD
Adult (AD) PCKD

21
Q

What is grade IV VUR?

A

Reflux into dilater ureter, renal pelvis and calyces and moderate ureteral torturosity

22
Q

What is the best management for idiopathic hypercalciuria?

A

Thiazide diuretics

23
Q

How does Gitelman syndrome typically present?

A

Hypokalaemia
Hypomagnesaemia
Hypocalciuria
Normotension
Hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis

24
Q

What causes Gitelman syndrome?

A

AR condition with a defect in the NaCl transporter in distal collecting tubules

25
Q

How is Gitelman syndrome treated?

A

Electrolyte replacement
Potassium sparing diuretics

26
Q

What is seen in nephrotic syndrome on electron microscopy?

A

Foot process fusion of the glomerular epithelial cells

27
Q

How does IgA nephropathy typically present?

A

Recurrent episodes of macroscopic haematuria with infections

28
Q

In what conditions are oxalate stones due to secondary hyperoxaluria more common?

A

Short gut syndrome
Crohns
Pancreatitis
CF

28
Q

What does CXR show in Goodpasture syndrome?

A

Bilateral diffuse infiltrates in lower zones

29
Q

What is the dose of levamisole when used in nephrotic syndrome?

A

2.5mg/kg taken on alternate days

30
Q

What pathological process occurs in nephrogenic diabetes insipidus?

A

Kidneys are resistant to effects of ADH therefore there is an inability to concentrate urine despite normal/high ADH

31
Q

What effect does desmopressin have on urine concentration in nephrogenic DI?

A

No effect

32
Q

What effect does AR PCKD have on the kidneys?

A

Cysts which occupy the collecting system and leads to dilatation of the ducts

33
Q

Which chromosomal defect is most common in ADPKD?

A

PKD1 on Ch16

34
Q

What structure does the mesonephric duct give rise to?

A

Seminal vesicles
Epididymides
Vas deferens
Bladder trigone
Renal pelvis
Ureters

35
Q

What is the cause of cystinosis?

A

AR disorder caused by accumulation of cystine in lysosomes

36
Q

What are the features of cystinosis?

A

Faltering growth
Low K
Low PO4
Metabolic acidosis
High urinary pH
Multisystem disorder

37
Q

What is Fanconi syndrome?

A

Impairment of reabsorption in the proximal tubule

38
Q

What are the typical blood results in Fanconi syndrome?

A

Low PO4
Low K
Low HCO3-

39
Q

What is the typical urinary results in Fanconi syndrome?

A

Polyuria
Glycosuria
Proteinuria

40
Q

How does a hydrocoele present?

A

Painless and fluctuant - most commonly following birth or post-trauma

41
Q

Which hormonal factor is primarily responsible for the transabdominal phase of testicular descent?

A

Insulin-like 3 protein

41
Q
A
42
Q
A
42
Q
A
43
Q
A
43
Q
A
44
Q
A

1MRCPCH FOP and TAS (23 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions