Resp Flashcards

1
Q

Most common cause of occupational asthma

A

isocyanates (spray paint)

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2
Q

upper lobe fibrosis

A

CHARTS
C - Coal worker’s pneumoconiosis
H - Histiocytosis/ hypersensitivity pneumonitis
A - Ankylosing spondylitis
R - Radiation
T - Tuberculosis
S - Silicosis/sarcoidosis

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3
Q

causes of exudative pleural effusion

A
  1. Malignany
  2. Emphyema (low pleural glucose conc + pleural fluid <7.3)
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4
Q

what can cause a false negative manatoux test

A

sarcoidosis

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5
Q

upper zone fibrosis, egg-shell calcification of hilar nodes

A

silicosis

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6
Q

klebsiella symptoms

A

red current jelly sputum
alcoholics
Lead to pleural emphyema

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7
Q

contraindication to lung cancer surgery

A

superior vena cava obstruction
vocal cord paralysis

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8
Q

what drug class is ipatropium bromide

A

SAMA

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9
Q

Example of a LABA

A

salmetrolol

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10
Q

Example of a LAMA

A

Tiotropium

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11
Q

cause of coarse crackers

A

fluid in lungs

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12
Q

idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis what is heard

A

fine end inspiratory crepitations

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13
Q

cavitating lesions what cancer

A

squamous cell

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14
Q

what is used to guide antibiotic treatment in acute bronchitis

A

CRP >100 immediate
(doxycycline/amoxicillin)

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15
Q

pleural fluid protein >30

A

exudative

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16
Q

COPD prophylaxis

A

azithromycin

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17
Q

Diagnosis of mesothelioma

A

thoracoscopy and histology

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18
Q

high risk pneumothorax treatment

A

straight to chest drain

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19
Q

What is meigs syndrome

A

fibroma
ascites
pleural effusion

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20
Q

What is the triangle of safety

A

base of the axilla, lateral edge pectoralis major, 5th intercostal space and the anterior border of latissimus dorsi

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21
Q

When do you have to do abg

A

oxygen sats <92%

22
Q

what is lupus pernio associated with

A

sarcoidosis

23
Q

what is sued to prevent recurrence of pneumothorax

A

Video assisted thoracoscopic surgery (VATS) pleurodesis
61%

24
Q

Over rapid aspiration/drainage of pneumothorax can result in

A

pulmonary oedema

25
Q

what must be done before starting TNF-inhibitors?

A

chest x ray to look for TB

26
Q

indication for thrombolysis in PE

A

massive PE + hypotension

27
Q

most common cause of IE with strep viridians

A

poor dental hygience

28
Q

why do you get hypercalcaemia in sarcoidosis

A

increased conversion of vitamin D to its active form

29
Q

treatment of Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis

A

pred and itraconazole

30
Q

what does A1TP do

A

protect against neutrophil elastase which causes breakdown of alveoli

31
Q

lights criteria for exudative

A

pleural fluid protein divided by serum protein >0.5
pleural fluid LDH divided by serum LDH >0.6

32
Q

CAP treatment

A

amoxicillin TDS 500mg

33
Q

Adult acute asthma management

A
  1. Oxygen
  2. Oxygen driven nebulised salbutamol 5mg
  3. Steroids: pred 40mg or IV hydrocortisone 20mg
  4. Neb ipratropium bromide
34
Q

What immediate investigations would you do in an asthma attack

A

Current Peak Flow: Expected - *>75% mild, 50-75% moderate, <33% life threatening
SpO2 - hypoxia
ABG - hypoxia, normo/hyper capnia & uncomplicated acidosis
CXR - ?infection

35
Q

Important investigations following pleural tap

A
  1. LDH and Protein in Pleural Fluid/Serum → determine whether effusion is exudate or transudate
  2. Effusion Cytology → to investigate possible concerns of malignancy
  3. Glucose or pH of Effusion → investigate possible malignancy (both should
    be low)
36
Q

What is seen on chest x-ray with pleural effusion

A

Blunting of costophrenic angles
Opaque consolidation in right hemithorax & concave meniscus sign

37
Q

In considering the patient for a chest drain insertion, you wish to avoid the costal blood vessels. Where are these located and how can they be avoided?

A

Location → costal grooves on the inferior surface of the ribs
How to Avoid → insert the chest drain directly above the rib (4-6th on mid-axillary line) aiming inferiorly

38
Q

what will CTPA show with PE

A

occlusion of pulmonary vasculature +/- distally threadlike vessels

39
Q

cause of pneumonia in bird owners

A

Chlamydia psittaci

40
Q

what eye condition does ethambutol cause

A

optic neuritis

41
Q

criteria for discharge following asthma attack

A

been stable on their discharge medication (i.e. no nebulisers or oxygen) for 12-24 hours
inhaler technique checked and recorded
PEF >75% of best or predicted

42
Q

A 33-year-old man who is known to be HIV positive presents with cough and dyspnoea. Auscultation of his chest is unremarkable but he is noted to desaturate on exertion.

A

pneumocytosis jiroveci

43
Q

which TB drug causes INR to go up vs down

A

down: rifampicin (inducers)
Up: isoniazid (inhibitors)

44
Q

which pneumonia organism cause positive cold agglutination test → peripheral blood smear may show red blood cell agglutination

A

mycoplasma

45
Q

common complication of PJP

A

pneumothorax

46
Q

LTOT requirements

A

Offer LTOT to patients with a pO2 of < 7.3 kPa or to those with a pO2 of 7.3 - 8 kPa and one of the following:
secondary polycythaemia
peripheral oedema
pulmonary hypertension

47
Q

A small (1-2cm) calcified nodule is visible in the lateral area of the right mid zone

A

ghon focus - latent TB

48
Q

malignancy associated with asbestos

A

bronchogenic carcinoma.

49
Q

which side is aspiration pneumonia more common in

A

right

50
Q

how many lobes does right lung have

A

3