Paeds Flashcards

1
Q

What conditions are associated with pulmonary hypoplasia

A
  • congenital diaphragmatic hernia
  • oligohydraminos
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2
Q

Why should you avoid hypotonic (0.45%) saline in paeds

A

risk of hyponatremic encephalopathy

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3
Q

monitoring for HUS

A

BP and urinalysis to look for renal involvement

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4
Q

IV fluid bolus in children

A

20ml/kg over less than 10 mins

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5
Q

Whirlpool sign

A

malrotation

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6
Q

treatment of malrotation

A

Ladd procedure

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7
Q

what can trigger an aplastic crisis in children with hereditary spherocytosis

A

parvovirus

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8
Q

paediatric HIV

A

Low risk babies, where mums viral load is < 50 copies per ml, should be given zidovudine for 4 weeks
High risk babies, where mums viral load is > 50 copies / ml, should be given zidovudine, lamivudine and nevirapine for 4 weeks

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9
Q

initial vs definitive management of hirschprungs

A

initial: bowel irrigation
definitive: anorectal pullthrough

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10
Q

neonatal hypoglycaemia treatment

A

asymptomatic
- encourage normal feeding (breast or bottle)
-monitor blood glucose
symptomatic or very low blood glucose
- vadmit to the neonatal unit
- intravenous infusion of 10% dextrose

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11
Q

partial seizures during sleep

A

benign rolandic epilepsy
centrotemporal spikes

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12
Q

features of PDA

A

left subclavicular thrill
continuous ‘machinery’ murmur
large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse
wide pulse pressure
heaving apex beat

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13
Q

which congential infection can cause PDA

A

rubella in first trimester

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14
Q

how to differentiate TGA and TOF

A

Cyanotic congenital heart disease presenting within the first days of life is TGA.
Cyanotic congenital heart disease presenting at 1-2 months of age is TOF

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15
Q

cystic fibrosis treatment

A

Lumacaftor/Ivacaftor (Orkambi) c

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16
Q

impetigo treatment

A

localised non-bullous impetigo = hydrogen peroxide
widespread = fusidic acid 2%

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17
Q

how to differentiate caput succedaneum and cephalohematoma

A

Caput Succedaneum
successfully Crosses Sutures

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18
Q

moderate asthma attack

A

Oral prednisolone and salbutamol via a spacer: one puff every 30-60 seconds to a maximum of 10 puffs

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19
Q

acute epiglottis cause

A

Haemophilus influenzae type B

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20
Q

VSD murmur

A

pansystolic murmur

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21
Q

bow legs in children

A

resolves by 4 years

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22
Q

umbilical hernias

A

Usually self-resolve, but if large or symptomatic perform elective repair at 2-3 years of age. If small and asymptomatic peform elective repair at 4-5 years of age.

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23
Q

dex dosage for croup

A

150mcg/kg PO

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24
Q

congenital adrenal hyperplasia cause

A

partial deficiency of 21 hydroxylase and results in a reduction in aldosterone and cortisol. This can present with irregular or absent periods accompanied by early onset pubic hair, acne and hirsutism. A high level of 17-hydroxyprogesterone is associated with this diagnosis

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25
Q

serious complication of turners

A

aortic root dissection

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26
Q

what class of antibiotic for whooping cough

A

macrolide: azithromycin/clarithromycin

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27
Q

whooping cough symptoms

A

Paroxysmal cough.
Inspiratory whoop.
Post-tussive vomiting.
Undiagnosed apnoeic attacks in young infants.

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28
Q

NRDs chest x-ray

A

diffuse ground glass lungs with low volumes and a bell-shaped thorax

29
Q

APGAR

A

Pulse, respiratory effort, colour, muscle tone, reflex irritability
70%

30
Q

williams heart defect

A

supravalvular aortic stenosis

SUPER cos theyre HAPPY

31
Q

oligo or poly for DDH

A

oligo due to restricted movement

32
Q

what murmur do you get with ebsteins abnormality

A

pansystolic due to tricuspid regurg

33
Q

Vesicoureteric reflux investigation

A

VUR is normally diagnosed following a micturating cystourethrogram
a DMSA scan may also be performed to look for renal scarring

34
Q

Heel prick results with down syndrome

A

raised level of immunoreactive trypsinogen (IRT).

35
Q

when does infantile colic resolve by

A

6 months

36
Q

chest x-ray with ttn

A

hyperinflation of the lungs and fluid in the horizontal fissure.

37
Q

malignant bone tumour x-ray

A

Codman’s Triangle - as tumours enlarges raising the periosteum sunray calcification - new
bone breaches the cortex & radiates outwards into adjacent soft tissue

38
Q

how do you check visual acuity in children

A

cardiff cards

39
Q

2 tests for intusucception

A

US → target lesion/donut sign
AXR → might show edge of intussusception

40
Q

3 complications of intusucception

A

Intestinal Perforation and/or Ischaemia and/or Necrosis
Hypovolemic Shock
Sepsis

41
Q

6 features of down syndrome

A
  • single palmar crease
  • epicanthic folds
  • brushfield spots on iris
  • Wide space between 1st/2nd toes
  • flat occiput
42
Q

gastro abnormalities associated with downs

A

Duodenal/ anal stenosis
Duodenal/ anal atresia
Hirschsprung disease
Tracheoesophageal fistula

43
Q

potential risk of not treating jaundice

A

kernicterus

44
Q

clinical signs of appendicitis

A

Tachycardia
Rovsing sign - RIF pain when palpating LIF
Psoas sign - RIF pain on hyperextension of R hip
Obturator sign - RIF on internal rotation of flexed right hip
McBurney’s sign - RIF over appendix

45
Q

important investigation after febrile convulsion

A

urinalysis

46
Q

febrile convulsion prognosis

A

~33% of patients will have another febrile seizure, while 10-20% will have ≥3 further
episodes with most occurring within 2 years of the initial presentation
There is also a 2-5% risk of developing Epilepsy depending on the type of febrile seizure

47
Q

leukaemia definition

A

Haematological Malignancy
Presence of neoplastic haemopoietic cells in the bone marrow +/- peripheral circulation

48
Q

methods for uncontaminated urine sample

A

Catheter specimen
Supra-pubic aspiration
Clean-catch midstream specimen

49
Q

diagnosis of UTI standards

A

Pyuria
Bacteriuria

50
Q

radiological investigation following UTI

A

Within 6 weeks of UTI an US of the urinary tract should be performed to identify structural
abnormalities

51
Q

alternative to methylphenidate

A

dexafetamine

52
Q

signs that support ruptured appendix

A

Air under the diaphragm on erect CXR
Rigid, board-like abdomen on palpation

53
Q

differential diagnosis for swelling in forearm

A

Cellulitis
Ewing’s Sarcoma / Osteosarcoma
Trauma (fracture with possible compartment syndrome)

54
Q

initial management of osteomtelitis

A

Analgesia e.g. paracetamol → to reduce distress,
Arrange admission and referral to orthopaedics for possible surgical drainage if initially
unresponsive
Empirical Antibiotics e.g. Flucloxacillin and Benzylpenicillin → to treat infection and prevent
bone necrosis, chronic infection with discharging sinus, limb deformity and amyloidosis

55
Q

ENT paeds difficulty hearing and ear pain

A

Acute Otitis Media with Effusion (aka glue ear)
Recurrent Acute Otitis Media
Adenoid Hypertrophy
Foreign Body
Allergic Rhinitis

56
Q

treatment of glue ear

A

Grommet facilitates improved hearing via ↑ conduction of sound
Adenoidectomy improved nasal obstruction

57
Q

guthrie heel prick test findings

A
  • Guthrie Assay (identifies Phenylketonuria)
  • Immunoreactive Trypsin (Cystic Fibrosis)
  • Thyroid Function Tests (Hypothyroidism)
  • Sickle Cell Disease
58
Q

x-ray with NEC

A

Dilated Bowel Loops, Bowel wall oedema, Pneumotitis Intestinalis:

59
Q

what screening is offered with JIA

A

anterior uveitis: eye testing every 3 months

60
Q

centor criteria

A
  • presence of tonsillar exudate
  • tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy or lymphadenitis
  • history of fever
  • absence of cough
61
Q

EBV symptoms triad

A

sore throat, pyrexia and lymphadenopathy

62
Q

perths disease what do you see on x-ray

A

avascular necrosis
- osteopenia and microfractures
- collapse of the articular surface may result in the crescent sign
- osteosclerosis
- flattening or femoral head

63
Q

how to calculate fluid deficit

A

Fluid deficit (mL) = % dehydration x weight (kg) x 10

64
Q

constipation

A
  1. movicol
  2. stimulant (senna)
  3. osmotic (lactulose)
65
Q

complication of not treating exotropia

A

amblyopia

66
Q

cause of necrotising fasciitis after chicken pox

A

group a strep

67
Q

threadworm organism

A

Enterobius vermicularis

68
Q

what should be checked for in active kids with down syndrome

A

atlantoaxial instability