obs and gynae

Question 1

Management of herpes in pregnancy

Answer 1

oral aciclovir 400 mg TDS until c-section

Question 2

contraindication for HRT

Answer 2

undiagnosed vaginal bleeding

Question 3

What vaccination are pregnant women offered

Answer 3

pertussis between 16-32 weeks

Question 4

Which antenatal infections are not screened

Answer 4

group b strep
hep c
toxoplasmosis
cytomegalovirus
BV
chlymydia

Question 5

triple test results for down syndrome

Answer 5

increased nuchal translucency
decreased PAPP-A
increased B-HCG

Edwards/pataus similar but low B-HCG

Question 6

when is triple test done

Answer 6

11-13+6
Quadruple is 14+

Question 7

most common cause of early onset neonatal sepsis

Answer 7

group b strep

Question 8

placenta accreta, incretta, percretta

Answer 8

acreta: attach to myometriu
increta: extend through myometrium
perceta: extend through myometrium and permetrium

Question 9

What is cocp protective/increased risk for?

Answer 9

increased: breast + cervical
protective: endometrial + ovarian

Question 10

antibiotic treatment for PID

Answer 10

metronidazole, doxycycline, ceftriaxone

Question 11

HRT with progesterone increases risk of….

Answer 11

breast cancer

Question 12

ontinuous dribbling incontinence after prolonged labour and from a country with poor obstetric services.

Answer 12

vesicovaginal fistula: urinary dye studies

Question 13

up until when do postpartum not require contraception

Answer 13

21 days

Question 14

HIV cervical screening

Answer 14

annual cervical cytology

Question 15

when can you restart hormonal contraception after emergency

Answer 15

levongesterol: immedietly
Ellaone: 5 days

Question 16

most common SE of POP

Answer 16

irregular bleeding

Question 17

incomplete miscarriage treatment

Answer 17

vaginal misoprostal

Question 18

complications of PID

Answer 18

Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome is a complication of pelvic inflammatory disease in which the liver capsule becomes inflamed causing right upper quadrant pain. This leads to scar tissue formation and peri-hepatic adhesions.

Question 19

risk factors for gestational diabetes

Answer 19

BMI of > 30 kg/m²
previous macrosomic baby weighing 4.5 kg or above
previous gestational diabetes
first-degree relative with diabetes
family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes (South Asian, black Caribbean and Middle Eastern)

Question 20

meigs syndrome

Answer 20

a benign ovarian tumour
ascites
pleural effusion

Question 21

edwards syndrome quadruple test

Answer 21

↓ AFP
↓ oestriol
↓ hCG
↔ inhibin A

Question 22

what is the only condition that causes high inhibin a

Answer 22

downs

Question 23

risk factors for placenta accreta

Answer 23

previous caesarean section
placenta praeviaf

Question 24

expectant management of ectopic criteria

Answer 24

1) An unruptured embryo
2) <35mm in size
3) Have no heartbeat
4) Be asymptomatic
5) Have a B-hCG level of <1,000IU/L and declining

Question 25

menopause contraception

Answer 25

12 months after the last period in women > 50 years
24 months after the last period in women < 50 years

Question 26

what conditions are screened for

Answer 26

Anaemia
Bacteriuria
Blood group, Rhesus status and anti-red cell antibodies
Down’s syndrome
Fetal anomalies
Hepatitis B
HIV
Neural tube defects
Risk factors for pre-eclampsia
Syphilis

Question 27

snowstorm appearance

Answer 27

complete hydatidiform mole

Question 28

bishop score features

Answer 28

Cervical position (posterior/intermediate/anterior)
Cervical consistency (firm/intermediate/soft)
Cervical effacement (0-30%/40-50%/60-70%/80%)
Cervical dilation (<1 cm/1-2 cm/3-4 cm/>5 cm)
Foetal station (-3/-2/-1, 0/+1,+2)

Question 29

features of pre-eclapmsia

Answer 29

• RUQ pain
• Headache
• Visual changes
• oedema

Question 30

benefits of HRT

Answer 30

• reduce menopause symptoms
• reduce osteoporotic fractures
• reduce risk of CVD

Question 31

complications of preterm rupture of membranes

Answer 31

Preterm Labour -> hypoglycaemia/NRDs
Infection → Chorioamnionitis
Foetal Distress/Death
Placental Abruption
Cord Prolapse

Question 32

resp signs indicating respiratory distress syndrome

Answer 32

Cyanosis
Nasal Flaring
Intercostal Indrawing
Subcostal Recession

Question 33

abnormal CTG signs

Answer 33

Reduced Variability (<5bpm changes for >40mins)
Baseline Tachycardia
Late Decelerations

Question 34

most common types of malignant tumours of cervix

Answer 34

SCC
adenocarcinoma

Question 35

HIV in pregnancy

Answer 35

• antiretroviral therapy
• IV zidovudane infusion during birth
• zidovudane given to neonate up to 6 weeks
• NO BREASTFEEDING

Question 36

Clue cells

Answer 36

BV

Question 37

POF diagnosis

Answer 37

raised FSH followed by repeat sample 4-6 weeks later

Question 38

RMI

Answer 38

US findings, menopausal status and CA125 levels

Question 39

Fraser guidelines

Answer 39

the young person understands the professional’s advice
the young person cannot be persuaded to inform their parents
the young person is likely to begin, or to continue having, sexual intercourse with or without contraceptive treatment
unless the young person receives contraceptive treatment, their physical or mental health, or both, are likely to suffer
the young person’s best interests require them to receive contraceptive advice or treatment with or without parental consent

Question 40

ovarian cancer treatment

Answer 40

stage 1: chemo
stage 2+: surgery

Question 41

premature, oxygen therapy, absent red reflex, retinal neovascularisation

Answer 41

retinopathy o newborn

Question 42

how much should fundus grow by and where should it be felt

Answer 42

After 24 weeks you would only expect the fundal height to increase by 1cm a week
fundus to be palpable at the umbilicus from 20 weeks and at the xiphoid sternum from 36 weeks.