Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

0. pdf review ? > Reproduction > Flashcards

Reproduction Flashcards

1
Q

What is the first test that should be ordered in the evaluation of amenorrhea?

A

Pregnancy test. ALWAYS. Even if the patient denies the possibility; the first test is always a pregnancy test.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Dopamine antagonists will do what to prolactin?

A

Dopamine antagonists will INCREASE prolactin levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Normally medications won’t elevate prolactin levels past what value?

A

Medications rarely increase prolactin levels >100. If a prolactin level >100 is seen, others causes should be ruled out.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What hematologic etiology is a common cause of DUB?


A

Coagulation disorders such as Von-Willebrand (prolonged PTT). Screen with PT/PTT


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Next best step when evaluating post menopausal bleeding?

A

Every patient requires endometrial biopsy to rule out endometrial cancer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A post menopausal endometrial stripe over what value is suspicious for endometrial cancer?

A

> 5mm is suspicious for endometrial cancer. The next step should be biopsy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the most accurate test to diagnose endometriosis?

A

Laparoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What hormones are responsible for the growth of fibroids?

A

Progesterone and estrogen. This is the reason most will shrink after menopause.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When is drawing a serum CA-125 useful?

A

This is most useful in post menopausal women. There are many etiologies that can give false positives in pre menopausal women.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When should a simple cyst be explored surgically?

A

Any cyst >10cm should be surgically explored.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

At what age should women start to have cervical cancer screening?

A

Pap smear screening starts at 21 years of age, regardless of pregnancy or sexually activity before 21 years of age.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the treatment of choice for chlamydia and gonorrhea?

A
  1. Chlamydia is treated with azithromycin or doxycycline


2. Gonorrhea is treated with ceftriaxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the treatment of choice for chlamydia during pregnancy?

A

These patients should not receive doxycycline. First line treatment here is azithromycin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What cervical length increases the risk of second trimester loss due to an incom- petent cervix?

A

Patients with a cervical length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the definition of menopause?

A

Menopause occurs after menses has stopped for >1 year.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Why is progesterone given with estrogen during HRT?

A

Patients with an intact uterus are given progesterone to protect against endometrial cancer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What two genes increase the risk of breast cancer?

A

Those with BRCA 1 and BRCA 2 have an increased risk of developing breast cancer.

18
Q

At what age should mammogram screening be started?

A

A yearly mammogram should be started at 40 years of age.

19
Q

What is Fitz-Hugh Curtis syndrome?

A

This is seen in PID. Inflammation of the liver capsule will lead to RUQ pain.

20
Q

When is it appropriate to begin a workup for infertility in those trying to conceive?

A

Patients who are 35 should have a workup done after 6 months of trying.

21
Q

What is Naegles rule?

A

This is used to calculate the estimated date of delivery: (First day of LMP - 3 months) + 7 days = Due date

22
Q

What are pap smear guidelines during pregnancy?

A

Identical to those in non pregnant women. If pregnant and

23
Q

What are the genetic screening guidelines during pregnancy?

A

Patients should be screened with an NT and a first trimester serum testing at 11-13.6 weeks. Second trimester quadruple screening is done at 15-20 weeks gestation.

24
Q

When should Rhogam be administered?

A

Rhogam is administered to RH negative mothers at 28 weeks gestation.

25
Q

A patient is deemed to have a failed pregnancy. Products of conception are seen on ultrasound. The pelvic exam shows a closed cervical os. What type of
abortion is this?

A

This is consistent with missed abortion.

26
Q

Painful third trimester bleeding is most likely what diagnosis?

A

Placental abruption

27
Q

Painless second and third trimester bleeding is what until proven otherwise?

A

Placenta previa. These patients should not have a pelvic exam or transvaginal ultrasound due to an increased risk of hemorrhage.

28
Q

What are three risk factors for ectopic pregnancy?

A
  1. Prior ectopic


2. Pregnancy with IUD
 3. History of PID

29
Q

After what HCG level should a gestational sac be visible on ultrasound?

A

A gestation sac should be seen after an HCG quant of 2,000 ml/ml is reached.

30
Q

What are the indications for methotrexate use in ectopic pregnancy?

A
  1. Stable


2. HCG quant

31
Q

How are patients screened for gestational diabetes?

A
  1. First trimester screening is done with HA1c.
  2. Second trimester screening (24-28 weeks) is done with a 2 hour OGTT. Alternatively can be done with 1 hour OGTT, and if abnormal, perform a 3 hour OGTT.
32
Q

A 40 year old patient is coming in for a first prenatal visit. She is complaining of vaginal bleeding with pelvic pain. Ultrasound demonstrates a snow storm pattern. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

This is classic for gestational trophoblastic disease. These patients will usually have an HCG quant >100,000 and will be rapidly rising.

33
Q

What is the definition of chronic hypertension?

A

Hypertension diagnosed before 20 weeks gestation is termed chronic hypertension.

34
Q

Preeclampisa before 20 weeks should clue you in to what diagnosis?

A

A molar pregnancy should be suspected if this occurs.


35
Q

How is preeclampsia diagnosed?

A

Hypertension with proteinuria and/or end organ damage >20 weeks gestation. Edema is no longer part of the diagnostic criteria since most women will have edema during pregnancy.

36
Q

What is HEELP syndrome?

A
  1. Hemolysis

  2. Elevated liver enzymes

  3. Low platelets
37
Q

What is the treatment for preeclampsia, eclampsia, and HEELP syndrome?

A

Definitive treatment for all the above is induction.

38
Q

Why is magnesium given to patients with severe preeclampsia?

A

This is given for seizure prophylaxis.

39
Q

What are first line medications for the treatment of gestational hypertension?

A

Labetolol and methyldopa are first line medications.

40
Q

What is the most common cause of post partum hemorrhage?

A

Uterine atopy is the most common cause. This occurs when the uterus does not con- tract after delivery.

0. pdf review ? (26 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions