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Random Learning From FA- IMPORTANT Flashcards

1
Q

Page 585, FA
GoodPasture’ Syndrome and Granulomatosis with Polyangitis, both show CRESCENTERIC GLOMERULONEPHRITIS ON LM. Then how do we differentiate?

A

GoodPasture’s has LINEAR IF.
Granulomatosis with Polyangitis has NEGATIVE IF (also called Pauci immune)

There are 2 types of Granulomatosis with polyangitis:
1-Wagener’s which is C-ANCA positive.
(we can C wagon-Rs on the road commonly)

  1. Microscopic Polyangitis which is P-ANCA/MPO-ANCA positive.
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2
Q

Page 191 of FA.

Name 50S and 30S inhibitors?

A

50S- CCEL
Chloramphenicol, Clindamycin, Erythromycin, Linezolid

30S- AT 30 (mnemonic)
Aminoglycosides
Tetracyclines

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3
Q

How do 50S inhibitors differ from one another, though all of them bind to 50S ribosome?

A

Chloramphenicol- inhibits PEPTIDYL TRANSFERASE which strops covalent bonding being formed between amino acids
(Asked in NBME, also on Page 191)

Linezolid- inhibits formation of initiation complex.

Macrolides and Clindamycin- Blocks translocation i.e. tRNA is unable to slide after giving its amino acid to the chain

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4
Q

All ribosomal unit protein synthesis inhibitors are bacteriocidal/bacteriostatic?

A

Bacteriostatic

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5
Q

What is special about Acebutolol and Pindolol?

What is the difference between the two?

A

Both of these drugs are B-blockers but both of them have the property of PARTIAL AGONISM.

Acebutolol is B1 selective B blocker
Pindolol is Non-selective B blocker

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6
Q

Which B-blockers should be used with caution in Angina? And why?

A

Acebutalol and Pindolol, both are partial B-agonists.

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7
Q 
Nitrates decrease which of the 2 component that B-blockers increase?
(Page 314 of FA)
End Diastolic Volume
Blood Pressure
Contractility
HR
Ejection time
Myocardial Oxygen Consumtion
A

Because of VENODILATION, nitrates DECREASE the following which B-blockers don’t:
End-Diastolic Volume and Ejection time.

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8
Q

Which staining do you need to do for the diagnosis of sideroblastic anemia?
What SPECIFICALLY stains positive for that stain done on Bone Marrow aspirate?

A

Prussian blue.

In siderblastic anemia, prussian blue-stained MITOCHONDRIA are seen?

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9
Q

Basophilic Stippling of RBCs is seen in which two conditions?

A
  1. Lead Poisoning

2. Sideroblastic Anemia

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10
Q

3 conditions for positive prussian blue staining and the particular test in which they are positive?

A

Hemochromatosis- Prussian Blue staining positive on Liver biopsy.

Asbestosis- Prussian Blue staining positive on Bronchoalveiolar lavage. Ferriginous bodies stain positive for prussian blue stain as they are present in Alveolar sputum samples

Sideroblastic Anemia- Bone Marrow Aspirates stain positive with prussian blue. Prussian blue positive MITOCHONDRIA are found in ringed sideroblasts of Bone Marrow

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11
Q

Use of ACE inhibitors in a pregnant woman will result in fetus to have?

A
  1. Renal malformations causing oligohydroamnios

2. Hypovalvaria

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12
Q

Stippled Epiphyses in a fetus can be a consequence of which teratogenic drug?

A

Warfarin

Also results in Nasal Hypoplasia

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13
Q

Treatement of Tourette Syndrome

A

Fluphenazine, Tetrabenazine

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14
Q

Myelosupression can be avoided by giving which drug?

A

Leucovorin (Folinic Acid)

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15
Q

Leucovorin should be co-administered with which 2 drugs?

A
  1. 5 FU (enhances effect)
  2. Trimethoprim (reduces S/E)

Used to treat methotrexate overdose.

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16
Q

What is the serum tumour marker for carcinoid tumour?

A

Neuron-Specific enolase

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17
Q

Immunohistochemical stain for carcinoid tumour?

A

Chromogranin and Synaptophysin

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18
Q

Treatment of carcinoid tumour?

A

Octeotride (Somatostatin analog)

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19
Q

What are 3 receptor tyrosine kinase oncogenes?

FA page 225

A

HER2
ALK
RET

20
Q

What is the problem in Diamond Blackfan anemia?

What is its manifestation?

A

Congenital form of pure red cell aplasia- defect in erythroid progenitor cells.

Short stature, and TRIPHALYNGEAL THUMB.

21
Q

Which tumour is associated with NBTE?

A

Pancreatic adenocarcinoma

22
Q

Desquamated epithelium casts in sputum?

also called curschmann spirals

A

Bronchial asthma.

23
Q

Neuraminidase inhibitors like oseltamivir, zanamivir are used to treat _____________ became it prevents _______________.

A

Often used to treat acute influenza because they PREVENT THE VIRUS FROM LEAVING THE CELL.

(Neuraminidase promotes progeny virion release as it cleaves sialic acid on cells———-> shown in sketchy that octopus trying to cut sialic acid ropes with a knife, and knife caps are oseltamivir, zanamivir)

24
Q

3 conditions where there’s paternal imprinting?

I.e. father’s genes are silenced, and maternal mutations cause the disease

A 
Complete mole (Mother’s mutation because the egg is enucleated)
AngelMan Syndrome
Pseudohypoparathyroidism Type 1A
25
Q

Basophilic stippling is basically the aggregation of ____________.

A

Ribosomal proteins NOT iron.

26
Q

Fitz hugh curtis syndrome?

A

Caused by Neisseria Gonorrhea when it causes PERIHEPATITIS after PID.

Inflammation and infection of liver capsule, biokon string like adhesions of peritoneum to liver.

27
Q

What’s the problem in familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia?

A

Higher than normal Ca levels are required to supress PTH release.
So PTH bhee ziaada, Calcium bhee ziaada, lekin HYPOCALCIURIA.

Gq coupled ca sensing receptors mein maslaa hai.

28
Q

Page 379 and 380 of FA.

Currant jelly stools are seen in which two diseases?

A

Acute mesenteric ischemia (due to occlusion of SMA)

And Intussusception.

29
Q

Angiosarcoma is a malignant tumour of ____________ origin, associated with exposure to ___________, __________________.

A

Endothelial origin.

Exposure to arsenic, vinyl chloride.

30
Q

What disease is primary sclerosing cholangitis associated with?

A

Ulcerative Colitis

31
Q

Motor innervation of swallowing?

A

CN 10, 12.

CN 10 innervates PALATOGLOSSUS which elevates posterior tongue for swallowing.

CN 12 innervates
Hyoglossus- retracts and depressed tongue.
Genioglossus- protrudes tongue
Styloglossus- creates a trough for swallowing by elevating sides of the tongue

32
Q

Dysphagia, hoarseness and Absent gag reflex occurs in which artery stroke?

A

PICA——> due to Nucleus ambigus in Lateral Medulla.

33
Q

Esophageal pathology that presents with Dysphagia but shows normal LES pressure?

A

Diffuse Esophageal spasm—-> Bariam swallow reveals corkscrew esophagus

34
Q

Which two causes of Dysphagia presents as uncoordinated peristalsis on manometry?

A

Achalasia—-> LES pressure is high.

Diffused Esophageal Spasm——> LES pressure is normal.

35
Q

Dysphagia can caused due to dilatation of which part of heart?

A

LA- posterior most part of heart.

36
Q 
Intervertebral disc (nucleus
pulposus) herniates posterolaterally through \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_  into central canal.
A

annulus fibrosus (outer ring)

37
Q

What disc level herniation causes weakness in heel walking?

A

L4-L5

38
Q

What disc level herniation causes decreased Achilles reflex?

A

L5-S1

39
Q

The disc level herniation that causes weakness in knee extension and reduced patellar reflex, results in the parasthesia of which area of the leg?

A

Anterolateral thigh and anterior leg—> L3-L4 disc herniation

40
Q

Person comes to you with onset of severe pain of his lower back that radiates to his left leg, which intervertebral disc level is affected and what will be the motor deficit?

A 
Rupture of intervertebral disc occurred at L4-S3 level, and  it innervates 
semitendinosus,
semimembranosus, 
biceps femoris, 
adductor magnus
41
Q

How does I-cell disease manifest as?

A

Inclusion bodies in fibroblasts/ Intracytoplasmic inclusions seen in cultured fibroblasts
Cell secret large amount of acid hydrolases into the cultured medium/ Elevated levels of lysosomal enzymes in serum.

Claw hand, joint stiffness, corneal clouding, coarse faces, hepatosplenomegaly

42
Q

Non-receptor tyrosine kinase example?

A

BCR-ABL fusion protein.

Imatinib used for treatment of CML because it reduces tyrosine kinase activity

43
Q

Vocal fremitus is increased in only 1 lung condition and that is?

A

That condition is called LUNG CONSOLIDATION—> such as lobar pneumonia, pulmonary edema.

44
Q

Physeo’s scene of X linked recessive disorders, and name all of them.

A
  1. Becker and Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy.
  2. X-linked adrenoleukodystrophy
  3. Fabry Disease
  4. Hunter Syndrome
  5. Wiskot-Aldrich Syndrome
  6. Hemophilia A and B
  7. G6PD
  8. Menkes Disease
  9. OTC deficiency
  10. Lyesh-Nyhan syndrome
  11. Bruton Agammaglobulinemia
  12. SCID
45
Q

Physeo’s scene of Fragile X syndrome?

A

Champion Galvin Gliadin (CGG repeats)
X-linked dominant disease (The wrestler was winning)
Woman holding MVP sign—> Mitral Valve Prolapse occurs.
FMR1 gene is defective—–> Farmers have come to support the wrestler.
Long ears, enlarged testicles, long jaw.

46
Q

Physeo’s scene of Friedreich’s ataxia?

A

Friedreich’s—–> FREED from Georgia prison.
Chromosome 9 is affected (Same chromosome affected in tuberous sclerosis)
GAA repeats.
Frataxin gene is an iron binding protein (Federal tax collector’s office is made up of iron bars)
Dorsal column degenerated (PILLAR)–> causes loss of vibration/proprioception
Spinocerebellar tracts degenerate (Spiny wires around pillar)—-> causes ATAXIA.
Lateral Corticospinal tracts—-> the ladder—> causes spastic paralysis
degeneration of dorsal root ganglia causes loss of deep tendon reflexes.

Diabetes (Dyed beads), Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
Pes caves, hammer toes.

Nystagmus, dysarthria

Random Learning (20 decks)

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