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1
Q

focus on far objects

A

sympathetic

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2
Q

allow orbicularis oculi to work

A

parasympathetic

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3
Q

emotional lacrimation

A

sympathetic

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4
Q

focus on near objects

A

parasympathetic

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5
Q

vestibule-ocular reflex

A

turns eyes the opposite direction to a head movement

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6
Q

oculocardio reflex

A

reflex bradycardia in response to tension in the extraocular muscle, CNS connections between CN V1 (ophthalmic) and CN X

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7
Q

limbus

A

corneoscleral junction

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8
Q

what does the ciliary muscle do

A

a ring of smooth muscle in the eyes middle layer that controls accommodation for viewing objects at varying distances and regulates the flow of aq humour into Schlemms canal

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9
Q

what does the ciliary body do

A

includes the ciliary muscle and ciliary epithelium, ciliary muscle=accommodation and regulation of aq humour into Schlemms canal, ciliary epithelium produces the aq humour
folds on the inner ciliary epithelium are called ciliary processes and these secrete aq humour into the posterior chamber

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10
Q

what are the zonular fibers

A

they collectively make up the suspensory ligament of the lens
they provide strong attachment between the ciliary muscles and the capsule of the lens

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11
Q

what do horizontal cells do

A

laterallay interconnecting neurons having cell bodies in the inner layer of the retina
help integrate and regulate input from multiple photoreceptor cells
allowing eyes to adjust and see well under both bright and dim light conditions, horizontal cells provide inhibitory feedback to rod and cone receptors

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12
Q

where does the venous drainage of the eye go to

A

drains to the cavernous sinus by superior orbital fissure

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13
Q

what is the venous drainage of the ye

A

superior ophthalmic vein
inferior ophthalmic vein (which drains mostly into superior ophthalmic vein)
also drains anteriorly into the facial vein (a valveless vein)

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14
Q

where do the rectus muscles all originate from

A

common tendinous ring/annulus of zinn/ annular tendon

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15
Q

what is osteochondritis dissecans

A

a piece of cartilage and a thin layer of bone separate from the end of a bone because of a loss of bone supply

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16
Q

what is subtrochanteric fracture associated with

A

a higher risk of non union

associated with long term bisphosophonate use

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17
Q

how do you treat subtrochanteric fracture

A

IM nail

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18
Q

what is the typical x ray finding in an intracapsular fracture

A

break in shentons line

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19
Q

is the ESR changed in PMR

A

yes ESR is raised in PMR

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20
Q

what passes through the carpal tunnel

A

Flexor Digitorum Profundus (FDP) x4
Flexor Digitorum Superficialis (FDS) x4
Flexor Pollicis Longus x1
Median Nerve

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21
Q

what muscles are affected in De Quervain syndrome

A

Extensor Pollicis Brevis and ABductor Pollicis Longus

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22
Q

why are the lumbricals crutial to movmement

A

they connect the flexor and extensor tendons

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23
Q

where do the lumbricals pass

A

the lumbricals pass dorsally and laterally around each finger and insert onto the extensor hood

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24
Q

where does the radial artery pass through in the hand

A

passess anteriorly through the space between the 2 heads of the ADDucotr pollicis muscle forming the deep palmar arch

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25
Q

what muscles attach to the head of the fibula

A

soleus, long head biceps femoris, fibularis longus and extensor digitorum longus (and lateral collateral ligament)

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26
Q

what is a lisfranc fracture

A

dislocation of the articulation of the tarsus with the metatarsal bone

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27
Q

where is the lisfranc joint

A

articulation of tarsus with metatarsal bases whereby the 1st metatarsals articulate with the 3 cuneiforms and the 4th and 5th metatarsals with the cuboid

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28
Q

what is a jones fracture

A

fracture of the base of the fifth metatarsal

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29
Q

what is an avulsion fracture

A

bone fracture which occurs when a fragement of bone breaks away from the rest of the bone, usally where a tendon or ligament attaches

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30
Q

what is the floor of the femoral triangle formed by

A

iliopsoas laterally and pectineus medially

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31
Q

what is contained in the canal

A

deep inguinal lymph nodes

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32
Q

what are the femoral artery and vien enveloped by

A

femoral sheath

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33
Q

what is the femoral sheath

A

short tube of transversalis fascia from the abdominal wall which surrounds the most proximal part of the femoral artery and vein

34
Q

what nerve roots are in the femoral nerve

A

L2,3,4,

35
Q

where is the femoral nerve formed

A

lumbar plexus

36
Q

where does the saphenous nerve branch from

A

the femoral nerve

37
Q

what type of nerve is the saphenous nerve

A

sensory

38
Q

where does the saphenous nerve travel trough

A

passing distally by passing between the Sartorius and gracillis

39
Q

where does the saphenous nerve innervate

A

the fascia and skin of the anteromedial aspects of the knee and leg and the medial aspect of the foot where it accompanies the great saphenous vein

40
Q

what is contained in the femoral canal

A

deep lymphatics and adipose tissue

41
Q

where do medial and lateral circumflex arteries arise from

A

profunda femoris artery

42
Q

where do the femoral vessesl pass in relation to the inguinal ligament

A

femoral vessels, femoral nerve and iliopsoas muscle leave the limb by passing deep/posterior to the inguinal ligament in the retroinguinal space

43
Q

name the muscles in the anterior thigh

A

Sartorius, quadriceps femoris and iliopsoas

44
Q

what type of reflex is assessed by knee jerk

A

deep tendon reflex

45
Q

what does a positive knee jerk show

A

confirms the function of the muscle, its nerve supply, the spinal cord connections (reflex arc) and descending controls from the brain

46
Q

what is the main function of the medial thigh muscles

A

to adduct the thigh at the hip

nb gracilis also crosses the knee and is hence a weak knee flexor

47
Q

where do the muscles of the medial thigh attach distally

A

posterior surface of the shaft of the femur along the linea aspera

48
Q

what is the region in between the buttocks called

A

intergluteal cleft

49
Q

what are the spinal roots of posterior cutaneous nerve of thigh

A

S1-3

50
Q

what are the spinal roots of the superior gluteal nerve

A

L5, S1, S2

51
Q

what is club foot

A

inverted and plantarflexed foot which is not passively correctable

52
Q

why is the short head of biceps not considered to be a true hamstring

A

it attaches proximally to linea aspera of femur (rather than ischial tuberosity)
doesn’t cross the hip joint and doesn’t contribute to movement of the hip
supplied by common fibular branch of sciatic nerve rather than tibial branch

53
Q

what are the muscles in the superficial layer of the posterior leg

A

2 heads of gastrocnemius, soleus, plantaris and popliteus

54
Q

what are the deep muscles of the posterior leg

A

flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longus, tibialis posterior

55
Q

what do the muscles in the posterior leg do

A

mainly plantarflex the ankle and toes, tibialis posterior assists tibialis anterior with INversion of the foot

56
Q

how do the muscles of the posterior leg enter to foot

A

pass posterior to the medial malleolus and deep to the flexor retinaculum

57
Q

what are the muscles in tom dick and harry

A

Tibialis posterior, Flexor Digitorum Longus, Posterior Tibial artery, Tibial Nerve, Flexor Hallucis Longus

58
Q

what is a colles fracture and when does it happen

A

fracture of lower end of radius, distal fragment is displaced backward, fall on wrist in extension

59
Q

what is a smith fracture

A

fracture of distal end of radius, falling onto a flexed wrist

60
Q

why are high c spine dislocations potentially fatal

A

if they are above C3 which supplies the diaphragm (c3,4,5 supplies the diaphragm)

61
Q

what is a burst fracture

A

a thoracolumbar fracture with involvement of the posterior elements

62
Q

what can more stable thoracolumbar injuries without substantial displacement or collapse be treated with

A

a brace to limit flexion and prevent kyphosis

63
Q

what is spinal shock

A

physiological response to injury with complete loss of sensation and motor function and loss of reflexes below the level of the injury
usually resolves in 24 hours with the return of relfexes

64
Q

what is neurogenic shock

A

occurs secondary to temporary shutdown of sympathetic outflow from the cord from t1-l2 usually due to injury in the cervical or upper thoracic cord leading to hypotension and bradycardia

65
Q

how is neurogenic shock treated

A

IV fluids

66
Q

what is a complete spinal cord injury

A

no sensory or voluntary motor function below the level of injury

67
Q

what is central cord syndrome

A

hyperextension injury in a cervical spine with OA often there is no dislocation or subluxation
paralysis of arms more than legs due to the corticospinal (motor) tracts of the upper limbs being more central than those of lower limbs

68
Q

anterior cord syndrome

A

loss of motor function (corticospinal tracts) as well as loss of coarse touch, pain and temperature sensation(lateral spinothalamic tract) while proprioception, vibration and light touch are preserved

69
Q

brown sequard syndrome

A

hemisection of the cord usually from penetrating injury, ipsilateral paralysis and loss of dorsal column sesation occurs

70
Q

what is excitation contraction coupling

A

process whereby the surface action potential results in activation of the contractile mechanism of the muscle fibre

71
Q

is there continuity between the cytoplasm between skeletal muscle and nerve cell

A

no there are neuromuscular junctions

72
Q

what is the z line in a muscle cell

A

separates one muscle cell from the next

73
Q

what is a functional unit

A

the smallest component capable of performing all the functions of that organ

74
Q

what is the functional unit of skeletal muscle

A

sarcomere

75
Q

what is the a band made up of

A

actin and myosin filaments that overlap

76
Q

what is h zone

A

myosin only (lighter area within the middle of a band where thin filaments don’t reach)

77
Q

what is ATP needed for in relaxation

A

to release cross bridges

to pump Ca2+ back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum

78
Q

what are the 5 muscles of the soft palate and what are they supplied by

A 
tensor veli palatine only one innervated by CN V3
levator veli palatine
palatoglossus 
palatopharygeus 
musculus uvulae all innervated by CNX
79
Q

what are the longitudinal muscles of the pharynx and their innervation

A

stylopharygeus innervated by CNIX
palatopharygeus
salpingopharygeus both innervated by CNX

80
Q

what is included in Waldeyer’s ring of lymphoid tissue

A

palatine tonsil-in the tonsillar fossa
lingual tonsil in the mucosa of the posterior 1/3rd of the tongue
pharyngeal tonsil ‘‘adenoid’’ in the mucosa of the roof of the nasopharynx
tubal tonils in the mucosa of the Eustachian tube opening
palate associated lymphoid tissue in the mucosa of the soft palate

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