Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Random > Opthamology > Flashcards

Opthamology Flashcards

1
Q

painless causes of loss of vision

A

central retinal vein or artery occlusion
retinal detachment
vitreous haemorrhage
ischaemic optic neuropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is ischaemic optic neuropathy caused by

A

arteritis eg temporal arteritis or atherosclerosis eg hypertensive, diabetic may be older patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is ischaemic optic neuropathy caused by

A

occlusion of the short posterior ciliary artery, causing damage to the optic nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

retinitis pigmentosa

A

night blindness and tunnel vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

horners syndrome features

A

ptosis
anhydrosis
miosis (small pupil)
enopthalmos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

how does the pupil differ in a third nerve palsy from horners syndrome

A

in horners syndrome the pupil is constricted miosis but in CNIII palsy there is pupil dilatation as CNIII cannot cause constriction so have dilated pupil and mydriasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what conditions can make glaucoma more likely to come on

A

WHEN THE PUPIL IS DILATED

this could be while watching television or in dim light when the light from the screen flares

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are the risk factors for macular degeneration

A

age, smoking, family history, Caucasians, high sunlight, female

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is the normal range of intraocular pressure

A

10-21mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Blepharitis is more common in those with which condition

A

rosacea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is more common anterior or posterior blepharitis

A

posterior due to meiobionan gland dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

treatement of blepharitis

A

softening of lid margin using hot compresses 2 times a day

mechanical removal of the debris from the lid margins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what symptoms does blepharitis cause

A

dry eyes, red eyes, red eyelid margin, symptoms usually bilateral, grittiness and discomfort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

why are the eyes dry in blepharitis

A

meibomian glands secrete oil on to the surface of the eye to prevent rapid evaporation of the tear film, any problem affecting meibomian glands can hence dry the eyes leading to irritation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

why does hutchinsons sign a strong risk factor for ocular involvement

A

it indicates nasociliary involvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what do follicles suggest

A

viral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what do papillae suggest

A

bacterial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is episcleritis associated with

A

gout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

infective ulcers tned to be found where in the cornea

A

central

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

autoimmune ulcers tend to be found where in the cornea

A

in the periphery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are the most common organisms in acute bacterial conjuncitivits

A

staph aureus, strep pneumonia, h, influenzae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the dura mater

A

tough outer protective layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the sensory supply to the dura mater

A

CN V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is enclosed by the dura mater

A

the dural venous sinuses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is in the arachnoid mater

A

arachnoid granulations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is the subarachnoid space

A

circulating CSF and blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

pia mater function

A

adheres to brain (and vessels and nerves entering or leaving)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

where is the subarachnoid space

A

between the arachnoid and pia mater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is the nerve supply to the dura mater

A

CN V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

where does the subarachnoid space close/end

A

S2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

where is the third ventricle located

A

in the midline within the diencephalon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

where is the 4th ventricle located

A

between the cerebellum and the pons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what happens when the trochlear nerve is damaged

A

inferior oblique is unopposed eye cannot move inferomedially

diplopia when looking down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

how is abducent nerve susceptible to damage

A

from stretching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

where does the ophthalmic artery travel through

A

the optic canal

36
Q

what type of fibres are contained in the long ciliary nerve

A

sympathetic and somatic sensory

37
Q

what does the long ciliary nerve form part of

A

the afferent limb of the blink (corneal) reflex

38
Q

what do the ciliary nerves supply

A

autonomic axons to control the diameter of the iris and pupil and the refractive shape of the lens

39
Q

what do the long ciliary nerves form part of

A

the first part of the afferent limb of the blink(corneal) reflex)

40
Q

what is contained in the short ciliary nerve

A

sympathetic, parasympathetic and somatic sensory

41
Q

what kind of diplopia would damage to the suspensory ligament cause

A

vertical diplopia

42
Q

what does a fracture in the zygoma/maxilla potentially cause

A

damage to the infraorbital branch of V2 resulting in a potentially large area of altered sensation of the lower eyelid, skin over maxilla, ala of external nose and upper lip

43
Q

what is the infraorbital nerve a branch of

A

V2

44
Q

what is the angle of the mandible supplied by

A

C2,3 spinal nerves

45
Q

what is the sensory supply to the ear lobe

A

C2,3

46
Q

what is the sensory supply to the tragus

A

V3

47
Q

what supplies most of the tympanic membrane externally

A

CN V3

48
Q

what supplies the inferior part of the tympanic membrane

A

CNX

49
Q

what is the sensory supply to the Eustachian tube

A

CN IX

50
Q

what drains into the superior meatus

A

posterior ethmoidal cells

51
Q

what is the oculocardiac reflex and what nerves are involved

A

reflex bradycardia in response to tension on the extraocular muscles or pressure on the eye CNS connections between CNV1 or CNX

52
Q

what nerves are involved in coordinating the vestibulocular reflex

A

CNIII, IV, VI and VIII, 3,4,6,8

53
Q

what type of muscels is in the levator palpebrae superiooris

A

skeletal and smooth muscle

54
Q

how do sympathetic fibres reach the levator palpebrae superioris

A

superior cervical sympathetic ganglion, internal carotid nerve, internal carotid plexus, axons carried on the ophthalmic artery and on its branches to the orbital structures

55
Q

what causes the pupil to dialte

A

sympathetics, in dim light and fight or flight or non physiologically with mydriatic pupil

56
Q

where is the insertion of the dilator pupillae fibres

A

around the internal circumference of the iris

57
Q

where is the origin of the radially arranged dilator pupillae fibres

A

all around the external circumference of the iris

58
Q

what is a pinpoint pupil

A

a fixed pupil with no response to light

59
Q

what do parasympathetics do to the pupil

A

cause pupil constriction

60
Q

what is a non physiologically constricted pupil

A

miotic pupil

61
Q

what is a miotic pupil a component of

A

horners syndrome

62
Q

what is a fixed dilated (blown( pupil a sign of

A

a serios pathological sign eg of CNIII pathology

as it is inhibiting the pupillary constricting action of parasympathetic axons in the ciliary nerve

63
Q

where are the sphincter pupillae fibres

A

an encircling arrangement of the sphincter pupillae fibres all around the internal circumference of the iris

64
Q

where is the pretectal nucleus

A

in the midbrain

65
Q

where are the cell bodies of the parasympathetic axons located

A

in the edinger westphal nucleus

66
Q

explain the pupillary light reflex

A

the first neurones pass via the retinal ganglion cells to cross in the optic chiasm to the pretectal nucleus in the midbrain
then synapse with edinger westphal nucleus where the cell bodies of the parasympathetic axons are located and then pass from EW nucleus VIA CNIII then its INFERIOR DIVISION to synapse in the ciliary ganglion, then course in the short ciliary nerve to the sphincter pupillae muscles

67
Q

explain the shape of the lens in far away vision

A

the ciliary muscle is RELAXED in far vision
ligament TIGHTENS
lens FLATTENS to focus on distant objects

68
Q

why does the lens become spherical

A

due to contraction of the ciliary muscles (CN III)

69
Q

what can lysozyme do

A

an enzyme that can hydrolyse bacterial cell walls

70
Q

what is the afferent limb for the formation of reflex tears

A

CN VI

71
Q

what type of cartilage is in the ear

A

elastic cartilage

72
Q

what 3 parts does the accommodation reflex test

A

bilateral pupillary constriction in response to CNS III
bilateral convergence-medial rotation of both eyes
bilateral relaxation of the lens-lens become spherical due to contraction of the ciliary muscles

73
Q

what way do you pull the ear canal in adults

A

posteriosuperiorly

74
Q

what is the angle in glaucoma

A

iridiocorneal angle

75
Q

what do the tarsal glands secrete

A

lipid

76
Q

which bone are the optic canal and the superior orbital fissure located in

A

the sphenoid bone

77
Q

where is CN II formed

A

at the optic disc

78
Q

what is at greatest density at the macula

A

cones

79
Q

what is the fovea

A

centre of the macula, depression 1.5mm diameter, area of most acute vision

80
Q

what causes the damage in giant cell arteritis to vision

A

anterior ischaemic optic neuropathy

81
Q

what are the symptoms of dacrocystitis

A

inflammation of the lacrimal sac

swelling and erythema at the inner canthus of the eye

82
Q

what is the canthus of the eye

A

either corner of the eye where the upper and lower eyelids meet

83
Q

what is dacrocysitits

A

inflammation of the lacrimal sac

84
Q

how is dacrocystitis treated

A

systemic antibiotics, IV antibiotics are indicated if there is associated periorbital cellultis

85
Q

at what age is a childs visual acuity the same as that of an adult

A

2 years

86
Q

what is a feature of keratitis

A

corneal ulcers

Random (17 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions