quiz 3.1 blood to heme Flashcards

1
Q

occurs when the endothelium lining blood vessels is damaged or removed

A

thrombosis

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2
Q

first and intiial step in hemostasis of injured vessels

A

vasocon

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3
Q

3 phases shared by hemostasis and thrombosis

A

platelet aggre
fibrin mesh formation
dissolution

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4
Q

3 types of thrombi

A

white
red
fibrin deposits

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5
Q

phase wherein platelets bind to collagen at the site of vessel wall injury, form TXA2 and release ADP

A

platelet aggre

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6
Q

this binds to the paltelet aggregate making it more stable

A

fibrin mesh

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7
Q

a phase involving plasmin

A

dissolution

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8
Q

thrombus that is relatively poor in RBC, found in rapid blood flow vessels

A

white fibrin

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9
Q

thrombus found in vessels where blood is retarded or there is stasis with or without injury

A

red fibrin

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10
Q

fibrin found in capillaries or small vessels

A

fibrin deposits

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11
Q

types of coagulationf actors

A
zymogen
cofactor
fibrinogen
transglutaminase
regulatory and other proteins
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12
Q

in vitro, the intrinsic pathway can be activated by

A

negatively charged surfaces

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13
Q

common name factor 1

A

fibrinogen

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14
Q

common name factor 2

A

prothrombin

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15
Q

common name factor 3

A

tx factor

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16
Q

common name factor 4

A

calcium

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17
Q

common name factor 5

A

proaccelerin

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18
Q

common name factor 7

A

proconvertin

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19
Q

factors under ex. pathway

A

7

3

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20
Q

factors under itnrinsic

A

12
11
9
8

PK
HMWK

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21
Q

first common factor for ex and int pathways

A

10

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22
Q

the ext. pathway is initiated at the site of ___ with the exposure of _____

A

tx injury

tx factor

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23
Q

TF acts as a cofactor for ____, enhacning its enzymatic activity

A

7

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24
Q

activation of factor 10 requires what complex

A

extrinsic tenase complex (Ca-TF-fac 7a)

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25
Q

TF nad factor 7a activates what shit in the intrinsic pathway

A

factor 9

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26
Q

major physiologic inhibitor of coag

A

TF pahway inhibitor (TFPI)

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27
Q

how does TFPI inhibit coag

A

TFPI + factor 10a inhibits TF-7a complex

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28
Q

links the intrinsic and extrinsic pathway

A

factor 10

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29
Q

main action of thrombin

A

activates fibrinogen

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30
Q

a highly specific transglutaminase that is activated by fibrinogen

A

factor 8a

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31
Q

important natural inhibitor of coagulation, genetic deficiency of this protein can result in thrombosis

A

antithrombin

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32
Q

the endogenous activity of antithrombin is greatly potentiated by the ____________

A

presence of sulfated GAGs (heparans)

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33
Q

the action of heparin can be strongly antagonized by cationic polypeps like

A

protamine

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34
Q

the regulatory mechanism of thrombin is attirubted to its acility to combine with

A

thrombomodulin

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35
Q

a genetic deficiecny of either ___ or ____ can cause venous thrombosis

A

protein C or S

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36
Q

px with ______ have a increased risk for venous thrombosis

A

factor 5 Leiden

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37
Q

why higher risk sa venous thrombosis ang may Leiden

A

Leiden cannot be inactivated by APC

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38
Q

APC degrades

A

factors 5a and 8a

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39
Q

vit-K dependent facotrs

A
2
7
9
10
protein C and S
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40
Q

why vit-K dependent ang 2 7 9 10

A

they need vit-K dependent y-carboxylation of glut resideues to function

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41
Q

what inhibits the y-carboxylation in vit-K dependents

A

warfarin

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42
Q

warfarin inhibits what specifically

A

y-carboxylation

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43
Q

during synth of factors, vit-K is important in modification and formation of

A

gamma-carboxyglutamate

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44
Q

coumarin or heparin: which is instantaneous

A

heparin

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45
Q

coumarin or heparinL which takes days to take effect

A

coumarin

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46
Q

a predicatable administration of inihibitors of thrombin

A

oral

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47
Q

most common hemophilia

A

hem A

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48
Q

hemophilia A is deficiency of

A

factor 8

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49
Q

hempphilia B is deficiecny of

A

factor 9

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50
Q

most common genetic bleeding disorder

A

von Willebrand factor

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51
Q

a large multimeric glycoprotein that stabilizes factor 8

A

von Willebrand factor

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52
Q

functions of von Willebrad

A

stabilize factor 8

promotes platelet adhesion

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53
Q

fibrin clots are dissolved by

A

plasmin

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54
Q

activates plasminogen

A

tx plasminogen activator

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55
Q

the fast-acting inhibitor of plasmin

A

a2-antiplasmin

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56
Q

activators of plasminogen all cleave what

A

arg-val bond

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57
Q

the carboxypeptidase that can inhibit fibrinolysis by removing the terminal lysines from fibrin

A

thrombin activatable fibrinolysis inhibitor (TAFIa)

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58
Q

the second activator of plasminogen

A

urokinase

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59
Q

main action of urokinase

A

degrades ECMatrix

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60
Q

t-PA is marketed as _____ is produced by recombinant DNA methods

A

alteplase

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61
Q

t-PA or streptokinase: which is selective

A

t-PA

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62
Q

three steps in hemstatic plugs by paltelet

A

adhesion
secretion
aggregation

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63
Q

platelets adhere to ____ via _____

A

collagen
GPIa-IIa
GPIb-IX-V

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64
Q

the binding of GPib-IX-V is mediated via

A

von Willebrand

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65
Q

granules found in and released by platelet

A

dense and alpha

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66
Q

most potent activator of platelet and initiator of activation

A

thrombin

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67
Q

the further events leading to platelet activation upon binding of PAR-1 and 4 are examples of

A

outside0in transmembrane signaling

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68
Q

signaling wherein chemical messenger outside the cell generates effector molecules inside the cell

A

outside-in transmembrane signaling

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69
Q

phospholipase Ca hydrolyzed PIP2 to form what effectors molecules

A

IP3

DAG

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70
Q

cytosolic phospholipase A2 liberates arachidonic acid to form

A

TXA2

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71
Q

TXA2 promotes or inhibits platelet aggreg?

A

promotes

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72
Q

potent inhibitor of platelet aggregation produced by endothelial cells

A

prostacyclin

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73
Q

action of prostacyclin is via

A

cAMP formation > decreasing calcium

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74
Q

roles of endothelial cells in inhibiting platelet activities

A

ADPase
PGI2
heparan sulfate
plasminogen activators

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75
Q

an antiplatelet drug

A

aspirin

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76
Q

how does aspirin inhibit paltelets

A

inhibits production of thromboxane A2/COX1

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77
Q

full name of aspirin

A

acetylsalicylate

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78
Q

a potent aggregator of platelets and vasocon

A

TXA2

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79
Q

antiplatelet drugs

A

clopidogREL
prasugREL
ticagRELor

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80
Q

overall test for paltelet and vessel wall function

A

skin bleeding time

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81
Q

in vitro test of platelet-related hemostasis

A

closure time

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82
Q

a measure of the extrinsic pathway

A

PT

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83
Q

a measure of the intrinsic pathway

A

aPTT

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84
Q

used to monitor heparin therapy

A

PTT

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85
Q

used to monitor warfarin therapy

A

PT

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86
Q

“circulating tissue”

A

blood

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87
Q

fluid in an uncoagulated bllod

A

plasma

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88
Q

fluid in a coagulated blood

A

serum

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89
Q

blood comprises ___ of the total body weight

A

7-8%

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90
Q

normal blood pH

A

7.35-7.45

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91
Q

normal volume of blood

A

5-6L in M

4-5l IN Fe

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92
Q

normal sp.gr. of blood

A

1.035-1.075

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93
Q

the ability of stem cells to generate specialized cell types

A

potency

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94
Q

a stem cell that is capable of producing all the cells in an organism

A

totipotent

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95
Q

a stem cell that produce only cells of a closely related family

A

pluripotent

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96
Q

a stem cell that produce only one type of cell

A

unipotent

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97
Q

embryonic or adult stem cells: which is limited in capability to differentitate

A

adult

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98
Q

common lymphoid progenitor gives rise to

A

B cells
T cells
NK cells
plasmacytoid dendritic cells

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99
Q

common myeloid progenitor gives rise to

A

monocytoid dendritic cells
granulocyte-monocyte progenitor
megakaryocte-erythroid progenitor

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100
Q

cytokine that plays an important role in the proliferation of hematopoietic stem cells and some of their progeny

A

stem cell factors

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101
Q

glycoprotein imporatnt in regulating the rpoduction of platelets

A

thrombopoietin

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102
Q

cytokines produced by leukocytes that regulates various aspects of hematopoiesis

A

interleukins

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103
Q

hemoglobin comprises ___ of RBCs

A

33%

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104
Q

normal RBC count

A
  1. 6M in Fe

5. 2M in M

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105
Q

RBCs that still contain RNA of the ribosomes and elements of the ER is called

A

retics

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106
Q

erythropoiesis uses what

A

erythropoietin
IL-3
thrombopoietin

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107
Q

EPO is synthesized mainly by the ___ and released in response to ___

A

kidney

hypoxia

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108
Q

RBCs are dependent on ____ to generate ATP

A

glycolysis (anaerobic)

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109
Q

_______ is a variant of hgb that cannot transport oxygen

A

methemoglobin

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110
Q

_____ reduces the ferric of methemoglobin to ferrous restoring its function

A

cytochrome b5 reductase

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111
Q

RBCs depend on what 2 ways for production of energy

A

Embden-Meyerhoff (anaerobic)

HMP shunt

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112
Q

3 important products of anaerobic glycosis

A

NADH
ATP
2,3-DPB

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113
Q

the most important product of PPP/HMP

A

NADPH

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114
Q

principal determinant of shunt flow in the PPP is

A

NADP-NADPH ratio

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115
Q

H2O2 can be detoxified by the most active enzyme in the RBCs

A

catalase

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116
Q

the protein involved in the facilitated diffusion of glucose

A

GLUT1

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117
Q

GLUT1 exhibits specificity for __ and ____

A

glucose

related D-glucose

118
Q

dependent or indepdent of insulin: GLUT1?

A

insulin-indepedent

119
Q

retics has __ and __ for energy production

A

glycerol kinase

glycerol

120
Q

active in protein synthesis: RBC or retics?

A

retics

121
Q

once retics are released into the circulation, they lose their organelles within

A

24hrs

122
Q

what is injected in rabbits to hemolyze and induce prod of retics

A

phenylhydrazine

123
Q

the tail end of this spectrin binds to ___

A

actin

124
Q

actin binds to spectrin and ___

A

protein 4.1

125
Q

a globular protein that binds tightly to the tail end of spectrin near the actin-binding site

A

protein 4.1

126
Q

sugar moiety of bld grp A

A

N-acetylgalactosamine

127
Q

sugar moiiety of bld grp B

A

galactose

128
Q

the secretor genes code for

A

fucosyl transferase

129
Q

presence of glycoproteins of ABO substances are determined by

A

Se(secretor) gene

130
Q

NV WBC

A

4k-10k/uL

131
Q

how does WBCs move

A

thru ameboid motion and diapedesis

132
Q

neutropenia is most likely to occur when

A

chemotherapeutic regimens and after bone marrow transplantation

133
Q

the acute inflammatory response by neutrophils include

A

increase vascular permeability
entry of activated neutro
activation of platelet
spontaneous subsudence if successful

134
Q

used in adhesion of enutro to endothelial cells

A

integrins

135
Q

mutations affecting the NADPH oxidase system causes

A

chronic granulomatous dse

136
Q

the respiratory burst of phagocytic cells involves ____ and helps kill bacte

A

NADPH oxidase

137
Q

chemokines are stabilized by

A

disulfide bonds

138
Q

basophils secrete what

A

histamine

heparin

139
Q

phagocytes internalize invading microorganisms inside _____

A

phagosomes

140
Q

honeycomb channel that icnreases surface area in platelets

A

open canalicular system

141
Q

the mitochondria of paltelets enable them to generate ATP via

A

b-oxidation of fatty acids

142
Q

formation of enlarged hyperreactive paltelets, resulting in an higher risk for thrombosis

A

acute coronary syndrome

143
Q

autoimmune disorder marked by depressed platelet count caused by generation of autoantibodies

A

immune thrombocytopenic purpra

144
Q

antibodies that attack not only the endogenous but also dontaed paltelets

A

alloantibodies

145
Q

dse where Abs from mom’s circu cross the placenta and attack platelets in the fetus

A

neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia

146
Q

can be induced by tamoxifen, ibuprofen, vancomycin, and many sulfonamides

A

thrombocytopenia

147
Q

dse of infants characterized by progressive kidney failure, thrombocytopenia and hemolytic anemia

A

hemolytic-uremic sundrome

148
Q

genetically inherited deficiency in GP1b

A

Bernard-Soulier

149
Q

genetically inherited deficiecny in GPIIb/IIIa complex

A

Glanzmann thrombasthenia

150
Q

highest affinity to the anode in electrophoresis

A

albumin

151
Q

highhest afffinity to the cathode in electrophoresis

A

gamma

152
Q

highest concentration among the proteins in electrophoresis

A

albumin

153
Q

lowest conc among proteins in electrophoresis

A

alpha1

154
Q

a protein that is an exception of the rule that all proteins has either N or O linked oligosacch

A

albumin

155
Q

exhibits highest activity og any of the erythrocyte glycolytic enzymes

A

triose phosphate isomerase

156
Q

principal stimulator of synthesis of acute phase reactants by hepatocytes

A

cytokine

IL-1

157
Q

a transcription factor involveed in teh stimulation of synthesis of certain of the acute phase reactants

A

nuclear factor kappa-B

158
Q

majormprotein in the palsma (60%)

A

albumin

159
Q

use of solvents or electrolytes to remove diff. protein ractions in accordance to their solubility

A

salting-out method

160
Q

in teh salting out method, proteins are separated into

A

albumin
globulins
fibrinogens

161
Q

permits resolution of plasma proteins into five bands

A

electrophoresis

162
Q

proteins under the alpha1-globulins

A

a1-acid glycoproteins
a1-fetoglobulin
retinol-binding
a1-antitrypsin

163
Q

proteins under the alpha2-globulins

A

ceruloplasmin
haptoglobulins
a2-macroglobulins

164
Q

major glycoprotein in fetal plasma and amniotic fluid

A

a1-fetoglobulin

165
Q

globulin that transports retinol

A

retinol-binding

166
Q

retinol-inding protein forms a complex with

A

trasnthyretin

167
Q

inhibits leukocytes proteases to protect the lungs from damage due to inflamm

A

a1-antitrypsin

168
Q

lack in a1-antitrypsin leads to

A

emphysema

169
Q

carries copper, and is named after its color due to high copper conc

A

cerulopasmin

170
Q

protein that converts ferrous to ferric prior to incorporation of ferric into transferrin

A

ceruloplasmin

171
Q

dse where there is low ceruloplasmin in plasma and high copper in brain and liver

A

wilson’s dse

172
Q

protein that forms acomplex with hgb which cannot be excreted from the kidneys preventing loss of free hgb

A

haptoglobulin

173
Q

protein that binds to proteinases and the complex are rapidly cleared from the plasma

A

a2-macroglob

174
Q

protein for transport of zinc in plasma

A

a2-macroglob

175
Q

proteins under beta-globulins

A
transferrin
hemopexin
crp
b2-microglobulin
beta-LPP
176
Q

transports iron in the circulation to sites where it is required

A

transferrin

177
Q

a transferrin can hold how many ferrics

A

2 mol

178
Q

binds heme after RBC breakdown and prevents its excretion

A

hemopexin

179
Q

very small amount in plasma bcoz easily excreted due to low MW

A

b2-microglobulin

180
Q

fraction made of immunglobulin/antibodies

A

gamma globulin

181
Q

fibrinogen is increased during

A

mens
preggy
inflamm
infec

182
Q

in nephrotic syndrome, hepatic cirrhosis, glomerulonephritis, albumin is ___________

A

decreased

183
Q

in dehydration, albumin is

A

increasded

184
Q

in inflamm syndrome, a1-acid glycoprotein is

A

decreased

185
Q

a1-fetoglob is increased in

A

acute hepa
hepatoma
preggy

186
Q

hemopexin is increased in

A

injectiin of porphyrogenic drugs

187
Q

children or adult: higher a2-macro

A

children

188
Q

treatment or intervention for lack of heme

A

IV hemin

189
Q

iron is almost always n ___ form int eh body

A

protein-bound

190
Q

<1% of iron is in __ form

A

iron-sulfur clusters

191
Q

26% of iron is in ______________ form

A

transport and storage

192
Q

iron from ____________ is readily absorved

A

meat sources

193
Q

rank the physical states of iron accdg to bioavailability

A

heme > ferrous > ferric

194
Q

inhibitors of iron absorption

A
phytates
tannins
soil clay
laundry starch
iron overload
antacids
195
Q

competitors of iron absorption

A
lead
cobalt
strontium
manganese
zinc
196
Q

facilitators of iron abosrption

A
ascorbate
amino acids
citrate
iron deficiency
stomach acid
high alt
exercise
pregnancy
197
Q

why is iron absorption tightly regulated in the proximal duodenum

A

no physiologic pathway for excretion

198
Q

how does gastric acid help in iron absorption

A

lowers pH in duodenum

199
Q

enterocytes reduce ferric to ferrous via

A

ferrireductase

200
Q

transfer o iron from the apical surfaces of enterocytes into their interioirs is perfomred by

A

DMT1 divalent metal transporter

201
Q

passage of iron across the basolateral mrmbarne is carried out by

A

iron regularory protein 1

202
Q

the IREG1 may react with what copper-containign pritein

A

hephaestin

203
Q

mechanism wherein further absortpion of iron is blocked if a sufficient amount has been taken up

A

muscosal block

204
Q

iron forming a complex with apotransferrin is called

A

transferrin

205
Q

transferrin is cmpsoed of

A

iron with apotransfferrin

206
Q

how many iron transported per tranferrin

A

2 mol of ferric

207
Q

__ and ___ maintain the conc. of free iron in the body fluids at avlues below 10^-10 mol L^-1

A

trasferrin and lactoferrin

208
Q

how is iron itnernalized by endocytosis

A

binding to transferrin receptors

209
Q

transferrin and lactoferrin are taken up into the cells by ___

A

receptor-mediated endocytosis

210
Q

excess iron is stored as ______ and in _____

A

ferritin

liver

211
Q

specific untranslated sequences of the mRNAs for both TfR and dferritin

A

iron response elements (IRE)

212
Q

partly degraded form of ferritin but still containing irokn

A

hemosiderin

213
Q

dse characterized by microcytic hypochromic RBCs, reduced iron uptake and/or excess excretionq

A

IDA

214
Q

manifesstation of IDA that is the habitual ignestion of unusual substances like earth, clay, ice, etc

A

pica

215
Q

dse that is excess irona bsorption, saturation of iron-binding proteisn, deposition of hemosiderin in tx

A

hereditary hemochromatosis

216
Q

deposition of excess iron in the organs and skin produces ______________

A

bronze pigmentation (bronze dse)

217
Q

mutation in hereditary hemochromatosis

A

cys282 to tyr

his68 to asp

218
Q

primary cause of heredotary hemochromatosis is the inheritance of

A

autosomal recessive allele

219
Q

differenc of secodnary from primary hemochromatosis

A

secodnary is not caused by mutation and is not inherited

220
Q

cyclic compounds formed by linkage of four pyrrole rings through methenyl bridges

A

porphyrins

221
Q

an example of porphyrin that contains amgnesium

A

chlorophyll

222
Q

an example of porphyrin that contains iron

A

heme

223
Q

A P A P A P A P

A

uroporphyrin 1

224
Q

A P A P A P P A

A

uroporphyrin 3

225
Q

M P M P M P M P

A

coproporphyyrin 1

226
Q

M P M P M P P M

A

coproporphyrin 3

227
Q

M V M V M P P M

A

heme

228
Q

substituents in uropohphyrin

A

acetate

proprpionate

229
Q

heme and protoporphyrin IX are what type of porphyrin

A

type 3

230
Q

the four pyrrole rings in heme is connected by

A

methenyl bridges

231
Q

what steps in heme synthe occurs in the mitochondria

A

1 6 7 8

232
Q

what steps in heme synth occurs in the cytosol

A

2 3 4 5

233
Q

1st step in heme synth

A

formation of ALA via ALA synthase

234
Q

ALA is formed from

A

succnyl CoA and glycine

235
Q

the coenzyme important to activate glycine for ALA synthesis

A

PP

236
Q

ALA synthase is inhibited by

A

heme

237
Q

step 2 in heme synth

A

formation of porphobilinogen

238
Q

the first itnermediate in heme synth that has pyrrole ring

A

porphobilinogen (PBG)

239
Q

step 3 inn heme synth

A

fomration of HMB hydroxymethylbilane

240
Q

HMB is formed from

A

condensation of 4 PBGs

241
Q

enzyme invovled in step 3

A

uroporphyrinogen 1 synthase / PBG deaminase / HMB synthase

242
Q

step 4 in heme synth

A

HMB cyclizes to form uroporphyrinogen 1 or 3

243
Q

enzyme in step 4

A

uroporphyrinogen 3 synthase

244
Q

the pyrrole rings in uroporphyrinogens are linked by

A

methylene bridges

245
Q

step 5 in hem synth

A

uro 3 to copro 3

246
Q

decarboxylation of uro 3 converts ____ to ____

A

acetate to methyl

247
Q

step 6 -7 of heme synth

A

copro 3 enters mitochon to become protoporphyrinogen 3 then to protoporphyrin 3

248
Q

enzyme in step 6-7

A

coproporphyrinogen oxidase

249
Q

enzyme in step 8

A

ferrochelatase

250
Q

step 8 of heme synth

A

incorporation of iron into protoppor

251
Q

heme biosynth occurs in most mammalian cells except

A

mature RBC

252
Q

the hepatic and erythroid form of ALA synthase are respectively called

A

ALAS1

ALAS2

253
Q

the rate-limiting rxn in heme synth sic atalyzed by

A

ALAS1

254
Q

does glucose inhib or promote heme synth

A

inhibit

255
Q

dse from abnormal metab of heme synth pathway

A

porphyria

256
Q

3 most common porphyria

A

IAP
PCT
PP

257
Q

enzyme lesion in the early stage of the pathway leads to accum of what

A

ALA and PBG

258
Q

symptoms of accum of ALA and PBG

A

abdom pain

neuropsychiatric symptoms

259
Q

enzyme lesion in the alter part of the heme pathway leads to accum of

A

porphyrinogebs

260
Q

symptoms of accum of porphyrinogens

A

photosensitivity (400 nm)

261
Q

PCT is diagnosed thru

A

urine

262
Q

acquired disorder assoc. with estrogen and alcohol use

A

PCT

263
Q

onlymanifestation in PCT

A

photosens

264
Q

possible complication n PCT

A

hypertricosis

hirsutism

265
Q

intiai and common amnifest of IAP

A

abdom pain

266
Q

CNS abnormatlities from IAP may icnulde

A

sezure
coma
delirium

267
Q

precipitating factors for IAP

A

sulfonamides
barbi
estrogen

268
Q

mild photsens characterized by painful burning or stinging sensations, pruritus, eythema, edema

A

PP

269
Q

possible tx for porphyrias

A

glucose loading
hematin
b-carotene

270
Q

dse of no ferrochelatase

A

PP

271
Q

dse of no uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase

A

PCT

272
Q

enzyme in step 5

A

uroporphyrinogen decarboxy

273
Q

dse of no uroporphyrinogen synthase

A

AIP

274
Q

increased in ALA dehydratase deificnecy

A

urianry ALA

copro

275
Q

tetrapyrrole ring of heme durign degradation is cleaved bet. ring 1 and 2 by

A

heme oxygenase

276
Q

heme oxygenase cleaves between where

A

ring 1 and 2

277
Q

the action og heem oxygenase produces

A

green biliverdin

278
Q

biliverdin is reduced by ____ to form ______

A

biliverdin reductase

bilirubin

279
Q

bilirubin is bound to ____ to be transported to liver

A

albumon

280
Q

heaptocyte take the bilirubin and conjuagte it with

A

UDP-glucoronic acid

281
Q

conjugation occurs thru _____________ forming ester type bonds between OH at C1 of glucorni acid carboxyl grps of bilirubin

A

UDP-glucoronosyltrasnferase

282
Q

rate determining step in hepatic bilirubin metab

A

glucoronide synthesis

283
Q

drug taht can induce both conjugate fomration and transport process

A

phenobarbital

284
Q

results from accelerated hemolysis around the time of birth

A

neonatal physiologic jaundice

285
Q

due to mutations int he gene encoding bilirubin-UGT

A

criggler-najar syndrome

286
Q

due to mutations int he gene encoding bilirubin-UGT but is commonly benign

A

gilbert syndrome

287
Q

due to hepatic parenchymal cell damage, impairing conjugation

A

toxic hyperbilirubinemia

288
Q

this term includes all cases of extraheaotic obstrutive jaundice

A

cholestatic jaundice

289
Q

mutations in the gene encoding MRP-2, the protein involved in the secretion of conjugated bili into bile

A

dubin-johnson

290
Q

thought to be an abnormality in hepatic storaoge of bili

A

rotor