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Module 8 > questions answered wrong :( > Flashcards

questions answered wrong :( Flashcards

1
Q

what joint articulates between the manubrium and sternal body?

A

manubriosternal joint

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2
Q

where is your sternal angle found?

A

2nd costal cartilages

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3
Q

what joint moves with rotational movements of the scapula?

A

sc

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4
Q

what two ligaments in the shoulder make up the coracoclavicular ligament?

A

coronoid and trapezoid ligaments

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5
Q

what boney landmark articulates with the radius on the humerus?

A

capitulum

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6
Q

what compartment of the hand houses the dorsal interossei muscles ?

A

central

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7
Q

where does the anterior intercostal artery branch off from?

A

internal thoracic artery

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8
Q

what muscle of the thenar group has a superficial and a deep head?

A

flexor pollicis brevis

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9
Q

where is the coracoid process located?

A

lat. 1/3 of clavicle

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10
Q

what back muscle is the deepest of the transverospinalis group?

A

rotators

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11
Q

what muscle runs from the laming of a vertebra to the spinous process of a vertebra 1-3 levels?

A

multifidus

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12
Q

where does the interchondral joint articulate?

A

6th - 9th ribs

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13
Q

what does the spring ligament do?

A

supports head of talus
attaches to the navicular and taler shelf
shifts the weight off the fore foot

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14
Q

what is the landmark for the short plantar ligament?

A

inferior surface of calcaneous
inferior surface of cuboid

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15
Q

what is the key stone of the medal longitudinal arch?

A

talar head

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16
Q

what muscles share a synovial sheath?

A

extensor digitorum
fibularis tertius

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17
Q

what ligament is intra capsular at the knee?

A

anterior cruciate ligament

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18
Q

what is a landmark for the posterior cruciate ligament

A

posterior intercondylar area of the tibia

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19
Q

what joint forms the mortise joint?

A

talocruel

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20
Q

how would you describe chemical synapses and how they receive signals?

A

a chemical synapses receives an electric signal, converts into a chemical one then back an electrical

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21
Q

what neurotransmitter functions at the neuromuscular junction?

A

acetylcholine

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22
Q

what landmark divides the temporal lobe from the frontal and parietal?

A

lateral fissure

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23
Q

true or false
the cerebellum is important for conscious proprioception?

A

false

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24
Q

what does caffeine do for the RAS?

A

blocks A1 receptors

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25
Q

what happens for acetylcholine to be removed from the synaptic cleft?

A

acteylcholinesterases breaks down acetylcholine and the 2 portions reabsorb

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26
Q

what is responsible for triggering exocytosis of synaptic vesicles in the pre synaptic neurons?

A

Ca++

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27
Q

why is resting membrane potential in the nerve negative?

A

high number of anions phosphates and proteins

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28
Q

what is responsible for relaying motor output from the cerebral cortex to the pons and sensory input from the spinal cord to the thalamus?

A

midbrain

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29
Q

what area of the brain localizes pain and temperature?

A

thalamus

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30
Q

what is the correct boundary for the middle ear?

A

tympanic membrane to oval window

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31
Q

what receptor responses to rotational movements?

A

cristae

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32
Q

what area of the eye has the highest concentration of cones?

A

fovea centralis

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33
Q

what pathway has 1, 2, 3 order neurons that replay sensory somatic receptors to the brain?

A

somatic sensory

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34
Q

what nerve gives rise to the sural nerve?

A

common fibular

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35
Q

what is the deramtone for the gluteals?

A

S2

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36
Q

true or false
muscarine activates nictontinc cholinergic

A

false

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37
Q

what is the order of light pathways?

A

cornea
pupil
lens
retina

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38
Q

what nerve innervates buccinator?

A

CN 7

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39
Q

what makes us unaware of autonomic functions?

A

direct innervation to the brain and spinal cord

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40
Q

where does the brachial plexus run?

A

between 1st rib and clavicle

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41
Q

what disease cannot be asymptomatic and nor can be found with regular self examination?

A

fibrocystic disease

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42
Q

what is the primary symptom of ovarian cancer?

A

gastrointestinal discomfort and bloating

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43
Q

what struture delivers deoxygenated blood to the placenta?

A

umbilical arteries

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44
Q

what does bone develop from in fetal growth?

A

somatic mesoderm

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45
Q

what structures does the uterus fall between?

A

urinary bladder and rectum

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46
Q

what female cell contains diploid (2n) chromosomes?

A

primary oocyte

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47
Q

what region of the fallopian tube is fertilization occurring in?

A

ampulla

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48
Q

what substance is reasonable for stimulating uterine contractions?

A

prostaglandins
oxytocin

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49
Q

what male cell contains haploid (n) chromosomes?

A

spermatozoon
spermatogonia

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50
Q

describe hypovolemic shock?

A

shock that results from large scale loss of blood volume

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51
Q

what does glucocorticoids do for the body?

A

allows body to deal with stress by increasing glucose, fatty acids, and amino acid levels and enchanting blood pressure

inhibits white blood cell for inflammatory reponse

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52
Q

glucocorticoids lead to what hormone?

A

cortisol

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53
Q

what hormone in found in both men and women but strongly in men more?

A

androgens

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54
Q

how does calcium contribute to homeostasis?

A

increase PTH which will lead to an increase calcium concentration the blood

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55
Q

what is the role of angiotensin II?

A

stimulates contraction of smooth muscles

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56
Q

what does parathyroid hormone get controlled by?

A

reabsorption of calicum in the kidneys

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57
Q

what is the role of tyrosine ?

A

a portion of the thryglobin molecules that react with iodine molecules

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58
Q

how does oxytocin become released?

A

positive feed back systems

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59
Q

what does prolactin do?

A

maintains milk production and initiates

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60
Q

what female hormone is found in men as well?

A

estrogen

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61
Q

what are the two basic elements of connective tissue?

A

extracellular matrix and cells

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62
Q

what does areolar connective tissue contain?

A

collagen
elastic
reticular fibers

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63
Q

what is the purpose of translation?

A

convert RNA into DNA

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64
Q

where is osteoclast cells located?

A

deep folds in its membrane and increased surface area

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65
Q

is it true that all long bones are formed directly in the mesenchyme though intramembrane ossification?

A

false

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66
Q

does bone tissue replace cartilage?

A

no

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67
Q

what is the purpose of compact bony tissue?

A

contains osteons or haveris systems

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68
Q

what is the movement of a biaxial joint?

A

flexion
extension
abduct
adduct
circumduction

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69
Q

what is a pivot joint?

A

monoaxial

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70
Q

what causes fatigue where you feel tiredness?

A

central

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71
Q

what sustains smooth muscle?

A

slow removal of calcium

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72
Q

what is common between cardiac and skeletal muscle?

A

arranges in zones, dark and light bands and z disc

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73
Q

what is the somatic motor neurone and all skeletal muscles fibres stimulators?

A

motor units

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74
Q

what molecule is only found in muscles and supplies oxygen for ATP?

A

myoglobin

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75
Q

are actin-myosin filaments apart of the neuromuscular junction?

A

no

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76
Q

where does ATP bind during contraction?

A

myosin head

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77
Q

what forms a tendon?

A

extensions of deep basic that surround muscle

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78
Q

does sarcolemma surround fascia?

A

no

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79
Q

what does bone depend on for flexibility?

A

collagen fibers

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80
Q

what are the functions of the skeletal muscles?

A

protect
support
blood cell production

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81
Q

what is outer fibrous membrane?

A

consist of dense regular connective tissue that attaches to the periosteum

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82
Q

what is glycocalyx?

A

molecular signature that enables cells to recognize one another

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83
Q

what contains hydrogen carbon nitrogen and oxygen?

A

proteins

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84
Q

what cell types makes up 90% of the epidermis?

A

keratinocytes

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85
Q

what cell is responsible for immune responses?

A

lymphocytes

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86
Q

what capillary is most common in the brain, lungs, skeletal, and smooth muscles?

A

continuous

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87
Q

what is fibre cartilage?

A

made of chondrocytes that scatter among bundles of collagen fibres

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88
Q

what are some examples of loose connective tissue?

A

reticular
areolar
adipose

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89
Q

what does dense irregular connective tissue do?

A

allows for pulling forces in many directions

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90
Q

what two compartments make connective tissue unique?

A

ground substances and fibres

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91
Q

what do cilia of epithelial tissue do?

A

movement of mucous

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92
Q

match ACU to its anti-codon of tRNA

A

UGA

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93
Q

what is gene expression?

A

genes DNA being used as a template for synthesizing proteins

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94
Q

what is phagocytosis an example of?

A

endocytosis

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95
Q

what forms a sugar outvoting around the cell membrane?

A

glycocalx

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96
Q

what is the process of proteins losing their shape?

A

denatured

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97
Q

what is used for protection, insulation and energy store in the body?

A

triglyceride

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98
Q

can you accurately asses conditions while full dressed?

A

no

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99
Q

what is common for post pregnant women to develop?

A

dogers hump

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100
Q

what is hautants test?

A

for dizziness/vertigo

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101
Q

what do you measure for leg length testing?

A

umbilicus to medial malleolus for shorten leg

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102
Q

what does a positive chovostek test indicate?

A

cranial nerve 7 lesion

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103
Q

where are bunions formed?

A

medial side of metatarsal bones

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104
Q

what is always an abnormal end feel?

A

capsular stretch

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105
Q

what spinal cord is activated by hitting the medial hamstring?

A

s1

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106
Q

what kind of force is applied for lateral collateral ligament testing?

A

medial force at the ankle

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107
Q

does the tracheal notch or fossa side anterior during flexion?

A

yes

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108
Q

what is necking?

A

decrease in tension will result in tissue rupture of the stress-strain curve

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109
Q

how does ice help with stretching?

A

minimizes soreness

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110
Q

what’s an important goal of AF rom?

A

prevent atrophy

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111
Q

what muscle stabilizes the spine with valsalva maneuvet?

A

transverse abdomis

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112
Q

what is the role of the supraspinous ligament?

A

limit forward spine flexion

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113
Q

what is common to have with hyperkyphosis?

A

TOS

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114
Q

how would you describe sitting on an exercise ball?

A

progression of homecare

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115
Q

does normal curves of the spine increase strength and resiliency?

A

yes

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116
Q

what does strength gains mean?

A

neural adaption

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117
Q

what direction does the proximal row of carpals go in flexion?

A

anterior

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118
Q

how would you stretch pec. major?

A

horizontal abduction
with 135 abduction

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119
Q

what is the deviation to the opposite side during maximal jaw opening a sign of?

A

anterior disc displacement

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120
Q

what JM would increase plantar flexion of talocrural joint?

A

anterior glide

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121
Q

where are renal lobes located?

A

medulla

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122
Q

what do the renal lobe consist of?

A

cortex
medulla
nerphons

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123
Q

what do podocytes do?

A

close filtration slits to reduce GFR

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124
Q

what do the major calyx receive urine from?

A

renal pelvis

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125
Q

what do the renal pyramids receive urine from?

A

minor calyx

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126
Q

what do parathyroid hormone affect?

A

distal convoluted tubule

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127
Q

what organ can release ANP?

A

heart

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128
Q

what does the parathyroid hormone do?

A

reabsorb Ca2+

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129
Q

what decreases GFR?

A

tubularglomerular feedback
atrial natriuretic peptide hormone

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130
Q

what mechanism occurs when stretch triggers contraction of smooth muscles?

A

myogenic mechanism

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131
Q

what does the PCT do?

A

reabsorbs nutrients like glucose amino acids and vitamins

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132
Q

what is responsible for eliminating wastes form the body and controlling blood pH?

A

tubular secretion

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133
Q

does ADH decrease reabsorption of water in blood vessels?

A

no

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134
Q

what forces water and most solutes in blood plasma across the selectively permeable walls of the glomerular capillaries

A

blood pressure

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135
Q

what hormone enhances the reabsorption of Na and Cl in the nephron?

A

angiotensin II
antidiuretic hormone

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136
Q

what hormone releases from the adrenal cortex?

A

aldosterone

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137
Q

what happens with metabolic alkalosis?

A

elevation of plasma bicarbonate and increase of blood pH

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138
Q

what is infectious disease of the lower urinary tract ?

A

cystitis

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139
Q

what are the symptoms of kidney stones?

A

flank pain
vomitting
nausea

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140
Q

where is the parotid salivary gland?

A

anterior to the ear between the master muscle and overlying skin

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141
Q

does the stomach undergo carbonic anhydrase enzyme catalyzes which form HCL in the lumen?

A

no

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142
Q

what exocrine gland secretes the digestive enzyme pepsinogen?

A

chief cells of stomach

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143
Q

what is the salivary gland responsible for?

A

found effective in the funds if it does not mix with gastric acid

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144
Q

what structure extends into to lumen of the small intestine and increases surface area?

A

microvilli

145
Q

what is digested from salivary and pancreatic amylase?

A

carbohydrates

146
Q

does the liver receive blood and bile flow in a parallel direction?

A

no

147
Q

what happens to ingestion of meals high in fat?

A

bile would be released by the gall bladder to emulsify the fat in the duodenum

148
Q

what serves as a duct which pancreatic malaise arrives at the small intestine?

A

main pancreatic duct
accessory pancreatic ducts
hepatopancreatic ampulla

149
Q

why is helicobacter pylorus a common cause of most chronic gastritis?

A

produces enzymes that interfere with gastric acidity

150
Q

what is commonly associated crohns disease?

A

presence of skip lesions with cobblestone appearance

151
Q

what membranous lining covers organ structures?

A

visceral and serosa layers

152
Q

when making a surgical cut of lingual frenulum, what body part is this occurring in?

A

tongue

153
Q

what portion of the peritoneum resembles a fatty apron?

A

greater omentum

154
Q

what is the role of the pyloric sphincter?

A

separates the stomach from the small intestine

155
Q

what is the role of emulsification?

A

used to amphipathic bile salt to breakdown large lipid globules into the small intestine

156
Q

is the spleen apart of the retroperitneal?

A

no

157
Q

what does the hepatic portal circulation do?

A

collect absorbed nutrients for metabolic processes or storage

158
Q

what carbohydrate is indigestible ?

A

cellulose

159
Q

how does glucose move into body cells?

A

facilitated diffusion

160
Q

what is the fate of pyruvic acid?

A

lactic acid and acetyl CoA

161
Q

what stimulates gluconeogensis?

A

insulin

162
Q

what reaction happens if the body requires ATP and stored glycogen?

A

glycogenolysis

163
Q

what happens when the body in a post absorptive state?

A

energy must be met by fuels already on the body

164
Q

does a decrease ketone bodies occur in fasted state?

A

no

165
Q

what are some examples of insoluble fibre?

A

wheat
grains
vegatables

166
Q

what does omega 3 fat do?

A

prevent blood clots and reduces heart disease

167
Q

how much fruit and veggie serving should you have daily?

A

7-10

168
Q

what happens when sugar and grains are refined?

A

incidence of cancer and diabetes increase

169
Q

what is peristalsis?

A

waves of muscular movement that propel contents from one point to the other

170
Q

what controls salivation?

A

sympatheic and parasympatheic

171
Q

what does vitamin C do?

A

antioxidant
inactivates oxygen free radicals

172
Q

what makes to portal triad?

A

hepatic artery
bile duct
portal vein

173
Q

what type of cells is the least numerous in epidermal skin?

A

merkel cells

174
Q

do apocrine (eecroine) sweat glands regulate body temperature and waste removal?

A

yes

175
Q

describe ionic bonds

A

bonding of two ions with opposite charges

176
Q

what kind of transport is the sodium-potassium pump?

A

primary active transport

177
Q

what organic compound is carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, and phosphorous considered?

A

nucleic acids

178
Q

what is the definition of endosteum?

A

joint structure that lines the internal bone surface facing the medullary cavity

179
Q

what is a fluid-filled system of membranous sacs that encircle each myofibril?

A

sarcoplasmic reticulum

180
Q

what are actins?

A

main component of the thin filament in a sarcomere

181
Q

what process provides 30-40 seconds of muscle activity?

A

anerobic cellular respiration

182
Q

what is synthesized in the liver, kidney, and pancreas then transported to muscle fibers?

A

creatine

183
Q

how are slow oxidative muscle fibres described?

A

least powerful fibers

184
Q

what does the tendon sheath do?

A

form a closed sac around tendons to prevent friction of tendons

185
Q

what structure is the distal and proximal portion of a bone?

A

epiphyses

186
Q

what is a sheath of dense irregular connective tissue surrounding the shaft and is responsible for lateral growth, repairing fractures and nourishing bone tissue?

A

periosteum

187
Q

what stage of bone healing sees compact bone replacing spongy bone?

A

remodeling

188
Q

what does transcription do?

A

produce a specific molecule of RNA

189
Q

what is considered areolar connective tissue?

A

collagen and elastic fibers

190
Q

does the kidney return ammonia, urea and bilirubin to the bloodstream?

A

no

191
Q

what is the outer most covering of the kidney?

A

capsule

192
Q

what area of the kidney is where the majority of the kidney’s glomeruli?

A

cortex

193
Q

what cells form pedicles that encircle the glomerular capillaries?

A

podocytes

194
Q

what does ADH do?

A

decrease urine volume
urine becomes more concentrated
acts on the distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts to increase water reabsorption

195
Q

does very low caloric intake decrease metabolic rate?

A

yeah

196
Q

what disease is a thiamin deficiency?

A

beri beri

197
Q

how does macrocytic anemia occur?

A

folic acid deficiency

198
Q

how does anemia occur?

A

iron deficiency

199
Q

what structure surrounds the 1st loop of the duodenum?

A

head of the pancreas

200
Q

what is the shortest part of the small intestine?

A

duodenum

201
Q

does blood glucose convert to fatty acids and stored in adipose tissue?

A

yes

202
Q

does protein catabolism make ATP?

A

yes

203
Q

what is the exchange of gas between alveoli and pulmonary capillaries?

A

external respiration

204
Q

where does oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange occur?

A

alveouls

205
Q

does respiration occur in the terminal branches?

A

no

206
Q

what is deep inhalation and deep exhalation utilize?

A

tidal volume
inspiratory reserve volume
expiratory reserve volume

207
Q

where does chloride shift occur?

A

internal respiration

208
Q

what does carbon dioxide travel most abundantly through?

A

as bicarbonate ions

209
Q

what airway is posterior to the oral cavity?

A

oropharynx

210
Q

what does the cilia in the nasal cavity do?

A

trap dust-filled mucus

211
Q

what is the interconnection of ventricles in the heart?

A

interventricular septum

212
Q

what is erythropoiesis?

A

formation of red blood cells

213
Q

what has anti-A and anti-B antibodies in the plasma?

A

O type blood

214
Q

what does cytotoxic t cells do?

A

immune cells that directly terminate antigens

215
Q

what happens when you lose self tolerance?

A

autoimmunity disease

216
Q

describe acromegaly

A

average height
very prominent mandible
thick hands
prominent supraorbital ridges
thick subcutaneous tissue

217
Q

what is the role of the prostate gland?

A

helps semen coagulate after ejaculation

218
Q

what triggers labour?

A

oxytocin
loss of estrogen or progesterone
mechanical forces

219
Q

when is the follicle at its largest?

A

preovulatory phase

220
Q

how long does implantation occur?

A

6 days

221
Q

what is the inner mast of blastocyst called?

A

embryo blast

222
Q

when does organogenesis begin?

A

week 4

223
Q

is dysmenorrhea considered normal in healthy women with no pathologies?

A

yes

224
Q

does lactation have fats and irons which are absorbed in breast milk with higher sodium levels?

A

no

225
Q

is it common to see urinary tract infections in women and men with STI infections?

A

yes

226
Q

where does gas exchange of the alveoli and pulmonary capillaries occur?

A

external respiration

227
Q

what is an exchange of gas between the atmosphere and lungs?

A

pulmonary ventilation

228
Q

is the terminal bronchioles apart of the respiratory zone?

A

no

229
Q

what is involved with deep exhalation?

A

tidal volume
inspiratory reserve volume
expiratory reserve volume

230
Q

what is henrys law?

A

the solubility of a gas in a liquid of a gas in a liquid is proportional to the partial pressure of the subatnce over the liquid

231
Q

what determines the direction of gas movement?

A

partial pressure

232
Q

what does not affect the affinity of oxygen for hemoglobin?

A

number of white blood cells

233
Q

what is the primary function of the cerebral cortex when breathing?

A

allows voluntary alternation of our breathing patterns

234
Q

describe gas exchange

A

movement of O2 into the tissue and waste product CO2 out of tissue

235
Q

what is the voice box?

A

larynx

236
Q

what is your windpipe?

A

trachea

237
Q

what is directly posterior to the oral cavity?

A

oropharynx

238
Q

describe the heart as a pump

A

only 1 pump but two sides that supply blood to the lungs and blood to the body simultaneously

239
Q

what is anemia?

A

abnormally low platelet count
iron deficiency

240
Q

what lines the outside of the heart?

A

epicardium

241
Q

what happens when cells lose self tolerance?

A

autoimmunity develops

242
Q

why do patients with pulmonary embolisms have very few and mild symptoms?

A

the lungs have redundant or collateral blood circulation

243
Q

what is not implicated in deficient red blood cell production?

A

vitamin A

244
Q

what tissue or organ is affected by tetralogy of fallot?

A

heart

245
Q

what is bronchiectasis?

A

permanent dilatation of one or more bronchi placing pressure on others

246
Q

true or false:
chronic inflammation triggers increased growth of alveoli to handle the demand of cell damage?

A

false

247
Q

what happens to the body with emphysema?

A

hypertrophies along with shoulder elevation and expansion of the ribs

248
Q

what is an example of type IV T cell-mediated hypersensitivity?

A

blood of an individual with contact dermatitis

249
Q

why does someone with emphysema have pursed lips?

A

holds airway open and prevent collapsing of lungs or alveolar

250
Q

describe HIV symptoms

A

fever
myalgia
sore throat
headache
rash

251
Q

what condition leads to incompetent valves, venous stasis, congestion, and edema then thrombosis formation?

A

varicose veins

252
Q

is wheezing normal with angina?

A

no

253
Q

can the heart not adapt during heart failure by any means thus death occur within days?

A

no

254
Q

what is when normal cells turn cancerous?

A

oncogenesis

255
Q

what chemical agent is responsible for cancer development?

A

carinogen

256
Q

is basal cell carcinoma a type of non-small cancer?

A

no

257
Q

what is anorexia cachexia syndrome?

A

wasting disorder due to cancer growth

258
Q

what is a risk factor for colon cancer?

A

ulcerative colitis

259
Q

what type of cancer grows on areas that arent exposed to sun?

A

basal cell carcinoma

260
Q

what promotes breast maturation and may increase the chance of cell mutuaion?

A

late menopause
no pregnancies
first child after 30

261
Q

what is a common symptom of delirium?

A

agitation, disorientation and fearlessness

262
Q

does the presence of a foreign material effect bone healing?

A

no

263
Q

what stage of healing does procallus formation occur?

A

fibrocartilaginois callus formation

264
Q

where are osteoclast found?

A

deep folds of membranes to increase surface area

265
Q

what bone cell is unable to divide but is a mature cell that maintains daily metabolism of bone?

A

osteoclast

266
Q

what is fused tetanus?

A

sustained contraction of muscle fiber due to rapidly repeating stimulate

267
Q

what process do muscle cells utilize to make ATP?

A

aerobic cellular respiration

268
Q

what does acetylcholine do?

A

binds receptors that open sodium channels on motor end plates

269
Q

does ATP hydrolyze into amp creating energy for action potential?

A

no

270
Q

does the cross bridge remain attach until ATP binds the head?

A

no

271
Q

what stores calcium ions?

A

sarcoplasmic reticulum

272
Q

what makes up DNA?

A

pentose sugar
phosphate group
4 nitrogenous base

273
Q

is the cell membrane composed primarily of cholesterol?

A

no

274
Q

what is pseudosquamous tissue?

A

cell nuclei lie at different levels and all cells do not reach an apical surface but all rest on the basement membrane

275
Q

does epithelial tissue have the ability to produce electrical signals?

A

no

276
Q

what cells are found in adsorption or secretion?

A

simple cuboidal epithelum

277
Q

what are the three basic classes of tissue types?

A

muscle
nervus
epithelial
connective

278
Q

what is the process of translation?

A

produce bodies of protein or specialize RNA

279
Q

what is mRna do?

A

direct synthesis of protein

280
Q

what solution will cause lysis of cells?

A

hypotonic solutions

281
Q

do proteins of the membrane form amphipathic bilayer?

A

no

282
Q

what is an example of a carbonhydrate?

A

glycogen

283
Q

are ions apart of atoms?

A

no

284
Q

what is the S phase?

A

phase of interphase where dna is replicated

285
Q

does epithelial tissue have secretory surfaces that secrete products produced by cells?

A

no

286
Q

what layer of skin is shed daily?

A

stratum corneum

287
Q

does the integumentary system synthesis vitamin a?

A

no

288
Q

does the nucleus produce ATP?

A

no

289
Q

what is unable to diffuse easily past the cell membrane?

A

polar molecules

290
Q

are synovial joints freely moveable?

A

yes

291
Q

what are transverse tubules?

A

tiny invagination of the sarcolemma that tunnels in from the surface towards the center of muscle fibre

292
Q

what is the functional unit of myofibrils?

A

sarcomere

293
Q

what is the role of myosins?

A

form thick filament of sarcomeres

294
Q

what holds the tropomyosin over the binding site?

A

troponin

295
Q

what is the center of the sarcomere?

A

m line

296
Q

what triggers calcium release channels to open during excitation to flood around the sarcomere?

A

propagation of a muscle action potential along sarcolemma

297
Q

does acetylcholine formation create atp?

A

no

298
Q

does atp control the release of actin and myosin cross bridge?

A

no

299
Q

what is latent contraction?

A

sustained contraction of muscles fibers due to rapidly repeating stimulation with no relaxation

300
Q

what are pericytes?

A

stem cells found in blood capillaries that can regenerate smooth muscle tissue

301
Q

what allows bones to grow in length?

A

epiphyseal plates

302
Q

what is not common to see with the exhaustion stage of G.A.S?

A

duration of this stage depends on the body innate to adapt and intensity of stressor

303
Q

describe principle III

A

to practice with integrity and honestly in our professional relationships

304
Q

would morals be considered illegal

A

what is moral is not always legal

305
Q

who does principle III apply towards?

A

our clients
ourselves
colleagues

306
Q

what are ethics?

A

rational mental exercise

307
Q

what is the greatest happiness principle?

A

mill-utilitarianism

308
Q

would accepting gratuities from clients be low risk relationship?

A

yes

309
Q

what is not a factor needed to be considered before entering into a post-termination relationship?

A

fee of treatment

310
Q

what are ethics based on?

A

personal feeling and individual intuitions

311
Q

what is a bioethical dilemma?

A

a conflict of values, loyalties and obligations in which a choice has a good and bed element

312
Q

is condemning other action plans if different then yours apart of ethical decision making?

A

no

313
Q

what is ethnocentrism?

A

the belief in the superiority of one’s culture or cultural practice and conviction that they are necessary, normal and natural

314
Q

is mastitis an indicator for massage?

A

no

315
Q

what is involved with privacy?

A

the claim of individuals, groups or institutions to determine when, how and to what extent information about them is communicated to others

316
Q

what is the massage therapy act?

A

scope of practice of massage therapist

317
Q

is the duty of registrar responsible for sending out upcoming CEU courses?

A

no

318
Q

what is required for sensitive areas?

A

spoken and written consent

319
Q

who receives the invoice for payment of massage therapy?

A

private or personal health insurance of client

320
Q

what is the sugar pill an example for?

A

placebo response

321
Q

what is corporation?

A

separate legal entity and the ownership is transferable

322
Q

what area of a business plan involves the mission statement?

A

executive summary

323
Q

what is the purpose of medical-legal reports?

A

to help a judge or jury decide the amount of compensation for an injured person

324
Q

what type of exercise is applied when a muscle is too painful to contract?

A

agonist contracture

325
Q

what receptors are stimulated at the origin and insertion coming close together?

A

GTO

326
Q

during chronic inflammation, what is the treatment goal?

A

restore ROM

327
Q

what happens to muscle strength in regards to myofascial TP?

A

decreases muscle strength

328
Q

where is GTOs located?

A

musculotendinous junction

329
Q

where are muscle spindles located?

A

belly of muscle

330
Q

is condemning other action plans if different then yours apart of ethical decisions making?

A

no

331
Q

how much Epsom salt is used in a bath?

A

2 cups

332
Q

what is hyperaemia?

A

accumulation of blood in the skin

333
Q

is an imagination of pictures visualization or imagery practice?

A

visualization

334
Q

does the therapist weight shift forward as performing long techniques?

A

yes

335
Q

what is an example of rate?

A

stimulating or smooth effects

336
Q

what is the plastic range?

A

permanent tissue deformation

337
Q

what is necking?

A

point at which even a decease in tension will result in rupture

338
Q

what is creep?

A

tissue deformation as a result of long duration stress application

339
Q

what is acetaminophen?

A

pain killer

340
Q

what type of connective tissue reduces heat loss through the skin, serves as an energy reserve, and supports and protects organs?

A

adipose tissue

341
Q

what is the only contractile tissue in the body?

A

muscular

342
Q

where does countercurrent occur?

A

loop of henle

343
Q

does cilia hairs along the ureters protect against UTIs?

A

no

344
Q

are minerals key for molecule metabolism?

A

no
they are needed for remodeling

345
Q

what cells produce insulin?

A

islet of langerhan

346
Q

are proteins used for ATP production?

A

no

347
Q

what improves hemoglobin affinity?

A

low partial pressure of carbon dioxide

348
Q

what is the diffusion of oxygen from alveoli to the pulmonary capillaries and carbon dioxide from the capillary into alveoli?

A

pulmonary gas exchange

349
Q

what hormones are in the anterior pituitary gland?

A

somatotrophs = hGH
thyrotrophin = TSH
gonadotrophs = FSH / LH
lactotrophs = PRL
corticotrophins = ACTH

350
Q

does the posterior pituitary gland produce hormones?

A

no, only store

351
Q

where does oogenesis occur?

A

ovaries

352
Q

what does oxytocin do?

A

stimulates breast to let down or eject milk

353
Q

what does the chorion produce?

A

Human chorionic gonadotrpoins

354
Q

what somite region develops into skeletal muscles of the limbs, trunk, and neck?

A

myotomes

355
Q

what type of testicular torsion occurs in newborns?

A

extravaginal

356
Q

what is a PSA blood test used for?

A

screening prostate cancer

357
Q

what is a predispose factor of pelvic inflammatory disease?

A

women with multiple sex partners

358
Q

what triggers ADH?

A

decrease in blood volume resulting in high sodium levels

Module 8 (12 decks)

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