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Module 8 > AP 1 > Flashcards

AP 1 Flashcards

1
Q

that anatomical landmarks on the surface of the body which are visible and palpable?

A

surface anatomy

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2
Q

the structures that can be examined without a microscope?

A

gross anatomy

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3
Q

structure of specific systems of the body?

A

systemic anatomy

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4
Q

specific regions of the body?

A

regional anatomy

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5
Q

structural changes associated with disease?

A

pathological anatomy

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6
Q

internal body structures that can be visualized with techniques such as x-rays?

A

imaging anatomy

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7
Q

what is histology?

A

microscopic structure of tissue

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8
Q

describe molecular physiology

A

functions of individual molecules such as proteins and DNA

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9
Q

what are the functional properties of nerve cells?

A

neurophysiology

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10
Q

the study of hormones and how they regulate the body?

A

endocrinology

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11
Q

what are the six levels of the structural organization?

A

chemical
cellular
tissue
organ
system
organismal

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12
Q

what are the eleven systems of the body?

A

integumentary
skeletal
muscular
nervous
endocrine
lympahtic
digestive
reproductive
cardiovascular
respiratory
urniary

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13
Q

what are the six basic life processes?

A

metabolism
responsiveness
movement
growth
differentiation
reproduction

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14
Q

what are two important ways body fluid helps homeostasis?

A

maintain volume
composition

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15
Q

what are some examples of extracellular fluids?

A

interstitial
blood plasma
lymph
cerebrospinal
synovial

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16
Q

what two systems play a large role in homeostasis?

A

endocrine
nervous

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17
Q

what are the disruptions that change a controlled condition?

A

stimulus

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18
Q

what are the two types of feedback systems?

A

negative
positive

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19
Q

what’s an example of a negative and positive feedback system?

A

negative = blood pressure regulation
positive = child birth

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20
Q

what’s the difference between a positive and negative feedback system?

A

negative is a change in a controlled condition
positive is to strengthen and reinforce a change

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21
Q

what is the structure that monitors the change and end impulses?

A

recetor

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22
Q

what’s an example of a controlled centre?

A

brain

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23
Q

what’s the difference between disorder and disease?

A

disorder: abnormality of a strutter or function
disease: a more specific term for illness by a recognizable set of signs and symptoms

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24
Q

what does subjective means? objective?

A

subjective: manifestations that cannot be observed
objective: manifestations that can be observed or measured

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25
Q

are symptoms objective or subjective?

A

subjective

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26
Q

what are the four major chemicals of the body?

A

oxygen
carbon
hydrogen
nitrogen

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27
Q

what are the minor chemicals of the body?

A

calcium
phosphorus
potassium
sulfur
sodium
chlorine
magnesium
iron

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28
Q

what percentage of elements makes u the body?

A

96% major chemicals
3.65 minor chemicals

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29
Q

what are the three types of atoms?

A

protons (+)
neutrons (=)
electrons (-)

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30
Q

what is the dense central core of an atom?
what does a nucleus consist of?

A

nucleus
positively charged proton s and uncharged neutrons

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31
Q

what surrounds the nucleus?

A

electrons

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32
Q

what are the electron shells?

A

regions around the nucleus

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33
Q

how many electrons does each electron shell hold?

A

1st = 2
2nd = 8
3rd = 18

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34
Q

what are atoms that has a positive or negative charge due to unequal numbers of protons and electrons?

A

ions

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35
Q

what is called it when two atoms or more share electrons?

A

molecules

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36
Q

what are substances that contain atoms of 2 or more different elements?

A

compounds

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37
Q

what are free radicals?

A

an electrically charged atom or group of atoms with unpaired electrons in the outermost shell

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38
Q

what are the types of chemical bonds?

A

ionic bonds
covalent bonds
hydrogen bonds

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39
Q

what is the difference between cations and anions?

A

cations = positively charged ions
anions = negatively charged ions

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40
Q

what are the ionic compounds that break apart into positive and negative ions?

A

electrolytes

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41
Q

describe a covalent bond.

A

two or more atoms share electrons rather then gaining or losing them

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42
Q

what is the different between polar and nonpolar covalent bonds?

A

nonpolar = sharing equal atoms
polar = unequal sharing of atoms

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43
Q

how does a covalent bond become strong?

A

adding a larger number of electron pairs

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44
Q

are hydrogen bonds weak or strong?

A

weak

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45
Q

fill in the blank:
in a chemical reaction the total mass of _____ = the mass of ____

A

in a chemical reaction the total mass of reactants = the mass of products

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46
Q

what does metabolism refer too?

A

all chemical activity in the body

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47
Q

what is the difference between potential and kinetic energy?

A

potential = store energy
kinetic = associated with motion

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48
Q

match the following:
exergonic reactions A+B =AB
endergonic reactions AB= A+B

A

exergonic reactions AB= A+B
endergonic reactions A+B =AB

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49
Q

what is the collision energy needed to break the chemical bonds of reactants?

A

activation energy

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50
Q

what two factors influence the chance that collisions will occur to a chemical reaction?

A

concentration
temperature

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51
Q

what are the chemical compounds that speed up chemical reactions by lowering the activation energy needed for a reaction to occur?

A

catalyst

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52
Q

what are the four kins of chemical reactions?

A

anabolism
catabolism
exchange
reversible

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53
Q

match the following:
anabolism product can be revert to original
catabolism synthesis reaction
exchange reactions consisting of synthesis and decom
reversible decomposition reaction

A

anabolism synthesis reaction
catabolism decomposition reaction
exchange reactions consisting of synthesis and decom
reversible product can be revert to original

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54
Q

what is the difference between inorganic and organic compounds?

A

inorganic = lack of carbon, ionic or covalent, 55-60%
organic = have carbon, covalent, 38-43%

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55
Q

what is the universal solvent?

A

water

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56
Q

what’s the difference between hydrophilic and hydrophobic?

A

hydrophilic = dissolves easy in water
hydrophobic = doesn’t dissolve into water

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57
Q

what makes water a good lubricant?

A

eps with sliding and movement in the chest
in joints it helps where bones, ligament, or tendon rub again each other
helps digest food

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58
Q

what is it called when acids or bases or converted into weak acid or bases?

A

buffer system

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59
Q

what are the categories of organic compounds?

A

carbohydrates
lipids
proteins
nucleic acid
ATP

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60
Q

what are three elements of carbohydrates?

A

carbon
hydrogen
oxygen

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61
Q

what are monosaccharides?

A

3-7 carbon atoms

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62
Q

what are disaccharides?

A

combination of 2 monosaccharides

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63
Q

what are the four nitrogenous bases?

A

adenine
thymine
cytosine
guanine

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64
Q

what are the three main parts of the cell?

A

plasma membrane
cytoplasm
nucleus

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65
Q

what is the molecular arrangement of a plasma membrane that resembles an ever-moving sea of fluid that contains a mosaic of many different proteins?

A

fluid mosaic model

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66
Q

what are the three lipid molecules present in the lipid bilayer?

A

phospholipids
cholesterol
glycolipids

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67
Q

what are the non polar portions of the lipid bilayer?

A

steroid rigs and hydrocarbon tails

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68
Q

what is the difference between integral and peripheral membrane proteins?

A

integral: extends into and through the lipid bilayer
peripheral: not firmly embedded in the membrane

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69
Q

what are the functions of glycocalyx?

A

enables cells to recognize one another
enables cells to adhere to one another
protects cells from being digested by enzymes in the extracellular matrix

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70
Q

what is the role of carriers of the membrane proteins ?

A

transporters, carry a polar substance from one side to the other

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71
Q

what os the role of receptors in membrane proteins?

A

serve as cellular recognition sites

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72
Q

what is the role of enzymes in the membrane proteins?

A

catalyze for chemical reactions

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73
Q

what anchors neighbouring proteins in membrane proteins?

A

linker

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74
Q

what’s the difference between permeable, impermeable, and selective permeability?

A

permeable: permits the passage of substances
impermeable: does not permit the passage of substance
selective permeability: plasma membrane that permits some substances to pass more then others

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75
Q

what is the difference in the concentration of certain substances on either side of the plasma membrane?

A

concentration gradient

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76
Q

what are some passive processes of transport over the plasma membrane?

A

simple
facilitated
osmosis

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77
Q

what are some active processes of transport over the plasma membrane?

A

primary active
secondary active

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78
Q

describe diffusion?

A

passive process in which the random mixing of particles in a solution occurs from kinetic energy

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79
Q

what effects rate of diffusion?

A

steepness
temperature
mass of doffing substances
surface area
distance

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80
Q

what is the difference between simple and facilitated diffusion?

A

simple: substance move freely through the lipid bilayer of the plasma membrane

facilitated: integral membrane plasma protein assist a specific substance across the membrane because the substance is too polar or highly charged

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81
Q

what is osmosis?

A

a passive diffusion where there is the net movement of a solvent through a selectively permeable membrane
occurs with water

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82
Q

the measure of solutions’ ability to change the volume of a cell is called what?

A

tonicity

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83
Q

what Is isotonic solution?

A

maintain normal shape and volume within a cell

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84
Q

what is it called when outside the cell has a lower solute concentration compared to the cytosol inside the cell?

A

hypotonic solution

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85
Q

what I the difference between lysis and hemolysis?

A

lysis: rupture of cells due to hypotonic solutions
hemolysis: rupture of red blood cells

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86
Q

what is shrinking of the cells called?

A

crenation

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87
Q

what is hypertonic solution?

A

higher solute concentration than the inside of the cell.

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88
Q

what makes active transport different then passive transport?

A

active requires energy to go against the concentration gradient

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89
Q

what’s the difference between primary and secondary active transport?

A

primary = atp
secondary = stored atp

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90
Q

what is phagocytosis?

A

a form of endocytosis where cells engulf large particles. phagocytes carry this process

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91
Q

what is the difference between macrophages and neutrophils?

A

macrophages = body tissue
neutrophils = WBC

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92
Q

how much of the cytoplasm is made of cytosol?

A

55%

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93
Q

what is the cytoskeleton?

A

a network of protein filaments in the cytosol

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94
Q

what is the function of cytoskeletons?

A

strutter, support
allows movement

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95
Q

what are microfilaments?

A

near edge of the cell
provide movement such as muscle contraction
mechanical supporter

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96
Q

what are centrosomes?

A

near nucleus
responsible for cell division and growth

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97
Q

what are cilia?

A

short hair like projections

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98
Q

what are the structures smaller then cilia but longer which can move an entire cell?

A

flagella

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99
Q

what do ribosomes do?

A

protein synthesis of RNA and proteins

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100
Q

what is the difference between the rough and smooth ER of the reticulum?

A

rough= has ribosome
synthesizes glycoproteins and phospholipids
smooth= no ribosome
synthesize fatty acid an steroids

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101
Q

what does Golgi do?

A

accepts protein from rough ER

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102
Q

what does lysosome do?

A

vesicles from golgi complex
digestion

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103
Q

what are peroxisomes?

A

oxides amino acids and fatty acids

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104
Q

what are proteasome?

A

tiny barrel-shaped structures that contain proteases
degrades unneeded or damaged proteins into small peptides

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105
Q

what is the powerhouse of the cell, producing ATP?

A

mitochondria

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106
Q

where id DNA located?

A

nucleus

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107
Q

what is the role of protein?

A

determine the physical and chemical characteristics of s cells and organisms themselves
assemble cellular structures
serve aa hormones, transporters etc

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108
Q

what is gene expression?

A

process of which a genes DNA is used as a template

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109
Q

what is the difference between transcription and translation?

A

transciption = information encoded a specific region of DNA
translation = RNA activating RNA

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110
Q

what is a base triplet?

A

the sequence of three nucleotides

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111
Q

what is a codon?

A

each base triplet is transcribed as a complementary sequence of three nucleotides

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112
Q

what is genetic code?

A

the set of rules that relate the base triplet sequence of DNA to the corresponding codons of RNA and amino acid

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113
Q

where does transcription take place?

A

in the nucleus

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114
Q

what are the three types of RNA?

A

messenger RNA
ribosomal RNA
transfer RNA

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115
Q

what is the process of copying genetic information into a complementary sequence of codons?

A

transcription

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116
Q

what Is initiation transcription?

A

when RNA starts the process of transcription of DNA enzymes instruct where to start and where to end. only one of two DNA strands will be used for RNA synthesis

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117
Q

what is termination in relation to transcription?

A

where transcription ends

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118
Q

where does translation take place?

A

ribosomes

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119
Q

what is a simpler way to put translation?

A

produce protein in the body

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120
Q

what are the binding sites for the small and large subunits of ribosomes?

A

small = binding site for tRNA
large = P sites (tRNA attaches to mRNA)
a site (tRNA held against amino acids)
e sites (tRNA binds just before it is released into ribosome)

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121
Q

what are the two types of cell division?

A

somatic
reproductive

122
Q

what is the difference between somatic and reproductive cell division?

A

somatic, produces 2 identical cells with he same number of chromosomes as original
reproductive, produces gamete

123
Q

what is the name for sex cells?

A

germ cell

124
Q

what are somatic cells?

A

any cell but a germ cell in the body

125
Q

how many chromosomes do humans have?

A

23 pairs or 46 individual

126
Q

are sex cells diploid or haploid ?

A

haploid

127
Q

what period of the cell cycle is the cell not dividing?

A

interphase

128
Q

what are the three interphase phases?

A

G1
S
G2

129
Q

what are the stages of mitosis?

A

prophase
metaphase
anaphase
telophase

130
Q

what is cytokinesis?

A

division of the cells cytoplasm and organelles into two identical cells

131
Q

when does cytokinesis begin?

A

anaphase

132
Q

define apoptosis

A

cell death

133
Q

define necrosis

A

cell injury

134
Q

what are the stages of reproductive cell division?

A

prophase 1
metaphase 1
anaphase 1
telophase 1 / cytokinesis
meiosis 2
end result

135
Q

what are the four types of tissue?

A

epithelial (boy surfaces and hollow organs, ducts, glands, body cavities)
connective (supports and protects)
muscular (muscular)
nervous (nerves action potential responses)

136
Q

what are the three embryonic tissue types?

A

endoderm (lining in GI, respiratory, or organs)
mesoderm (muscles bones and connective tissue)
ectoderm (epidermis of skin and nervous system)

137
Q

what are the five types of cell junctions?

A

tight junctions
adherent junctions
desmosomes
hemidesmosomes
gap junctions

138
Q

what are the functions of epithelial tissue?

A

limits or aids the transfer of substances into and out of the body
secretory surfaces that release products produced by the cells
protective services

139
Q

what two things help classify epithelium?

A

arrangement
shape

140
Q

describe the following:
simple
stratified
pseudostratified

A

simple = single layer
stratified = two or more layers
pseudostratified = depends on the nuclei location causes multiple levels at different locations

141
Q

describe the following:
squamous
cubodial
columnar
transitional

A

squamous = thin and flat
cuboidal = tall and wide, also shaped like cubes
columnar = tall and wide like columns
transitional = changes shape from squamous to cuboidal and back

142
Q

what is the difference between endocrine glands and exocrine glands?

A

endocrine = secretions enter the interstitial fluid and diffuse directly into the blood stream without ducts

exocrine glands = secretion into ducts that empty onto the surface of a covering and lining epithelium (skin or hollow organs)

143
Q

what is the difference between simple glands and compound glands ?

A

simple = no branding off ducts
compound = branching off ducts

144
Q

what are some examples of medicine glands?

A

salivary glands and pancreas

145
Q

what are some examples of apocrine glands?

A

sweat and mammary glands

146
Q

what are holocrine glands?

A

rupture of the plasma membrane causing release of products

147
Q

what are some functions of connective tissue?

A

bind tissue together
support and strengthen
protect ad insulate
compartmentalize
transport
stored energy
immune response

148
Q

what six cell types are found in connective tissue?

A

fibroblast (secreted fibers)
macrophages (engulf bacteria)
plasma cells (secrete antibodies)
mast cells (produce histamine)
adipocytes (store triglycerides)
white blood cells (immune response)

149
Q

what is ground substances?

A

between cells and fibre
support and bind cells, store water, and allow exchange between blood an cells

150
Q

what is the function of reticular fibres?

A

provides strengthen and support consisting of collagen arrange bundles

151
Q

what are the five types of mature connective tissue?

A

loose
dense
cartilage
bone
liquid

152
Q

does cartilage have nerve or blood vessels in the extracellular matrix?

A

no

153
Q

what are mature cartilage cells called?

A

chondrocytes

154
Q

what is the covering of dense irregular connective tissue that surrounds the surface of most cartilage and contains BV and nerve?

A

perichondrium

155
Q

is something is avascular, what does that mean for healing of injuries?

A

poorly and delayed healing due to lack of blood flow

156
Q

what type of cartilage tissue lacks a perichondrium?

A

fibrocartilage

157
Q

what is healing of cartilage so poor?

A

due to lack of blood flow or avascular structures

158
Q

what type of growth grows within the tissue ?

A

interstitial growth

159
Q

what type of grows on the outer surface of tissue?

A

appositional growth

160
Q

what are the two types of liquid connective tissue?

A

blood and lymph

161
Q

what does muscular tissue use to generate force?

A

atp

162
Q

what are the three types of skeletal muscle tissue?

A

skeletal
cardiac
smooth

163
Q

what structure is unique to cardiac muscle tissue?

A

intercalated disc

164
Q

what is nerve action potential?

A

an electrical stimulus which conducts action potential to other neurons , muscles, or glands

165
Q

what is electrical excitability?

A

the ability to respond to certain stimuli by producing electrical signals such as action potential

166
Q

what is the process of scar formation called?

A

fibrosis

167
Q

do scar tissue hace a main function?

A

no, they do not have any specialized functions but are used to replace damaged connective tissue

168
Q

what is granulation tissue?

A

actively growing connective tissue that is brought on when tissue damage is extensive and not storm and parenchymal cells are active in repair

169
Q

what factors effect tissue repair?

A

nutrition
blood circulation
age

170
Q

what are the five main types of blood?

A

arteries
arterioles
capillaries
venules
veins

171
Q

what direction do arteries carry blood?

A

away from the heart to other organs

172
Q

what are the smallest branch of arteries?

A

capillaries

173
Q

what is angiogenesis?

A

growth of new blood vessels

174
Q

what re the three layers of blood vessels?

A

tunica intera
tunica media
tunica externa

175
Q

what are the two types of arteries?

A

elastic arteries
muscular arteries

176
Q

what is anastomoses?

A

branching of two or more arteries supplying the same region

177
Q

what areas of the body will be lower in capillaries?

A

tendons and ligaments

178
Q

what are the three types of capillaries?

A

continuous
fenestrated
sinusoids

179
Q

which type of capillary is the most abundant?

A

continuous

180
Q

do venues maintain their shape often?

A

no

181
Q

where are veins the largest?

A

at entry of the heart

182
Q

what two things take place for the moving of venous blood back to the heart?

A

pumping of the heart
contraction of skeletal of muscles in the lower limbs

183
Q

is blood pressure higher or lower in veins compared to arteries?

A

lower

184
Q

how would you know if you cut a vein vs an artery?

A

veins will bleed slowly while arteries bleed fast and spurts out blood

185
Q

where can you find valves?

A

tunica interna

186
Q

are veins or arteries more numerous?

A

veins

187
Q

how would you compare the upper body vs the lower body blood flow?

A

upper = superficial veins are larger then deep
lower = Deep veins are the major pathways from capillaries to the heart

188
Q

how much blood is stored in the pulmonary blood vessels?

A

9%

189
Q

how much blood is held in the heart?

A

7%

190
Q

what three ways does capillary exchange take place?

A

diffusion
transcytosis
bulk flow

191
Q

describe the diffusion of capillaries

A

substances move into / out of the cell by simple diffusion based on concentration gradient

192
Q

describe transcytosis of capillaries

A

substances in the blood plasma become enclosed in tiny pinocytic vesicles that enter endothelial cells by endocytosis

193
Q

describe bulk flow?

A

passive process in which large numbers of ions, molecules or particles in fluid move together on the same direction

194
Q

what is blood hydrostatic pressure?

A

water in the blood plasma exerts pressure abasing the blood vessel walls. due to the pressure abasing the walls, fluid is pushed out of the capillaries and into interstitial fluid

195
Q

what is interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure?

A

minimal pressure that pushes fluid from interstitial space into capillaries

196
Q

what is blood colloid osmotic pressure?

A

increased protein concentration in the blood causes fluid to be pulled from the interstitial space into capillaries

197
Q

what is interstitial fluid osmotic pressure?

A

due to low concentration of proteins in intersitial fluid, the pressure is low which causes fluid to be pulled into interstitial spaces

198
Q

how much fluid is filtered out of capillaries into tissue daily?

A

20 L
(17 L absorbed, 3 L lymphatic)

199
Q

what are the functions of blood cells?

A

transportation
regulation
protection

200
Q

what temperature is blood?

A

38 degrees

201
Q

what is average blood pH?

A

7.35 - 7.45

202
Q

how does blood become bright red?

A

high O2

203
Q

what is the average blood volume?

A

men, 5-6 L
women, 4-5 L

204
Q

what are hepatocytes?

A

liver cells which produce most plasma proteins

205
Q

what are some plasma proteins?

A

globulins
fibrinogen

206
Q

which of the following are whole cells? which have specialized roles?
white blood cells
red blood cells
platelets

A

white blood cells (whole, specialized)
red blood cells (whole)
platelets )fragment)

207
Q

what is the formation of blood development?

A

hemopoiesis

208
Q

where does hemopoiesis take place?

A

red bone marrow

209
Q

what another name for red blood cells?

A

erythrocytes

210
Q

what protein is present in RBC that carries oxygen?

A

hemoglobins

211
Q

how would you describe red blood cells?

A

biconcave disc
strong and flexible
simple structure
lack nucleus and other organelles

212
Q

how long is the life stand of RBC?

A

120 days die to wear and tear of the plasma membrane

213
Q

how do RBC synthesize?

A

They don’t due to the lack of a nucleus. instead, they return destroyed RBC to the spleen and liver cells (phagocytic macrophages) to be recycled

214
Q

what another name for white blood cells?

A

leukocytes

215
Q

is there a presence of a nucleus in white blood cells?

A

yes

216
Q

define emigration in relation to WBC

A

leaving the bloodstream

217
Q

define adhesion molecules in relation to WBC

A

molecule that help WBC stick tp endothelium

218
Q

define phagocytosis in relation to WBC

A

ingesting substances

219
Q

what is chemotaxis?

A

the attraction of phagocytes through chemical release and inflamed tissue

220
Q

what are the functions of WBC?

A

neutrophils (destruction of bacteria and fungi)
monocytes (clean up debris and infection)
basophils (react to allergic reactions)
eosinophils (combat effects of histamine in allergies)
lymphocytes (mediate immune response)

221
Q

what is the function of platelets?

A

helps stop blood loss from the damaged site
promote clotting

222
Q

what are the components of the lymph system?

A

lymph
lymph vessels
lymphatic tissue
bone marrow

223
Q

what is the functions of the lymphatic system?

A

drains excess interstitial fluid from tissue spaces and returns it to the blood
transport dietary lipids and vitamins
carries out immune response

224
Q

where does excess filtration lead too?

A

lymphatics

225
Q

what is the sequence of fluid flow?

A

blood capillaries, interstitial space/fluid, lymphatic capillaries, lymphatic vessels, lymphatic ducts, junction of the internal jugular and subclavian veins

226
Q

what two things aid in lymphatic flow?

A

skeletal muscle pumps
respiratory pump

227
Q

what does red bone marrow give rise too?

A

B cells

228
Q

what does the thymus give rise too?

A

t cells

229
Q

what sites doe most immune response occur?

A

lymph nodes
spleen
lymphatic nodules

230
Q

how would you describe the strutter of lymph nodes?

A

bean shaped

231
Q

what happens tp the thymus after puberty?

A

atrophy

232
Q

what is the function of lymph nodes?

A

filtration

233
Q

what is the difference between the while pulp and the red pulp in the spleen?

A

white = immune function
red = removal of defective blood cells and platelets

234
Q

where is the spleen located?

A

stomach and diaphragm

235
Q

what is another name for MALT?

A

lymphatic nodules

236
Q

what is an example of a MALT?

A

tonsils

237
Q

what is the cutaneous membrane?

A

skin

238
Q

what is the largest organ in the body?

A

skin

239
Q

what are the superficial and deep layers of the skin?

A

epidermis
dermis

240
Q

what is deep to the dermis but not apart of the skin?

A

subcutaneous layer

241
Q

what four cells are present in the epidermis ?

A

keratinocytes
melanocytes
intraepidermal Marcopahges
tactile epitherlial

242
Q

what are the thin layers of the epidermis?

A

stratum basale
stratum spinous
stratum granulosum
stratum lucidum
stratum corneum

243
Q

what layer of the epidermis is only present in thick skin?

A

stratum lucidum

244
Q

how does new skin grow in the epidermis?

A

newly formed cells are pushed from the stratum basale to the surface

245
Q

what is keratinization?

A

growth of epidermis

246
Q

how long does keratinization take?

A

4 weeks

247
Q

what are excessive amounts of keratinized cells shed from the spin of the scapula?

A

dandruff

248
Q

what features does the debris contain?

A

ability to stretch and recoil

249
Q

what are the main groups of the dermis?

A

papillary
reticular

250
Q

what is the difference between ‘messier corpuscles’ and ‘free nerve ending’?

A

messier = tacile receptors
free nerve = lack any apparent structure (warmth, coolness, pain, talking, itching)

251
Q

what role does hair serve?

A

limited protection (guards scaled from injury and sun light, protects eyes, nose and ears from foreign matter, sensing light touch)

252
Q

what is the following in relation to hair?
shaft
root
follicle
bulb
dermal shaft
matrix
erector pili

A

shaft = superficial portion
root = deepest portion
follicle = surrounds the root of the hair
bulb = base of the hair follicle
dermal shaft = dense portion of the dermis
matrix = site of cell division
erector pili = smooth muscles

253
Q

what are the following structures in relation to the nails?
body/plate
free edge
nail root

A

body/plate = visible portion of the nail
free edge = portion that extends past the distal end (white)
nail root = underneath the fold of the skin

254
Q

what are the three types of skin glands?

A

sebaceous (oil)
sudoriferous (sweat)
ceruminous (ear wax)

255
Q

what is the difference between the apocrine and eccrine sweat glands?

A

eccrine = forehead, palms, soles
apocrine = axilla, breast, groin

256
Q

what functions does the skin serve?

A

thermoregulation
blood reservoir
protection
sensations
excretion and absorption
vitamin D synthesis

257
Q

what are some rapidly adapting touch receptors?

A

corpuscles of touch (meissner)
hair plexus

258
Q

what are some slowly adapting touch receptors?

A

Merkel skin
ruffini corpuscles

259
Q

what percentage of body weight does the skeletal system make up?

A

18%

260
Q

what is remodelling?

A

the construction of new bone tissue and break down of old tissue

261
Q

what tissues are involved with the skeletal system?

A

bone
cartilage
dense connective tissue
epithelium
adipose tissue
nervous tissue

262
Q

what functions does the skeletal system perform?

A

support
protection
assistance in movement
mineral homeostasis
blood cell production
triglyceride storage

263
Q

what is the function of yellow bone marrow?

A

consist of mainly of adipose cells which store triglycerides

264
Q

what is the function of red bone marrow?

A

produces red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets in a process called hemopoiesis

265
Q

what are the structures of a bone?

A

diaphysis (shaft or body)
epiphysis (proximal and distal shaft)
metaphysics (between diaphysis and epiphysis)
articular cartilage (covering bone articulation)
medullary cavity (hollow space)
periosteum (surrounds the external bone shaft)
endosperm (internal lining of bone)

266
Q

what determines a bone’s hardness vs its flexibility?

A

hardness = crystallized inorganic mineral salts
flexibility = collagen fibres and other organic molecules

267
Q

what happens to a bone when soaking it in acidic solutions?

A

dissolves its mineral salts and bone will become rubber and flexible

268
Q

what is the role of osteoprogenitor cells?

A

unspecialized cells
only bone undergoes cell division

269
Q

what is the role of osteoblast cells?

A

bone building cells
initiates calcification

270
Q

what is the role of osteocytes?

A

cells that maintain tissue or mature bone cells

271
Q

what is the role of osteoclasts?

A

break down the extracellular matrix

272
Q

what is the difference in compact vs spongy bone?

A

compact = few spaces and is the strongest form of bone tissue
protection, support, and resist stress of movement and weight

spongy = does not contain osteons
light and reduces the overall weight of the bone
named for its appearance not texture

273
Q

is bone richly supplied with blood?

A

yes

274
Q

what artery enters the diaphysis though many perforating canals?

A

periosteal arteries

275
Q

where do the nutrient ratios pass through?

A

nutrient foramen

276
Q

what are the main veins of the bones?

A

nutrient veins
epiphyseal and metaphyseal
periosteal

277
Q

which part of the bone is rich with nerves?

A

periosteum

278
Q

what is ossification?

A

bone formation
osteogenesis

279
Q

what are the four areas of bone formation?

A

embryo and fetus
infancy and adolescence
remodelling of bone
fracture of bone

280
Q

when is fetal development does ossification start?

A

6th week

281
Q

what is the difference between endochondral and intramembranous ossification?

A

endochondral = replacement of cartilage by bone
intramembranous =bone forms directly within mesenchyme arranged in sheet-like layers

282
Q

what events happen for the bone to grow in length?

A

interstitial growth of cartilage on the epiphyseal side of the plate
replacement of cartilage on diaphysral side of the plate

283
Q

what I the epiphyseal growth plate?

A

layer of hyaline cartilage in the metaphysics of a growing bone
allows bone to grow in length

284
Q

what four distinct zones are in the epiphyseall?

A

zone of resting cartilage
zone of proliferating cartilage
zone of hypertrophic cartilage
zone of calcified cartilage

285
Q

is the destruction of bone slower on the inside or outside?

A

inside

286
Q

what is bone remodelling?

A

replacement of old bone tissue by new bone tissue
can also remove injured bone

287
Q

what is bone resorption?

A

results in the destruction of bone extracellular matrix, removal of minerals and collagen fibres via osteoclasts

288
Q

what is bone deposition?

A

relates in formation of bone extracellular matrix via osteoblast

289
Q

are new or old bones more likely to fracture?

A

new bone

290
Q

what happens when bone is subjected to heavy load?

A

becomes thicker and stronger then old bone

291
Q

how does bone resorption occur?

A

several osteoclasts carve out a small tunnel in the old bone and once small area of the bone is resorbed, osteoclast eaves and osteoblast moves to rebuild the bone

292
Q

what can cause a bone disorder?

A

imbalanced osteoclast and osteoblast
too much tissue formation
thick and heavy bone formation
too much material deposited
too little calcium or tissue
too flexible

293
Q

what is the role of the following:
vit. A
vit. C
vit. D
vit. G and B12

A

vit. A = stimulates osteoblasts
vit. C = synthesis collagen
vit. D = builds bone assist
vit. G and B12 = synthesis bone proteins

294
Q

what factors determines metabolism of bone?

A

diet intake of minerals and vitamins and sufficient levels of hormones

295
Q

what is the role of the following:
IGF
hGH
T3 T4
insulin

A

IGF = stimulates osteoblast
hGH = increased during childhood
T3 T4 = promotes bone growth
insulin = increasing synthesis of bone proteins

296
Q

what do estrogen and androgen do for the bones?

A

cause dramatic bone growth

297
Q

why does the growth of bones end earlier in women than men?

A

because of higher levels of estrogen

298
Q

describe the following fractures.
greenstick
impacted
potts
colles
comminuted
open

A

greenstick = partial fracture
impacted = one end of bone is forcefully driven into other
potts = distal end of lateral leg
colles = distal end of lateral forearm
comminuted = crushed
open = broken skin

299
Q

what are the phases of bone healing?

A

hematome formation
fibrocartilgionis callus
bony callus
remodel

300
Q

how long does it take for bones to heal in…
children
adolescents
adults

A

children = 4-6 wks
adolescents = 6-8 wks
adults = 10-18 wks

301
Q

what are the functions of muscle tissue?

A

produce body movement
stabilizing body position
boring and moving substances
generating heat

302
Q

what are the properties of muscle tissue?

A

electrical excitability
contractility
extensibility
elasticity

Module 8 (12 decks)

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