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Module 8 > GI > Flashcards

GI Flashcards

1
Q

what organs make up the GI tract?

A

mouth
most of the pharynx
esophagus
stomach
small intestines
large intestines

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2
Q

what are the six accessory glands?

A

teeth
tongue
salivary glands
liver
gall bladder
pancreas

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3
Q

what is the flap of cartilage which allows food to enter the larynx?

A

epiglottis

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4
Q

what are the six steps of the digestive system?

A

ingestion
secretion
mixing and propulsion
digestion
absorption
defecation

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5
Q

what is the difference between digestion and hydrolysis?

A

digestion = physical breakdown of food
hydrolysis = chemical break down of food

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6
Q

what are the four layers of the GI tract?

A

muscosa
submuscosa
muscularis
serosa

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7
Q

what layer of the GI contains your malt?

A

muscosa lamina propria layer

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8
Q

what system regulates the GI tract?

A

enteric nervous system

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9
Q

what nerve helps regulate the GI tract?

A

vagus nerve X

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10
Q

what nervous system activates rest and digest?

A

parasympathetic

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11
Q

what is the large serous membrane of the body?

A

peritoneum

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12
Q

what does the parietal peritoneum cover?

A

abdominopelvic Cavity

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13
Q

What does the retroperitoneal cavity cover?

A

any organ that lies on the posterior abdominal wall
(kidney, colons of the large intestine, duodenum of the small intestine, pancreas)

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14
Q

describe each of the following :
greater momentum
falciform ligament
lesser momentum
mesentery
mesocolon

A

greater momentum (fatty drape over the small intestine)
falciform ligament (attaches the liver to the anterior abnormal and diaphragm)
lesser momentum (suspends the stomach and duodenum from the liver)
mesentery (binds the jejunum and ileum together)
mesocolon (binds the transverse colon and sigmoid colon of the large intestine to the posterior wall)

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15
Q

where is the parotid gland located?

A

inferior and anterior to the ears
between the mass ester and its skin overlying

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16
Q

what purpose does saliva have?

A

cleansing
increase secretion to help with breakdown of food

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17
Q

where is the submandibular gland located?

A

floor of the mouth, medial and partial inferior to the body of the mandible

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18
Q

where is the sublingual gland located?

A

beneath the tongue and superior to the submandibular glands

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19
Q

how much saliva is water? solute?

A

water 99.5%
solute 0.5%

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20
Q

how many teeth are permanent? deciduous?

A

permanent 32
deciduous 20

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21
Q

what muscle forms the floor of the oral cavity?

A

tongue

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22
Q

what enzymes contribute to chemical digestion?

A

salivary amylase and lingual lipase

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23
Q

what do salivary amylase enzymes do?

A

break down starches which break down into monosaccharides which are absorbed into the bloodstream

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24
Q

where can you find salivary amylase enzymes?

A

oral cavity to the stomach where stomach acid then takes over

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25
Q

what does lingual lipase do?

A

active in acidic environments and breaks down triglycerides into fatty acids and diglycerides

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26
Q

what is the pharynx?

A

extends from the internal nares to the esophagus portioner to and anterior to the larynx

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27
Q

what three divisions do the pharynx make up?

A

nasopharynx
oropharynx
laryngopharynx

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28
Q

what is the function of each division of the pharynx?

A

nasopharynx (respiration)
oropharynx (respiration and digestion)
laryngopharynx (respiration and digestion)

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29
Q

what is the collapsible muscular tube which lies posterior to the trachea?

A

esophagus

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30
Q

what is the hiatal hernia?

A

part of the stomach which protrudes above the diaphragm

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31
Q

what four layers make up the esophagus?

A

mucosa
submucosa
muscualris
adventitia

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32
Q

does the esophagus have digestive enzymes or absorption properties?

A

no

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33
Q

based on the muscular layer of the esophagus, what parts are made of skeletal muscles or smooth muscles?

A

superior 1/3 (skeletal)
middle 1/3 (skeletal and smooth)
inferior 1/3 (smooth)

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34
Q

what are the three phases of deglutition?

A

voluntary stage
pharyngeal stage
esophageal stage

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35
Q

what does the stomach connect?

A

the esophagus to the duodenum

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36
Q

what is gastroenterology?

A

a medical speciality that deals with the structure soft the stomach and intestine

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37
Q

what are the four parts f the stomach?

A

cardia
funds
body
pyloric

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38
Q

what are the three regions of the pyloric ?

A

pyloric antrum (connects the body to the stomach)
pyloric canal
pylorus (connects to duodenum)

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39
Q

what are rugae?

A

wrinkles in the stomach

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40
Q

what is another word for sphincter?

A

valve

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41
Q

what is the concave, medial border of the stomach called?
convex lateral border?

A

concave = lesser curvature
convex = greater curvature

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42
Q

what cells secrete mucus?

A

surface mucous and mucous neck cells

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43
Q

what do partial cells produce?

A

intrinsic factor (B12) and hydrochloric acid

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44
Q

what do chief cells secrete?

A

pepsinogen and gastric lipase

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45
Q

what are G cells?

A

found in the pyloric antrum and secrete gastrin into the blood stream

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46
Q

is the oblique layer limited to the body of the stomach?

A

yes

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47
Q

what is propulsion?

A

waves of movement causes gastric contents to move from the body of the stomach to the antrum

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48
Q

what is retropulsion?

A

when contents of the stomach are forced back into the body of the stomach

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49
Q

what is the soupy lipid of contents found in the stomach referred to?

A

chyme

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50
Q

When do proteins become digested?

A

in then stomach

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51
Q

what digest protein in the stomach?

A

pepsin

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52
Q

when is pepsin most effective?

A

acidic environment

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53
Q

what things only get absorbed in the stomach and no were else in the body?

A

aspirin and alcohol

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54
Q

where do most digestion and absorption take place?

A

small intestine

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55
Q

what three structures are found in the small intestine?

A

circular folds
villi
microvilli

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56
Q

what are the three divisions of the small intestine from top to bottom?

A

duodenum
jejunum
ileum

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57
Q

what valve divides the ileum from the large intestine?

A

ileocecal sphincter

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58
Q

what cells are present in the small intestine and are able to produce mucus?

A

goblet cells

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59
Q

what do paneth cells do?

A

secrete lysozyme

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60
Q

what are payers patches?

A

groups of lymphatic nodules present on the ileum

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61
Q

what are burners glands?

A

secrete an alkaline mucus that helps neutralize gustier acid in the chyme

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62
Q

what do circular folds do?

A

large folds which are found in the small intestine. they cause chyme to spiral rather than travel in a straight line to help with absorption level increase

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63
Q

what are villi?

A

finger-like projections
increase the surface area of the epithelium

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64
Q

what are microvilli?

A

projections small than villi which create a brush border which appears fuzzy

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65
Q

what is segmentation?

A

mixing contractions that occur in portions of the intestine distended by large volumes of chyme
they do not push

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66
Q

what is migrating motility complex?

A

at the end of the small intestine
push chyme forward to prevent drying out

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67
Q

what breaks down / digest carbohydrates?

A

pancreatic amylase

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68
Q

what is emulsification?

A

breaking down of large lipid globules into small forms

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69
Q

is bile hydrophobic or hydrophilic?

A

both

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70
Q

where is bile secreted from?

A

liver

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71
Q

what is absorption?

A

passage of digested nutrients from the gastrointestinal tracts to blood or lymph

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72
Q

what are chylomicrons?

A

large spherical masses about 80mm in diameter

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73
Q

what are “fat soluble” vitamins?

A

A D E K

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74
Q

how do these vitamins (fat-soluble) become absorbed?

A

simple diffusion

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75
Q

what are “water soluble” vitamins?

A

B C

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76
Q

how does B12 become absorbed?

A

active transport

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77
Q

how much water is found in faces a day?

A

0.1 L

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78
Q

what is the terminal portion of the GI tract?

A

large intestine

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79
Q

what are the four main regions of the large intestine?

A

cecum
colon
rectum
anal canal

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80
Q

what is the appendix?

A

a twisted, coiled tube attached the the cecum of the large intestine

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81
Q

what are the four areas of the colon in order?

A

ascending
transverse
descending
sigmoid

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82
Q

is the internal anal sphincter smooth or skeletal muscle based? external anal sphincter?

A

internal (smooth)
external (skeletal)

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83
Q

where would most bacteria removal take place?

A

large Intestine

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84
Q

what is the difference between diarrhea and constipation?

A

diarrhea (increased volume of water and movement)
constipation (decreased volume of water and movement)

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85
Q

why is fibre important?

A

reduces risk of obesity, diabetes, atherosclerosis, gallstones, and colon cancer

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86
Q

what is the cephalic phase?

A

activated by smell, taste, sight, or thought of food

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87
Q

what is the gastric phase?

A

hormone release to pre for food intake

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88
Q

what is the intestinal phase?

A

once food enters the small intestine

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89
Q

what two ducts are found in the pancreas?

A

accessory duct
pancreatic duct

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90
Q

describe the duct system of the pancreas

A

pancreatic duct is the largest
joins common bile duct from the liver and gallbladder to enter the duodenum
become the hepatopancreatic ampulla

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91
Q

what are acini?

A

found in the pancreas and for 99% of clusters cells

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92
Q

what are islets of langerhans?

A

the 1% of pancreas cells

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93
Q

what is the heaviest gland?

A

liver

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94
Q

what makes bile? stores bile?

A

produced via liver
stored via gallbladder

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95
Q

what ligament divides the right and left gallbladder?

A

falciform ligament

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96
Q

what is the hepatic portal circulation?

A

carries blood from the GI organs and spleen to the liver

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97
Q

what does the hepatic portal vein do?

A

carries blood to the liver

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98
Q

what makes the hepatic portal vein?

A

superior mesenteric vein
splenic vein

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99
Q

what makes up the portal triad?

A

hepatic artery
hepatic vein
bile duct

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100
Q

what are the functions s of the liver?

A

carb metabolism
lipid metabolism
protein metabolism
processing drugs and hormones
excretion of bilirubin
synthesis bile salt
storage
phagocytosis
vitamin activation

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101
Q

what is anorexia?

A

represent loss of appetite

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102
Q

what is anorexia nervosa?

A

an eating disorder characterized by low weight, fear of gaining weight, and a string desire to be thin, resulting in food restriction

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103
Q

what is nausea?

A

ill-defined and unpleasant subjective sensation
normally results in vomitting

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104
Q

why is nausea normally preceded by?

A

anorexia

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105
Q

what is retching?

A

rhythmic spasmodic movements of the diaphragm, Chets wall, and abdominal muscles

106
Q

what is another name for emesis?

A

vomitting

107
Q

what is vomitus?

A

contents resulted from vomitting

108
Q

what two centres are involved with vomtting?

A

vomiting centre
chemoreceptor trigger zone

109
Q

distention or irritation of the GI tract also causes vomiting through the stimulation of the _______ _______ ________.

A

visceral afferent neurons

110
Q

what hormones are found in the GI tract and in the vomiting centre or trigger zone?

A

dopamine
serotonin
opioid receptors

111
Q

what hormones help stabilize after motion sickness?

A

norepinephrine
acetylcholine receptors

112
Q

what is dysphagia?

A

difficulty in swallowing

113
Q

what is painful swallowing called?

A

odynophagia
dynophagia

114
Q

what is achalasia?

A

lower esophageal sphincter fails to relax because of a disruption in the input from ENS or the vagus nerve X

115
Q

what is pyrosis?

A

heartburn

116
Q

what can cause heartburn?

A

high fat diets increase chances
or gastric distention

117
Q

what is gastroesophageal reflex disease (GERD)?

A

symptoms or mucosal damage produces by the abnormal reflux of content beyond or into the esophagus and to the oral cavity and lungs

118
Q

what is two common manifestations of GERD?

A

heart burn
regurgitation (contents in the mouth or hypoarnyx)

119
Q

what are strictures?

A

combination of scar tissue and edema which narrows the esophagus

120
Q

what is gastritis?

A

inflammation of the gastric mucosa

121
Q

what is uraemia?

A

high uric in the blood

122
Q

what’s the difference between aspirin, alcohol, and infection acute gastritis?

A

aspirin = unaware
alcohol = vomiting, distress of gastric transient, bleeding and hematemesis
infection = violent symptoms

123
Q

what is the most common cause of chronic gastritis?

A

helicobacter pylori
produces enzymes that interfere with gastric acidity

124
Q

what is peptic ulcer disease?

A

a group of ulcerative disorders that occur in areas of the upper GI tract

125
Q

what are common forms of peptic ulcers?

A

duodenal (more common) and gastric ulcers

126
Q

what are the two medications that are common causes of bacteria H pylori?

A

aspirin
NSAIDS

127
Q

what are the manifestations of peptic ulcers?

A

burning or cramp-like pain when stomach is “empty”
pain relieves by food or antacids
pain over a small area near midline of xiphoid

128
Q

what is the most common complication of peptic ulcers?

A

hemorrhage
perforation
penatration
gastric obstruction

129
Q

what are stress ulcers?

A

GI ulcerations that develop in relation to major stress

130
Q

what are Cushing uclers?

A

another form of stress ulcers

131
Q

what is a functional GI disorder characterized by variable combination of chronic and recurrent intestinal symptoms not explained by any abnormality ?

A

irritable bowel syndrome

132
Q

what are the characterizers of IBS?

A

persistent or recurrent symptoms (pain, altered bowel function, bloating, nausea, anorexia)
the hallmark of IBS is abdominal pain which is relieved by defecation
change in consistency or frequency of stool

133
Q

what is the difference between crohn and ulcerative colitis?

A

crohns ( ucerataion in the lower ileum to upper colon)
colitis ( ulceration in the distal large intestine)

134
Q

what is worse crohn or colitis?

A

colitis

135
Q

what is the hallmark for colitis?

A

false urges

136
Q

what is the name of an out pouching in the body?

A

diverticulitis

137
Q

where are you most likely to develop a diverticulum?

A

sigmoid or descending colon

138
Q

how do you test for appendicitis?

A

perform rebound test
(between the ASIS and the umbilicals, place a fingertip pressure. pain should be present on compression and spastic on release)

139
Q

what is the difference between non-inflammatory and inflammatory diarrhea?

A

non-inflammatory (large volume) non bleeding
inflammatory (small volume) bleeding

140
Q

what can cause non inflammatory diarrhea?

A

E. coli. bacteria

141
Q

how long is acute v.s. chronic diarrhea?

A

acute 4 days
chronic 4 weeks

142
Q

what is volvulus?

A

twisting of the large intestine

143
Q

what is the most common genetic disorder?

A

celiac disease

144
Q

how much bile is produced daily?

A

600 - 1200 mL

145
Q

what is cholestasis?

A

decrease bile flow due to impaired secretion of hepatocytes or obstruction of bile ducts

146
Q

what is xanthomas?

A

fatty growths under the skin

147
Q

what is pruritus?

A

itching skin

148
Q

what happens when the body gets high levels of bilirubin in the blood?

A

skin turns yellow and develops jaundice

149
Q

what gives you bile colour?

A

bilirubin

150
Q

how does Jaundice occur?

A

excessive RBC destruction
obstruction of bile flow
impaired uptake/failure of the liver
decreased con junction go bilirubin

151
Q

what is hemolysis?

A

loss of red blood cells

152
Q

when does hemolytic jaundice occur?

A

excessive loss of RBC

153
Q

when is it common to develop jaundice?

A

at birth (hyperbilirubinemia)

154
Q

what two reactions do people have to hepatotoxic disorders?

A

phase 1 = chemical modifications
phase 2 = conversion of lipid-soluble substances

155
Q

which form of hepatitis is spread via fecal-oral route?

A

A
E

156
Q

what form of hepatitis is speards via blood or body fluids?

A

B
C

157
Q

which hepatitis is the most common to develop from needle sharing?

A

D

158
Q

can you spread hepatitis B without showing symptoms?

A

yes

159
Q

describe hepatitis D

A

delta virus
must have hepatitis B virus to develop

160
Q

what is superinfection hepatitis?

A

having B and D together

161
Q

what is the difference between LDL and HDL?

A

LDL (bad cholesterol)
HDL (good cholesterol)

162
Q

what is the role of HDL?

A

transports excess cholesterol to the liver

163
Q

what is cholecystjts?

A

inflammation of the gallbladder

164
Q

what are the phases of liver disease?

A

inflammation
fibrosis
cirrhosis
failure

165
Q

what organ is common effected by excessive alcohol intake?

A

liver

166
Q

what are the three kinds of alcohol-induced liver disease?

A

fatty liver
alcoholic hepatitis
alcoholic cerrhosis

167
Q

what is ascites?

A

accumulation of fluid In the abdominal cavity

168
Q

what is the most severe liver disease?

A

hepatic failure

169
Q

what is factor hepaticas?

A

musty, sweetish oder of the breath in patients with liver failure

170
Q

what is cholelithiasis?

A

gallstones

171
Q

what is cholecystitis?

A

inflammation of the gallbladder

172
Q

what is choledocholihiasis?

A

stones in the common bile duct

173
Q

what is cholangitis?

A

inflammation of the common bile duct

174
Q

what is the most common cause of chronic pancreatitis?

A

long term alcohol abuse

175
Q

what is metabolism?

A

chemical reactions that occur in the body

176
Q

what is the difference between catabolism and anabolism?

A

catabolism (chemical reactions that break down molecules)
anabolism (chemical reactions that combine simple molecules)

177
Q

what is the name for ATP?

A

adenosine triphosphate

178
Q

what make-up ATP?

A

ADP + P + energy

179
Q

what two ways is ATP released via metabolism?

A

used to break down or build compounds
released via heat

180
Q

what is oxidation reactions?

A

remove of electrons from an atom or molecule

181
Q

what things transfer coenzymes?

A

NAD
FAD

182
Q

what is reduction?

A

addition of electrons to a molecule

183
Q

what is phosphorylation?

A

additional adding of a phosphate group to help create ATP

184
Q

what are the functions of carbohydrates?

A

carbohydrates act as biofuel
functions as primary source of energy
functions in storage
framework for the body

185
Q

What does glucose do for the body?

A

ATP production
amino acid synthesis
glycogen synthesis
triglyceride synthesis

186
Q

what is the order of cellular respiration?

A

glycolysis
acetyl coenzyme A
kerb cycle
electron transport chain

187
Q

where does the kerb cycle take place?

A

mitochondria

188
Q

what is the difference between aerobic and anaerobic reactions?

A

aerobic requires oxygen
anaerobic requires no oxygen

189
Q

what is chemiosmosis?

A

acts as a proton pump to expel H+ for mitochondrial matrix

190
Q

what are the eight reactions of the kerb cycle?

A

entry of acetyl group
isomerization
oxidative decarboxylation
oxidative decarboxylation
substrate level of phosphorylation
dehydration
hydration
dehydrogenation

191
Q

what does glucose anabolism create?

A

glycogen (stored in the liver)

192
Q

what stimulates hepatocytes and skeletal muscles to carry out glycogen storage?

A

insulin

193
Q

how much can your body store of glycogen?

A

500g (75 % in muscles and the rest in the liver)

194
Q

what is the difference between glycogenolysis and glycogenesis?

A

glycogenolysis (spitting glycogen)
glycogenesis (creating glycogen)

195
Q

what stimulates synthesizing of glucose?

A

cortisol
glucagon
thyroid hormone

196
Q

what are lipoproteins?

A

allows lipids to become water soluble

197
Q

what are apoproteins?

A

proteins in the outer shell that allows lipoproteins to occur

198
Q

what are the four types of lipoproteins?

A

chylomicrons (small intestine)
VLDL (convert into LDL)
LDL (delivers to body cells for repair and synthesis steroids or proteins)
HDL (remove excess cholesterol of the body and blood)

199
Q

what is lipolysis?

A

breaking down into fatty acids and glycerols

200
Q

what inhibits lipolysis?

A

insulin

201
Q

what do beta oxidation do?

A

metabolic pathway
breaks down fatty acids into acetyl CoA enzyme
in mitochrondra

202
Q

where does protein catabolism take place?

A

adrenal cortex

203
Q

what is deamination?

A

removal of amino acid groups to produce ammonia

204
Q

what is the difference between kwashiorkor and marasmus?

A

kwashiorkor (deficiency of protein)

marasmus (progressive loss of muscle mass and fat stores because of inadequate food intake of proteins and clarions)

205
Q

what is the entry into the kerb cycle?

A

acetyl coenyzme A

206
Q

when does respiration occur?

A

when there is enough oxygen

207
Q

what is the abortive state?

A

ingested nutrients enter the blood stream

208
Q

what is the post-absorptive state?

A

absorption of nutrients in GI tract is complete

209
Q

how long does a meal need to be completely reabsorbed?

A

4 hours

210
Q

what is the bodies main source of energy?

A

glucose

211
Q

where are most dietary lipids stored?

A

adipose tissue

212
Q

what is lipogensis?

A

converting glucose and amino acids to fatty acids for synthesis of triglycerides

213
Q

where does glycogenesis take place?

A

hepatocytes and muscle fibres

214
Q

where does lipogenesis take place?

A

adipose cells and hepatocytes

215
Q

what is the main challenge of the post absorptive state?

A

maintain blood glucose levels

216
Q

what is glucose sparing?

A

when the body switches its main source of energy from glucose

217
Q

what reactions occur due to glucose sparing?

A

catabolism of fatty acids
catabolism of lactic acid
catabolism of amino acids
catabolism of ketone bodies

218
Q

what is the difference between fasting and starvation?

A

fasting (going without food for many hours to a few days)
starvation (going weeks or months without little or inadequate food intake)

219
Q

what is a dramatic metabolic change that occurs in starvation?

A

ketone bodies become the main source of energy

220
Q

what is the overall rate at which metabolic reactions use energy?

A

metabolic rate

221
Q

what is the body’s quiet, resting, and fasting condition?

A

basal state

222
Q

What is the measurement obtained under these conditions if fasting and starvation?

A

basal metabolic rate

223
Q

what things effect metabolic rate?

A

hormones
exercise
nervous systen
body temperature
ingestion
age
other

224
Q

what region of the World would greatly affect metabolic rates?

A

increase in norther areas of the world

225
Q

what are the four heat transfers?

A

conduction (heat exchange between molecules of two materials)
convection ( movement of fluids between areas)
radiation ( transfer in the form of rays without physical touch)
evaporation (liquid to air)

226
Q

what form of heat transfer do humans lose most their heat to?

A

radiation and evaporation (movements)

227
Q

what area of the Brian controls body temperature?

A

preoptic area or thalamus

228
Q

how does the thermoregulatory work?

A

vasoconstriction to keep heat inside the body
release of epinephrine and norepinephrine (increases heat production)
shivering to increase muscles tone and heat production
thyroid hormones rise temp.

229
Q

what degree does it have to be to experience hypothermia?

A

35C or below internal body temp

230
Q

what is a calorie?

A

amount of energy in the form of heat required to raise temp. 1 gram of water 1 degree

231
Q

what things contribute to total metabolic rate?

A

basal metabolic rate
physical activities
NEAT
food-induced temperature

232
Q

what is the difference between leptin and adiposity?

A

leptin (product of obesity)
adiposity (total body fat)

233
Q

what is involved I’m the regulation of food intake and increases appetite?

A

ghrelin

234
Q

what does the following do for satiety?
neuropeptide Y
melanocrotin

A

neuropeptide Y (stimulates food intake)
melanocortin (inhibits food intake)

235
Q

what are the main types of nutrients?

A

water
carbohydrates
lipids
proteins
minerals
vitamins

236
Q

how many extra calories does a women need an extra amount during pregnancy?
when breastfeeding?

A

300
500

237
Q

what are inorganic elements?

A

minerals

238
Q

what does the following do for the body?
calcium
chloride
cobalt
copper
fluoride
iodine

A

calcium (bone formation and maintenance)
chloride (pH stomach regulation)
cobalt (RBC maintenance)
copper (catalyst for hemoglobin)
fluoride (strengthen teeth and bones)
iodine (thyroid hormone synthesis)

239
Q

what does the following do for the body?
iron
magnesium
phosphate
potassium
sodium
zinc

A

iron (kills bacteria)
magnesium (catalyst for intracellular nerve impulses)
phosphate (bone formation and maintenance)
potassium (osmolarity mainatenacene)
sodium (osmotic pressure)
zinc (enzymes)

240
Q

what are organic compounds that acts as a catalyst for chemical reactions?

A

vitamins

241
Q

do vitamins create angry?

A

not directly

242
Q

what are provitamins?

A

raw materials

243
Q

what vitamin is produced in the GI?

A

K

244
Q

what does vitamin A do?

A

provides night vision

245
Q

what are antioxidants vitamins?

A

C E and beta carotene

246
Q

what are dextrins?

A

short-chain fatty acids absorbed by the GI tracks

247
Q

what does fibre help with?

A

reduces the risk of colon cancer
general health benefits
reduces cardiovascular disease
controls weight
controls constipation and diarrhoea
prevents hemorrhoids

248
Q

what are some soluble fibres?

A

fruits, oats, barley, legumes

249
Q

what are some insoluble fibres?

A

vegetables, wheats, grains

250
Q

what is genetically modified food?

A

food modified by genetic manipulation

251
Q

what is MSG?

A

a flavour enhancer

252
Q

what are excitoxins?

A

a form of glutamic acid that has high levels in animal studies causing damge to areas of the brain and the BBB

253
Q

what does refined food cause?

A

increased blood sugar and can lead to fasr growing cancer as well as increase chances of diabtets

254
Q

what are phytochemicals?

A

produced by plants

255
Q

descibre the following:
allyl sulfides
dithiolthione and isothiocynates
indoles
isoflavones
lignans
flavonoids
carotenoids

A

allyl sulfides (help eliminate toxin compounds)
dithiolthione and isothiocynates (helps detoxify carcinogens)
indoles (interferes with estrogen metabolism)
isoflavones (affects cancer risk)
lignans (anti-estrogen)
flavonoids (antioxidants and hormal properties)
carotenoids (gives plants thier pigment)

256
Q

what vitamins should men and womne over 60 take?

A

vitamin D

257
Q

what two things should all pregnant women take?

A

folic acid and iron

258
Q

what is the difference between priamry and secondary starvation?

A

priamry = inadequate food intake
secondary = diseas conditions that cause tissue wasting

259
Q

what is the difference between android and gynoid obesity?

A

android (apple shaped, more common in men)
gynoid (oear shaped, more common in women)

260
Q

what is pica?

A

craving non nutritive foods such as paint or feces

Module 8 (12 decks)

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