PYSC 100 EXAM 1

Question 1

Describe how scientific research has changed the world.

Answer 1

Scientific research has changed the world with the gain of knowledge and behaviour of the human body.

impact on medical fields, food and agriculture, social sciences, and communications

Question 2

Describe the key characteristics of the scientific approach.

Answer 2

1. Systematic observation
   Core of science
   Means the phenomenon we observe
   Was systematic due to trying to observe in control conditions
   because we are able to see various phenom and understand when they do and don’t occur
2. Observation leads to the hypothesis we consist
   We take theories and hypnosis and test them
3. Science is democratic
   Science is open-minded
   Foes off of discussions, theories and observation
   Best argument wins
4. Science is cumulative
   We learn from the past and build for the future.

Question 3

Discuss a few of the benefits as well as problems that have been created by science

Answer 3

Pros- informs public policy and personal decisions on energy, conservation, agriculture, health, transportation, communication, defence, economics, leisure, and exploration

Con- Science was not always has ethical has it is now, and held a bias on certain groups too.

Question 4

Describe how psychology science has improved the world

Answer 4

To help people create lives for themselves
they have created a more productive and satisfaction

Question 5

Discuss a number of ethical guidelines that psychologists follow.

Answer 5

1. Informed consent
   -they should know what study they are in and have a choice to partake in it
2. Confidentiality
   wha t research lean should not be public without consent
3. Privacy
   Should not take place in a private area without consent
4. Befnits
   Consider the benefits and risk of the experiment
5. Deception
   They have to hide some face about their study for the participants to learn.

Question 6

Compare and contrast conclusions based on scientific and everyday inductive reasoning

Answer 6

Everyday inductive reasoning uses “common sense/knowledge” rather than data and research to back up the claim

Question 7

Understand why scientific conclusions and theories are trustworthy, even if they are not able to be proven.

Answer 7

Scientific conclusions are trustworthy because is are data that was collected, and when it was wrong, a discovery was made, but just in a different form.

Question 8

Articulate what it means to think like a psychological scientist, considering qualities of good scientific explanations and theories.

Answer 8

• You need a hypothesis/ theory,
• You need to think of every possibility for questions and reason why it did not work
• You need to collect data

Question 9

Discuss science as a social activity, comparing and contrasting facts and values.

Answer 9

Facts are the data collected from research, and values are the beliefs

Question 10

Describe the precursors to the establishment of the science of psychology.

Answer 10

Philopther John Lock and Thomas Reid
How the mind comes with acquired knowledge
Herman von Helmholtz
physiologist –explored the psychology of hearing and version
Wilhelm Wundt
Promote psychology in experimental field by providing textbooks, classes, and lab training

Question 11

Identify key individuals and events in the history of American psychology.

Answer 11

Brod Ticherner – brought structuralism over to America
Focus on the adult mind (leaving out women and children and animals)
William James – founder of functionalism
Wrote principles of psychology (most important in psychology).
G. Stanglt Hall – FOunded the first psychology lab and journal
James Cattell – study individual differences
Max Wertherinaer – Gestalt psychology
Skinner and Watson – Behaviourism
Pavlov – Classical conditioning
Frederic C. Bartelt – explored to constructive mind
Wilhelm Waunt – founder of clinical and school psychology

Question 12

Describe the rise of professional psychology in America.

Answer 12

Wasn’t limited to metal testing by applied in different settings ( business, industry, military, etc)
1917 the first look at training psychology
After WW2 – increase for mental health providers
Boulder conferences – doctoral training
Cail conferences – Psy. D. degree

Question 13

Recognize the role of women and people of color in the history of American psychology.

Answer 13

Margaret Washburn 00 first woman in American to earn a Ph.D. in psychology (second woman president of APA)

Mary Callions – studied with James but was not granted her a Ph.D. due to being a woman (first women president of APA)

Franci Cecil Summer – first POC to earn a Ph.D. in psychology

Mamie and Kenneth Clark – study the effect segregation had on black children in school – study helped end segregation
Evening Hooker – wrote The Adustrant of the Male Ouvert Homosexual” to help removed homosexuality from the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Health Disorders

Question 14

Type II error

Answer 14

In statistics, the error of failing to reject the null hypothesis when it is false.

false negative
(e.g. you think the building is not on fire, and stay inside, but it is burning)

Question 15

Type I error

Answer 15

In statistics, the error of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true.
false positive

e.g. convict someone of a crime when they are actually innocent.

or
the test result says you have coronavirus, but you actually don’t.

Question 16

Systematic observation

Answer 16

the careful observation of the natural world with the aim of better understanding it.

Observations provide the basic data that allow scientists to track, tally, or otherwise organize information about the natural world.

THE KEY OF SCIENCE

Question 17

Empirical methods

Answer 17

Approaches to inquiry that are tied to actual measurement and observation.

Question 18

Anecdotal evidence

Answer 18

A piece of biased evidence, usually drawn from personal experience, used to support a conclusion that may or may not be correct.

Question 19

Causality

Answer 19

In research, the determination that one variable causes—is responsible for—an effect.

Question 20

Empirical

Answer 20

Concerned with observation and/or the ability to verify a claim.

Question 21

Falsify

Answer 21

In science, the ability of a claim to be tested and—possibly—refuted; a defining feature of science.

Question 22

Null-hypothesis significance testing (NHST)

Answer 22

In statistics, a test created to determine the chances that an alternative hypothesis would produce a result as extreme as the one observed if the null hypothesis were actually true.

Question 23

Inductive reasoning

Answer 23

A form of reasoning in which a general conclusion is inferred from a set of observations (e. g., noting that “the driver in that car was texting; he just cut me off then ran a red light!” (a specific observation), which leads to the general conclusion that texting while driving is dangerous).

Question 24

Generalize

Answer 24

In research, the degree to which one can extend conclusions drawn from the findings of a study to other groups or situations not included in the study.

Question 25

Define the basic elements of a statistical investigation.

Answer 25

1. Planning the study: ask testable questions and pick a way to collect data (quant or qual)
2. Examining data: appropriate ways to examine data, is the data reliability and validity
3. inferring from the data: valid statistical methods for drawing inferences “beyond” the data you collected?
4. Drawing conclusions: does your conclusions apply to cause-and-effect

Question 26

Describe the role of p-values and confidence intervals in statistical inference.

Answer 26

The p-values are to determine the probability of obsession in a sample

the confidence interval is an inferential statistic - not a descriptive statistic. As such it should only be used if certain assumptions (random sampling and normal distribution) are met.

Question 27

Describe the role of random sampling in generalizing conclusions from a sample to a population.

Answer 27

Random sampling is a way to represent a population on equal terms so anyone has a chance to be picked.

It is being able to take a small group’s information and apply it on a bigger scale of the population.

Question 28

Describe the role of random assignment in drawing cause-and-effect conclusions.

Answer 28

Random assignment is a probability method to divide samples into treatment groups.

random assignment tends to balance out all the variables related to creativity we can think of, and even those we don’t think of in advance, between the two groups.

Everything is equal and fair (both me and women are split equally in two sides both having the same numbers of genders

Question 29

Critique statistical studies.

Answer 29

Whereas a statistical analysis can still “adjust” for other potential confounding variables, we are not yet convinced that researchers have identified them all or completely isolated why this decrease in death risk is evident

Question 30

Articulate the difference between correlational and experimental designs.

Answer 30

In an experimental design, you manipulate an independent variable and measure its effect on a dependent variable.

Other variables are controlled so they can’t impact the results.

In a correlational design, you measure variables without manipulating any of them.

Question 31

Understand how to interpret correlations.

Answer 31

Positive correlation = two variables going up and down together

Negative correlation =one of the two variables moving in opposite directions

A strong correlation the two variables
always, or almost always, go together.

Correlation does not mean causation

Question 32

Understand how experiments help us to infer causality.

Answer 32

they let you control your conditions

Question 33

Explain what a longitudinal study is.

Answer 33

It’s a study that tracks people over a period of time, which could be days, weeks, years, or decades.

It provides valid info for theories but takes a long time.

Question 34

Gestalt Psychology

Answer 34

looking at the experience as a whole, believe you processed it simultaneously (not bit by bit) so you shouldn’t break it down

Question 35

Probability value (p-value)

Answer 35

probability that results occurred by chance and are not correlated

Question 36

Objective

Answer 36

unbiased, fact

Question 37

Subjective

Answer 37

biased, opinionated

Question 38

List a strength and weakness of different research designs

Answer 38

Ablt to get validity and reality on your theories
The amount of time it takes and how ethics comes into play.

Question 39

Compare the strengths and limitations of “real-world” research and laboratory research

Answer 39

“Real-world” research- harder to establish causality, but more ecological validity because you found reflects real life and not a lab setting.
Laboratory research- easier to establish causality, but less ecological validity. What you find reflects lab settings, but sometimes not the real world.

Question 40

Summarize some of the studies about daily experience (virtual and in-person), behavior (virtual and in-person), and physiology that are described in the reading assignment.

Answer 40

Tracking positive and negative experiences before a respiratory infection, and they found that negative experiences peaked 4 days before the cold showed symptoms.
Tracking using smartphones showed that people are happier when they are focused on a task.
Using EAR, they studied how talkative people are. And found that although Americans rate themselves on average more talkative then Mexicans rate themselves, Mexicans on average talk more than Americans every day.
Using EAR, they found that men and women are not significantly more talkative than each other.
Using Ambulatory assessment to show that people respond more intensely to real life stress than to laboratory created stress.
Using Ambulatory assessment to show that emotions can negatively impact the hearts of those with heart conditions.
Looking at blog posts, and figuring out that people changed how they talked in the 2 weeks after 9/11, but that after 2 weeks went by, people began talking the same as they did before it occurred.
Looking at blog posts, and seeing that people were very engaged in the conversation surrounding 9/11 for the 2 weeks after it occurred, but by 6 weeks after, they were not engaged.
Showing that people who have an “I voted” sticker on Facebook actually influenced their friends to vote.

Question 41

Explain ways in which daily life research can further psychological science.

Answer 41

That way, researchers get a snapshot of what was going on in participants’ lives at the time at which they were asked to report.

Question 42

Understand how to interpret correlations.

Answer 42

A positive correlation is if they both go up or down together, the absolute value will be a bigger number the stronger it is
A negative correlation is when they go in the opposite direction

Question 43

Confounds

Answer 43

Factors that undermine the ability to draw causal inferences from an experiment.

Question 44

Random sampling

Answer 44

randomly select people from the population

Question 45

Random assignment

Answer 45

Assigning participants to receive different conditions of an experiment by chance.

Question 46

Dependent variable

Answer 46

The variable the researcher measures but does not manipulate in an experiment.

Question 47

Independent variable

Answer 47

The variable the researcher manipulates and controls in an experiment.

Question 48

List the characteristics of experimental (i.e., true experimental and quasi-experimental) and correlational/non-experimental (i.e., surveys, interviews, focus groups, qualitative) designs, and then compare the strengths and weaknesses of each.

Answer 48

Experimental- researchers actively make changes in one variable and see how it affects a second variable. Allows researchers to make causal inferences, but takes more planning than observational studies. Can have multiple independent variables.
Quasi-experiment- for some reason in the experiment you can’t do random assignment (ex. you want to study depression in middle schoolers and high schoolers, you can’t assign groups), so experimenter has less control over independent variable

Correlational/Observational- researches measure variables as they naturally occur in people, and compute the degree to which the variables go together. Easier to perform, and take less planning than experiments, but do not lead to causal inferences. Cannot experiment on more than 1 variable.

Question 49

Daily Diary method

Answer 49

A methodology where participants complete a questionnaire about their thoughts, feelings, and behavior of the day at the end of the day.

Question 50

Day reconstruction method (DRM)

Answer 50

A methodology where participants describe their experiences and behavior of a given day retrospectively upon a systematic reconstruction on the following d

Question 51

Generalizability (or generalize)

Answer 51

Generalizing, in science, refers to the ability to arrive at broad conclusions based on a smaller sample of observations. For these conclusions to be true the sample should accurately represent the larger population from which it is drawn.

Question 52

Ecological validity

Answer 52

The degree to which a study finding has been obtained under conditions that are typical for what happens in everyday life.

Question 53

Electronically activated recorder, or EAR

Answer 53

A methodology where participants wear a small, portable audio recorder that intermittently records snippets of ambient sounds around them.

Question 54

Full-cycle psychology

Answer 54

A scientific approach whereby researchers start with an observational field study to identify an effect in the real world, follow up with laboratory experimentation to verify the effect and isolate the causal mechanisms, and return to field research to corroborate their experimental findings.

Question 55

Internal validity

Answer 55

The degree to which a cause-effect relationship between two variables has been unambiguously established.

Question 56

White coat hypertension

Answer 56

A phenomenon in which patients exhibit elevated blood pressure in the hospital or doctor’s office but not in their everyday lives.

Question 57

Day reconstruction method

Answer 57

A methodology where participants describe their experiences and behavior of a given day retrospectively upon a systematic reconstruction on the following day.

Question 58

Explain how methods, such as momentary self-reports, electronically activated radar (EAR), day reconstruction method (DRM), daily diary method, and ambulatory assessment, are used to collect data from study participants in their normal environments, and list the distinguishing features of each method .

Answer 58

Momentary self-reports- People have to frequently reply to questionnaires on a set schedule throughout their daily lives. Gathers lots of information, but intrusive, and you can’t be sure people filled them out on time.
EAR is when participants wear a small recording device that intermittently records sounds throughout their day.
DRM is when the participants describe their day retrospectively.
Daily diary method is when participants answer a questionnaire about their thoughts and feelings at the end of the day.

Question 59

Describe why a participant’s self-reported data sometimes differs from what researchers observe.

Answer 59

Because sometimes people can’t or don’t want to accurately report stuff about themselves, sometimes can be subconsciously

Question 60

Linguistic inquiry and word count

Answer 60

A quantitative text analysis methodology that automatically extracts grammatical and psychological information from a text by counting word frequencies.

Question 61

Explain the process for testing the scientific validity of a claim. Include the following terms in your description: correlation, null-hypothesis significance testing, null hypothesis, alternative hypothesis, p-value, and type I and type II errors.

Answer 61

To study a claim, we must look at the correlation between the variables in the claim. You use null-hypothesis significance testing. First, get a null hypothesis, and its connected alternative hypothesis. Then, gather all data, and get a p-value, and make a claim based upon the size of your p-value. If you have a false positive, you have made a type 1 error. If you have a false negative, you have made a type 2 error.

Question 62

Explain why falsifiability is so important in scientific study.

Answer 62

Explain why falsifiability is so important in scientific study.

Question 63

Explain Karl Popper’s great contribution to science.

Answer 63

Science can be distinguished from everyday science because it can be falsifiable

Question 64

Compare and contrast the term “theory” when used in scientific and everyday contexts.

Answer 64

everyday contexts- theory is an “educated guess”
scientific contexts- theory is an explanation of observed phenomena that is empirically well-supported

Question 65

Identify some limitations in the study of psychology, and explain why there has been skepticism about psychology as a science

Answer 65

.Identify some limitations in the study of psychology, and explain why there has been skepticism about psychology as a science.

Question 66

Describe what is meant by “nature”, what is meant by “nurture.”

Answer 66

Nature- our inborn characteristics. It is our behaviors, and patterns which come from our genetics.
Nurture- The characteristics we learn throughout our lives. It is the things that we are taught in life.

Question 67

Describe what makes nature-nurture questions so difficult to answer.

Answer 67

The two pieces are directly intertwined, and separating them is basically impossible in most instances. It’s hard to figure out the exact degree to which each one plays a part, and usually multiple genes affect one trait. And, you can’t perform a controlled experiment to make certain people have and raise children for science.

Question 68

Describe the goal of behavioral genetics and some examples of how both nature and nurture contribute to traits.

Answer 68

To study of genes and environment combine to generate behavior, ex. violin playing, having good fingers to play with is nature, but practice is nurture, and perfect pitch is both.

Question 69

Explain the types of questions that can be answered with adoption and twin studies, and list the the pros and cons for each.

Answer 69

Adoption studies - When a child is put up for adoption, researchers follow up to see what kind of characteristics the child has with the birth parents, and what is similar to their adoptive parents.
Twin Studies - Researchers study identical and fraternal twins, to see what things are similar and different between the two types, because fraternal twins have different DNA, which identical twins have the same DNA.

Question 70

Know the major research designs that can be used to study nature–nurture questions.

Answer 70

Dizygotic twins, Monozygotic twins, Twin studies, Adoption studies

Question 71

Dizygotic twins

Answer 71

“fraternal” twins, develop from two zygotes and share 50% of their DNA

Question 72

Monozygotic twins

Answer 72

“identical” twins, result from a single zygote (fertilized egg) and have the same DNA

Question 73

Twin studies

Answer 73

A behavior genetic research method that involves comparison of the similarity of identical (monozygotic; MZ) and fraternal (dizygotic; DZ) twins.

Question 74

Adoption studies

Answer 74

A behavior genetic research method that involves comparison of adopted children to their adoptive and biological parents.

Question 75

Explain what the heritability coefficient is and some of its pitfalls.

Answer 75

A number from 0 to 1 which tries to tell us how strongly a gene influences a certain trait. They also treat the environment and genes are completely separate things, and ignores the ways that they may interact.

Question 76

Describe the goal of behavioral genetics and some examples of how both nature and nurture contribute to traits.

Answer 76

To study of genes and environment combine to generate behavior, ex. violin playing, having good fingers to play with is nature, but practice is nurture, and perfect pitch is both.

Question 77

Quantitative genetics

Answer 77

Scientific and mathematical methods for inferring genetic and environmental processes based on the degree of genetic and environmental similarity among organisms.

Question 78

Evolution

Answer 78

Change over time. Is the definition changing?

Question 79

Define the primary mechanisms by which evolution takes place.

Answer 79

natural selection, adaptations, sexual selection

Question 80

Define sexual selection and its two primary processes.

Answer 80

The evolution of characteristics is because of the mating advantage they give organisms.

intrasexual competition
A process of sexual selection by which members of one sex compete with each other, and the victors gain preferential mating access to members of the opposite sex.

intersexual selection
A process of sexual selection by which evolution (change) occurs as a consequence of the mate preferences of one sex exerting selection pressure on members of the opposite sex.

Question 81

adaptations

Answer 81

Evolved solutions to problems that historically contributed to reproductive success

Question 82

natural selection

Answer 82

Differential reproductive success as a consequence of differences in heritable attributes

Question 83

Gene Selection Theory

Answer 83

The modern theory of evolution by selection by which differential gene replication is the defining process of evolutionary change.

Question 84

psychological adaptations:

Answer 84

Mechanisms of the mind that evolved to solve specific problems of survival or reproduction; conceptualized as information processing devices.

Question 85

the core premises of sexual strategies theory.

Answer 85

Sexual strategies theory is based on sexual selection theory. It proposes that humans have evolved a list of different mating strategies, both short-term and long-term, that vary depending on culture, social context, parental influence, and personal mate value (desirability in the “mating market”).

It started by looking at the minimum parental investment needed to produce a child. For women, even the minimum investment is significant: after becoming pregnant, they have to carry that child for nine months inside of them. For men, on the other hand, the minimum investment to produce the same child is considerably smaller—simply the act of sex.

Question 86

Identify the core premises of error management theory (EMT), and provide two empirical examples of adaptive cognitive biases.

Answer 86

A theory of selection under conditions of uncertainty in which recurrent cost asymmetries of judgment or inference favor the evolution of adaptive cognitive biases that function to minimize the more costly errors.
It helps us be safe from harm

Example one:
You hear a rustle in the leaves on the path in front of you. It could be a snake.
Example two:
the auditory looming bias: Have you ever noticed how an ambulance seems closer when it’s coming toward you, but suddenly seems far away once it’s immediately passed? With the auditory looming bias, people overestimate how close objects are when the sound is moving toward them compared to when it is moving away from them

Question 87

Explain what the term epigenetics means and the molecular machinery involved.

Answer 87

epigenetics — The study of heritable changes in gene expression or cellular phenotype caused by mechanisms other than changes in the underlying DNA sequence. Epigenetic marks include covalent DNA modifications and posttranslational histone modifications.

Question 88

Name and discuss important neural and developmental pathways that are regulated by epigenetic factors, and provide examples of epigenetic effects on personality traits and cognitive behavior.

Answer 88

-DNA methylation: process in which methyl groups are added to a DNA molecule, the effect depends on the stage of development and location of the cytosine it binds too, but usually results in silencing or reduced gene expression, powerful regulatory method
Acetylation of histones: process of introducing an acetyl group, generally associated with DNA de-methylation and gene expression
-nutrients can affect these processes
-these can be crucial for the development of mature neural networks that support emotional, cognitive, and social behaviour

EXAMPLES
- methylation of the glucocorticoid receptor may be an early epigenetic marker of hormonal activity
-increased methylation of this receptor causes a reduced expression which can increase hormonal stress response
-DNA methylation has been implicated in the maintenance of long term memories
-changes in histone modification can influence long term memory by altering chromatin accessibility

Question 89

how misregulation of epigenetic mechanisms can lead to disease states, and be able to discuss examples.

Answer 89

-events that alter chromatin structure to regulate programs of gene expression can lead to symptoms of depression

Question 90

Recognize how epigenetic machinery can be targets for therapeutic agents, and discuss examples.

Answer 90

-epigenetic DNA modifications have been discovered that may overcome long-lasting effects of environment on behaviour

Question 91

DNA methyltransferases (DNMTs)

Answer 91

Enzymes that establish and maintain DNA methylation using methyl-group donor compounds or cofactors. The main mammalian DNMTs are DNMT1, which maintains methylation state across DNA replication, and DNMT3a and DNMT3b, which perform de novo methylation.

Question 92

DNA methylation

Answer 92

Covalent modifications of mammalian DNA occurring via the methylation of cytosine, typically in the context of the CpG dinucleotide.

Question 93

Gene

Answer 93

A specific deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) sequence that codes for a specific polypeptide or protein or an observable inherited trait.

Question 94

Phenotype

Answer 94

The pattern of expression of the genotype or the magnitude or extent to which it is observably expressed—an observable characteristic or trait of an organism, such as its morphology, development, biochemical or physiological properties, or behavior.

Question 95

Histone modifications

Answer 95

Posttranslational modifications of the N-terminal “tails” of histone proteins that serve as a major mode of epigenetic regulation. These modifications include acetylation, phosphorylation, methylation, sumoylation, ubiquitination, and ADP-ribosylation.

Question 96

Histone acetyltransferases (HATs) and histone deacetylases (HDACs)
HATs are enzymes that transfer acetyl groups to specific positions on histone tails, promoting an “open” chromatin state and transcriptional activation. HDACs remove these acetyl groups, resulting in a “closed” chromatin state and transcriptional repression.

Answer 96

HATs are enzymes that transfer acetyl groups to specific positions on histone tails, promoting an “open” chromatin state and transcriptional activation. HDACs remove these acetyl groups, resulting in a “closed” chromatin state and transcriptional repression.

Question 97

what kinds of activities constitute learning.

Answer 97

-most things we do we are learning from

Question 98

Name multiple forms of learning.

Answer 98

• perceptual learning: our perception changes as function of experience
  -implicit learning: when we inquire information without intent we can easily express
  -non-associative learning: single repeated exposure leads to changes in behaviour

Question 99

List some individual differences that affect learning.

Answer 99

-anxiety
-working memory
-organization and planning skills
-ability to access information
-how we chunk information: a process of grouping information together

Question 100

Describe the effect of various encoding activities on learning.

Answer 100

-how we learn things plays a large role
-restudying helps people to learn more
-repetition is important and spacing things out
-practice testing yourself

Question 101

Describe three general principles of learning.

Answer 101

-metacognition: describes the knowledge and skills people have in controlling their own learning
-transfer-appropriate processing: memory performance is superior when the test taps the same cognitive process as the original encoding activity
-the value of forgetting: slow learning leads to superior learning

Question 102

Chunk

Answer 102

The process of grouping information together using our knowledge.

Question 103

Classical conditioning

Answer 103

The procedure in which an initially neutral stimulus (the conditioned stimulus, or CS) is paired with an unconditioned stimulus (or US). The result is that the conditioned stimulus begins to elicit a conditioned response (CR). Classical conditioning is nowadays considered important as both a behavioral phenomenon and as a method to study simple associative learning. Same as Pavlovian conditioning.

Question 104

Encoding

Answer 104

The pact of putting information into memory.

Question 105

Habituation

Answer 105

Occurs when the response to a stimulus decreases with exposure.

Question 106

Implicit learning

Answer 106

Occurs when we acquire information without intent that we cannot easily express.

Question 107

Implicit memory

Answer 107

A type of long-term memory that does not require conscious thought to encode. It’s the type of memory one makes without intent.

Question 108

Incidental learning vs. Intentional learning

Answer 108

Incidental learning
Any type of learning that happens without the intention to learn.

vs.

Intentional learning
Any type of learning that happens when motivated by intention.

Question 109

Metacognition

Answer 109

Describes the knowledge and skills people have in monitoring and controlling their own learning and memory.

Question 110

Nonassociative learning

Answer 110

Occurs when a single repeated exposure leads to a change in behavior.

Question 111

Operant conditioning

Answer 111

Describes stimulus-response associative learning.

Question 112

Sensitization

Answer 112

Occurs when the response to a stimulus increases with exposure

Question 113

Transfer-appropriate processing

Answer 113

A principle that states that memory performance is superior when a test taps the same cognitive processes as the original encoding activity.

Question 114

Working memory

Answer 114

The form of memory we use to hold onto information temporarily, usually for the purposes of manipulation.

Question 115

Distinguish between classical (Pavlovian) conditioning and instrumental (operant) conditioning.

Answer 115

-classical conditioning: is a stimulus-stimulus-based learning, neutral stimuli are associated with significant events
operant conditioning: behaviour is associated with an event, involves voluntary behaviour

Question 116

Understand how they work separately and together to influence human behavior in the world outside the laboratory.

Answer 116

-flavours of food: food with certain nutrients can be preferred without us being aware
-taste aversion conditioning: foods associated with sickness makes the organism dislike that taste in the future
-fear conditioning: certain stimulus causing fright
-conditioned compensatory response: functions to reduce the strength of the unconditioned response, conditioned response that opposes the unconditioned response
-reinforcing of behaviour depends on the outcome that the person receives (student going to a bar then failing a test, they are less likely to go to the bar)

Question 117

list the four aspects of observational learning according to Social Learning Theory.

Answer 117

-social learning theory: proposes people learn new responses and behaviours by observing others
-attention
-retention
-initiation
-motivation

Question 118

Blocking

Answer 118

In classical conditioning, the finding that no conditioning occurs to a stimulus if it is combined with a previously conditioned stimulus during conditioning trials. Suggests that information, surprise value, or prediction error is important in conditioning.

Question 119

Conditioned compensatory response

Answer 119

In classical conditioning, a conditioned response that opposes, rather than is the same as, the unconditioned response. It functions to reduce the strength of the unconditioned response. Often seen in conditioning when drugs are used as unconditioned stimuli.

Question 120

Conditioned response (CR)

Answer 120

The response that is elicited by the conditioned stimulus after classical conditioning has taken place.

Question 121

Conditioned stimulus (CS)

Answer 121

An initially neutral stimulus (like a bell, light, or tone) that elicits a conditioned response after it has been associated with an unconditioned stimulus.

Question 122

Discriminative stimulus

Answer 122

In operant conditioning, a stimulus that signals whether the response will be reinforced. It is said to “set the occasion” for the operant response.

Question 123

Extinction

Answer 123

Decrease in the strength of a learned behavior that occurs when the conditioned stimulus is presented without the unconditioned stimulus (in classical conditioning) or when the behavior is no longer reinforced (in instrumental conditioning). The term describes both the procedure (the US or reinforcer is no longer presented) as well as the result of the procedure (the learned response declines). Behaviors that have been reduced in strength through extinction are said to be “extinguished.”

Question 124

Fear conditioning

Answer 124

A type of classical or Pavlovian conditioning in which the conditioned stimulus (CS) is associated with an aversive unconditioned stimulus (US), such as a foot shock. As a consequence of learning, the CS comes to evoke fear. The phenomenon is thought to be involved in the development of anxiety disorders in humans.

Question 125

Habit

Answer 125

Instrumental behavior that occurs automatically in the presence of a stimulus and is no longer influenced by the animal’s knowledge of the value of the reinforcer. Insensitive to the reinforcer devaluation effect.

Question 126

Law of effect

Answer 126

The idea that instrumental or operant responses are influenced by their effects. Responses that are followed by a pleasant state of affairs will be strengthened and those that are followed by discomfort will be weakened. Nowadays, the term refers to the idea that operant or instrumental behaviors are lawfully controlled by their consequences.

Question 127

Prediction error

Answer 127

When the outcome of a conditioning trial is different from that which is predicted by the conditioned stimuli that are present on the trial (i.e., when the US is surprising). Prediction error is necessary to create Pavlovian conditioning (and associative learning generally). As learning occurs over repeated conditioning trials, the conditioned stimulus increasingly predicts the unconditioned stimulus, and prediction error declines. Conditioning works to correct or reduce prediction error.

Question 128

Reinforcer

Answer 128

Any consequence of a behavior that strengthens the behavior or increases the likelihood that it will be performed it again.

Question 129

Unconditioned response (UR)

Answer 129

In classical conditioning, an innate response that is elicited by a stimulus before (or in the absence of) conditioning.

Question 130

Unconditioned stimulus (US)

Answer 130

In classical conditioning, the stimulus that elicits the response before conditioning occurs.

Question 131

Vicarious reinforcement

Answer 131

Learning that occurs by observing the reinforcement or punishment of another person.

Question 132

Renewal effect

Answer 132

Recovery of an extinguished response that occurs when the context is changed after extinction. Especially strong when the change of context involves return to the context in which conditioning originally occurred. Can occur after extinction in either classical or instrumental conditioning.

Question 133

Identify the four knowledge emotions.

Answer 133

-surprise
An emotion rooted in expectancy violation that orients people toward the unexpected event.
-interest
curiosity and intrigue, interest motivates engaging with new things and learning more about them.
-confusion
conflicting and contrary information, such as when people appraise an event as unfamiliar and as hard to understand.
-awe
a state of fascination and wonder—is the deepest and probably least common of the knowledge emotions.

Question 134

Describe the patterns of appraisals that bring about these emotions.

Answer 134

surprise: “expectedness check”
-interest: “novelty/things that are complex” “coping potential”
-confusion: “confusion comes from appraising an event as high in novelty, complexity, and unfamiliarity as well as appraising it as hard to comprehend”
-awe: “vast/beyond the normal scope of their experience” “accommodation/changing their beliefs”

Question 135

Discuss how the knowledge emotions promote learning.

Answer 135

-encourage us to learn about what we are interested in
-make us want to know more/understand
-confusion allows us to thinking deeply and therefore learn better

Question 136

Apply the knowledge emotions to enhancing learning and education, and to one’s own life.

Answer 136

-motivate us to engage with things that are out of the ordinary
-help us learn better
-curious people try more things

Question 137

F​unctionalist theories of emotion

Answer 137

Theories of emotion that emphasize the adaptive role of an emotion in handling common problems throughout evolutionary history.

Question 138

Impasse-driven learning

Answer 138

An approach to instruction that motivates active learning by having learners work through perplexing barriers.

Question 139

Intrinsically motivated learning

Answer 139

Learning that is “for its own sake”—such as learning motivated by curiosity and wonder—instead of learning to gain rewards or social approval.

Question 140

Differentiate the functional roles between the two main cell classes in the brain, neurons and glia.

Answer 140

Neuron
-nerve cells
-dendrite: main input to the neuron
-soma: cell body, contains nucleus/genetic information
-axon: carries action potential to another neuron
-synapse: place where the axon comes to close to another neurons dendrite
-terminal button: end of axon that forms synapse with post-synaptic dendrite
-synaptic vessels: package neurotransmitters

Glia
-form myelin sheath
-digest dead neurons
-nutritional support from blood vessels to neurons
-regulate ionic composition of extracellular fluid

Question 141

Describe how the forces of diffusion and electrostatic pressure work collectively to facilitate electrochemical communication.

Answer 141

maintain steady state of cell
-electrostatic pressure: force on two ions with same charge to repel, or different charges to attract
-have no effect on anions because they are impermeable to cell membrane
-potassium(K+): high concentration in the cell, diffusion pushes them out of the cell and electrostatic pressure pushes K+ into the cell because its attracted to negative charge of the cell
-chloride(Cl-): high concentration out the cell because of electrostatic pressure (opposite K-)
-sodium potassium pump: both forces push Na+ into cell but its impermeable, the ion channel which uses ATP from the neuron to pump 3 Na+ ions out the cell in exchange for bringing in 2 K+ ions

Question 142

Define resting membrane potential, excitatory postsynaptic potentials, inhibitory postsynaptic potentials, and action potentials.

Answer 142

Resting membrane potential
- The voltage inside the cell relative to the voltage outside the cell while the cell is at rest (approximately -70 mV).

Excitatory postsynaptic potentials
- A depolarizing postsynaptic current that causes the membrane potential to become more positive and move towards the threshold of excitation.

Inhibitory postsynaptic potentials
- A hyperpolarizing postsynaptic current that causes the membrane potential to become more negative and move away from the threshold of excitation.

Action potential
- A transient all-or-nothing electrical current that is conducted down the axon when the membrane potential reaches the threshold of excitation.

Question 143

Explain features of axonal and synaptic communication in neurons.

Answer 143

-when a cell becomes depolarized voltage dependent Na+ channels open causing Na+ to rush into the cell making the inside of the cell more positive, Na+ channels then close and refractory period occurs and a new action potential cannot occur until the cell returns to resting membrane potential, K+ channels open up and K+ is driven out of the cell (which causes cell to return to resting membrane potential), very rapid

Question 144

Axon

Answer 144

Part of the neuron that extends off the soma, splitting several times to connect with other neurons; main output of the neuron.

Question 145

Synapse

Answer 145

Junction between the presynaptic terminal button of one neuron and the dendrite, axon, or soma of another postsynaptic neuron.

Question 146

Electrostatic pressure

Answer 146

The force on two ions with similar charge to repel each other; the force of two ions with opposite charge to attract to one another.

Question 147

Sodium-potassium pump

Answer 147

An ion channel that uses the neuron’s energy (adenosine triphosphate, ATP) to pump three Na+ ions outside the cell in exchange for bringing two K+ ions inside the cell.

Question 148

Synaptic gap

Answer 148

Also known as the synaptic cleft; the small space between the presynaptic terminal button and the postsynaptic dendritic spine, axon, or soma.

Question 149

Synaptic vesicles

Answer 149

Groups of neurotransmitters packaged together and located within the terminal button.

Question 150

Define the basic terminology and basic principles of hormone–behavior interactions.

Answer 150

-hormones: organic chemical messengers produced and released by endocrine glands
-target cells: cells with specific receptors for hormones
-hormones can mediated long term developments like growth, development, and reproduction

Question 151

Explain the role of hormones in behavioral sex differentiation.

Answer 151

-testosterone: primary androgen (group of hormones that play a role in male traits and reproductive activity) found in mens testes
-typically female behaviour requires a lack of exposure to androgens in early life
-gondal sex: determined by ovaries and testes

Question 152

Explain the role of hormones in aggressive behavior.

Answer 152

-evidence that androgenic steroid hormones mediate aggressive behaviour across many species
-higher blood concentration of androgens could be an explanation as to why men are more aggressive

Question 153

Explain the role of hormones in parental behavior.

Answer 153

-progesterone: involved in pregnancy and mating behaviours
-parental behaviour is caused by hormones
-woman with high cortisol levels before nursing engaged in more talking and physically affectionate behaviours with their babies

Question 154

Provide examples of some common hormone–behavior interactions.

Answer 154

behavior interactions -the mediation of food and fluid intake
social interactions– salt balance, learning and memory, stress coping, as well as psychopathology including depression, anxiety disorders, eating disorders, postpartum depression, and seasonal depression

Question 155

Neurotransmitter

Answer 155

A chemical messenger that travels between neurons to provide communication. Some neurotransmitters, such as norepinephrine, can leak into the blood system and act as hormones.

Question 156

5α-reductase

Answer 156

An enzyme required to convert testosterone to 5α-dihydrotestosterone.

Question 157

Dihydrotestosterone (DHT)

Answer 157

A primary androgen that is an androgenic steroid product of testosterone and binds strongly to androgen receptors.

Question 158

How do the majority of psychoactive drugs work in the brain?

Answer 158

-interfere with how neurons communicate with each other
-agonists: increase activity at synapse
-antagonists: decrease activity at synapse

Question 159

How does the route of administration affect how rewarding a drug might be?

Answer 159

-interfere with how neurons communicate with each other
-agonists: increase activity at synapse
-antagonists: decrease activity at synapse

Question 160

Why is grapefruit dangerous to consume with many psychotropic medications?

Answer 160

-grapefruit juice suppresses P450 enzymes that break down drugs
-can lead to toxic concentrations

Question 161

Why might individualized drug doses based on genetic screening be helpful for treating conditions like depression?

Answer 161

-would give insight on how much to prescribe based on how fast the individuals body breaks down the drug

Question 162

Why is there controversy regarding pharmacotherapy for children, adolescents, and the elderly?

Answer 162

-the brain continues to develop until you are 20 years old, it is worried that drugs that affect neural activity in the brain could have consequences
-evidence drugs can decrease bone density which is unsafe for the elderly
-metabolism is often slowed in the elderly which means the side effects of drugs could be more intense

Question 163

Name and describe the basic function of the brain stem, cerebellum, and cerebral hemispheres.

Answer 163

-brain stem: regulate breathing, digestion, etc; also involved in sleep-wake cycle, some sensory and motor function, as well as some growth and hormonal behaviour
-cerebellum: critical for coordinated movement and posture
-cerebral hemispheres: cognitive abilities and conscious experience

Question 164

Describe a split-brain patient and at least two important aspects of brain function that these patients reveal.

Answer 164

-the left and ride side of the brain are not connected
-if an object is placed only on their left side then only the left hemisphere will see it
-the left hand responds to the right hemisphere, left hemisphere is involved in language

Question 165

Distinguish between gray and white matter of the cerebral hemispheres.

Answer 165

-gray matter: composed of neural cell bodies
-white matter: composed of axons

Question 166

Name and describe the most common approaches to studying the human brain.

Answer 166

-dissection of the brain
-examination under microscope
-CAT scans and MRIs

Question 167

Distinguish among four neuroimaging methods: PET, fMRI, EEG, and DOI.

Answer 167

-positron emission tomography (PET): records blood flow in the brain by follow a radioactive substance, shows which parts of the brain are being used
-functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI): measures the oxygen change levels in the blood to infer brain activity
-electroencephalography (EEG): measures electrical activity of brain but poor spatial resolution
-diffuse optical imaging (DOI): technique that infers brain activity by measuring changes in light as it is passed through the skull and surface of the brain, relies on fact that properties of light change when it passes through oxygenated blood

Question 168

Describe the difference between spatial and temporal resolution with regard to brain function.

Answer 168

-spatial resolution: refers to how small the elements detected are, high spacial resolution means the brain can detect very small elements

-temporal resolution: how small a unit of time can be measured; how precisely in time a process can be measured in the brain

Question 169

Occipital lobe

Answer 169

The back most (posterior) part of the cerebrum; involved in vision.

Question 170

Parietal lobe

Answer 170

The part of the cerebrum between the frontal and occipital lobes; involved in bodily sensations, visual attention, and integrating the senses.

Question 171

Temporal lobe

Answer 171

The part of the cerebrum in front of (anterior to) the occipital lobe and below the lateral fissure; involved in vision, auditory processing, memory, and integrating vision and audition.

Question 172

Transcranial direct current stimulation (tDCS)

Answer 172

A neuroscience technique that passes mild electrical current directly through a brain area by placing small electrodes on the skull.

Question 173

Transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS)

Answer 173

A neuroscience technique whereby a brief magnetic pulse is applied to the head that temporarily induces a weak electrical current that interferes with ongoing activity.

Question 174

what qualifies as psychophysiology within the broader field of neuroscience.

Answer 174

-the dependant variable has to be physiological and the independent variable is behavioural or mental

Question 175

Review and compare several examples of psychophysiological methods.

Answer 175

-fMRI: tool for comparing brain activation in different tasks and/or populations
-EEG: measures neural activity directly
the highest level of temporal resolution?
-MEG: flow of electrical charge (the current) associated with neural activity produces very weak magnetic fields that can be detected by sensors placed near the participant’s scalp
-EEG AND MEG allow researchers to measure the degree to which different parts of the brain “talk” to each
-PET: a medical imaging technique that is used to measure processes in the body, including the brain

Question 176

Understand the advantages and disadvantages of different psychophysiological methods.

Answer 176

FMRI: pros- creates safe high-resolution images of neuron activity in the brain
cons: limited due to its indirect nature, as it tends to yield very general, and sometimes conflicting, results.

EEG pros- usually safe and painless cons: risk of seizures

MEG; pros: very high temporal and spatial resolution
cons: difficult to provide reliable information about subcortical sources of brain activity.

PET: it shows how well a part of the body is working
cons: false results if chemical balances within the body are not normal.

Question 177

Describe and understand the development of the nervous system.

Answer 177

-the similarities in the brain structure of humans and for example chimps, as well as similar behaviour suggests that simple behaviours preserved in the brains of simple animals is a foundation for the complexity of behaviours found in animals that evolved later
-complex structures in the nervous system give rise to complex behaviours (compare chimps and humans for example and our hand movements)
-ectoderm: outer-layer of the fetus where nervous tissue forms
-neuroblasts: asymmetrically divide into other neuroblasts or nerve cells
-neural crest: set of neurons that migrate out of the neural tube and give rise to sensory and autonomic nervous systems

Question 178

Learn and understand the two important parts of the nervous system.

Answer 178

-Peripheral nervous system
-Central nervous system

Question 179

Explain the two systems in the peripheral nervous system and what you know about the different regions and areas of the central nervous system.

Answer 179

-Somatic: 12 pairs of cranial nerves, 31 pairs of spinal nerves, volitional control of muscles and process sensory information
-Autonomic: sympathetic: fight or flight muscles and hormones, parasympathetic: slow, rest and digest functions

Question 180

Learn and describe different techniques of studying the nervous system. Understand which of these techniques are important for cognitive neuroscientists.

Answer 180

-immunocytochemistry: method of staining tissue, including the brain, using antibodies
-lesion studies
-EEG
-CAT: non-invasive brain scanning procedure that uses X-ray absorption around the head
PET: invasive procedure that captures brain images after individual has been injected with radio active isotopes

Question 181

Describe the reasons for studying different nervous systems in animals other than human beings. Explain what lessons we learn from the evolutionary history of this organ.

Answer 181

-can give insight to what certain structures in the brain do and how they affect behaviour
-shows adaptive behaviours in organisms
-“evolutionary study of the nervous system is important, and it is the first step in understanding its design, its workings, and its functional interface with the environment”

Question 182

Describe the basic functions of the four cerebral lobes: occipital, temporal, parietal, and frontal.

Answer 182

Occipital- responsible for vision
Temporal- auditory, multisensory integration, memory
Parietal- bodily sensations
frontal- motor cortex, motor planning, judgement

Question 183

Autonomic nervous system

Answer 183

A part of the peripheral nervous system that connects to glands and smooth muscles. Consists of sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions.

Question 184

Parasympathetic nervous system

Answer 184

A division of the autonomic nervous system that is slower than its counterpart—that is, the sympathetic nervous system—and works in opposition to it. Generally engaged in “rest and digest” functions.

Question 185

Somatic nervous system

Answer 185

A part of the peripheral nervous system that uses cranial and spinal nerves in volitional actions.

Question 186

Sympathetic nervous system

Answer 186

A division of the autonomic nervous system, that is faster than its counterpart that is the parasympathetic nervous system and works in opposition to it. Generally engaged in “fight or flight” functions.

Question 187

Differentiate the processes of sensation and perception.

Answer 187

-sensation: the physical processes to environmental stimuli
-perception: how sensory information is interpreted

Question 188

Explain the basic principles of sensation and perception.

Answer 188

-vision: light enters the eye through pupil, passes through lens which focuses light on the retina, in the retina light is transduced by photoreceptors, travels through the optic nerve to the primary visual cortex

-hearing: sound waves funnelled by pinna (outer ear), through auditory canal, to the eardrum which vibrates against ossicles (three tiny bones), which amplify sound waves before they reach the cochlea and auditory hair cells which transduce sound into electrical potentials, then to the auditory primary cortex

-touch: mechanoreceptors in skin respond to texture, information is sent to primary somatosensory cortex

-smell: odorants bind to receptors
-taste: tastants bind to taste receptor cells

-smell and taste combine to give flavour

Question 189

Apply knowledge of sensation and perception to real world examples.

Answer 189

see familiar objects, feel a person’s touch against your skin, smell the aroma of a home-cooked meal, or hear the sound of music playing in your neighbor’s apartment

Question 190

Explain the consequences of multimodal perception.

Answer 190

superadditive effect of multisensory integration: the response to many stimuli is greater than response to each stimuli on its own
-principle of inverse effectiveness: less likely to benefits from many stimuli if the response to a single stimuli is quite strong

Question 191

Primary visual cortex

Answer 191

Area of the cortex involved in processing visual stimuli.

Question 192

Retina

Answer 192

Cell layer in the back of the eye containing photoreceptors.

Question 193

Shape theory of olfaction

Answer 193

Theory proposing that odorants of different size and shape correspond to different smells.

Question 194

Trichromatic theory

Answer 194

Theory proposing color vision as influenced by three different cones responding preferentially to red, green and blue.

Question 195

opponent-process theory

Answer 195

Theory proposing color vision as influenced by cells responsive to pairs of colors.

Question 196

Describe the basic auditory attributes of sound.

Answer 196

-loudness: sound intensity or pressure, frequency and duration also have an effect

-pitch: repetition rate of waves, the faster the wave form repeats-the high the pitch

-timbre: quality of sound, sounds with higher frequency tend to sound brighter and lower frequencies as rich or dull

Question 197

Describe the structure and general function of the auditory pathways from the outer ear to the auditory cortex.

Answer 197

-hearing: sound waves funnelled by pinna (outer ear), through auditory canal, to the eardrum which vibrates against ossicles (three tiny bones), which amplify sound waves before they reach the cochlea (frequencies are broken up) and auditory hair cells which transduce sound into electrical potentials, then to the auditory primary cortex

Question 198

Discuss ways in which we are able to locate sounds in space.

Answer 198

-interaural time differences (ITD): differences in time and intensity between the two ears, something on the left will usually reach the left ear first, a fraction of a millisecond, best at lower frequencies
-interaural level differences (ILDs): at higher frequencies, the sound on the left side of the ear is heard as higher than the right (head shadow)

Question 199

Describe various acoustic cues that contribute to our ability to perceptually segregate simultaneously arriving sounds.

Answer 199

-because different frequencies are broken up in the cochlea, we are able to hear different sounds based on these frequencies
-when frequencies overlap, a sound could mask another sound
-low-frequency sounds are likely to mask high-frequency sounds and vice versa

Question 200

Tympanic membrane

Answer 200

Ear drum, which separates the outer ear from the middle ear.

Question 201

Pinna

Answer 201

Visible part of the outer ear.

Question 202

Interaural differences

Answer 202

Differences (usually in time or intensity) between the two ears.

Question 203

Cochlea

Answer 203

Snail-shell-shaped organ that transduces mechanical vibrations into neural signals.

Question 204

Describe the transduction of somatosensory signals: The properties of the receptor types as well as the difference in the properties of C-afferents and A-afferents and what functions these are thought to have.

Answer 204

-nociceptors: respond specifically to potentially tissue damaging stimuli, high threshold
-A-fibres: fast conducted response to the somatosensory cortex (allows us to distinguish the pain)
-C-pain: convey noxious, thermal, and heat signals, let us know that what we did was harmful, goes to the insular cortex and other areas of the brain involved in processing
-C tactical fibres: respond to gentle tough and light stroking

Question 205

Describe the social touch hypothesis and the role of affective touch in development and bonding.

Answer 205

-social touch hypothesis: c tactile fibres form a system for touch perception that supports social bonding
-firing of c tactile fibres corresponds with how pleasant the touch feels
-when babies are not touched they suffer from cognitive and neural development delay
-soothing touch of a mother reduces stress in a baby
-sense of touch is the first one to develop in the womb

Question 206

Explain the motivation–decision model and descending modulation of pain, and give examples on how this circuitry can promote survival.

Answer 206

-descending pain modulatory system: top down system where different parts of the brain and brain stem inhibit pain in order to attend to more important tasks, dependent on opioid signalling and pain relief (analgesics)
-motivation-decision model: the brain constantly weighs the pros and cons of every situation
-in situations facing our survival this can help one to overcome the pain and prevail

Question 207

Explain how expectations and context affect pain and touch experiences.

Answer 207

-placebo effect:where pain relief is due at least partly to your brain’s descending modulation circuit, and such relief depends on the brain’s own opioid system

-eg. when heterosexual men are told that a male will be stoking their leg, they do not enjoy the touch when in reality it is actually a woman

Question 208

Describe the concept of chronic pain and why treatment is so difficult.

Answer 208

Describe the concept of chronic pain and why treatment is so difficult:
-allodynia: neural disease or injury makes normally pleasant things feel painful, causes a-afferants which don’t normally respond to pain, to be painful in the brain
-often begin with injury to peripheral nervous system or tissue around it releasing hormones and inflammatory molecules that sensitize nociceptors so that uninjured nerves become more excitable and constantly contribute to pain

Question 209

Chronic pain

Answer 209

Persistent or recurrent pain, beyond usual course of acute illness or injury; sometimes present without observable tissue damage or clear cause.

Question 210

C-fibers

Answer 210

C-fibers: Slow-conducting unmyelinated thin sensory afferents with a diameter of 1 μm and a conduction velocity of approximately 1 m/s. C-pain fibers convey noxious, thermal, and heat signals; C-tactile fibers convey gentle touch, light stroking.

Question 211

A-fibers

Answer 211

Sensory nerves with myelinated axons conduct fast-conducting signals with larger diameters and thicker myelin sheaths. Aβ-fibers conduct touch signals at 80 m/s, Aδ-fibers conduct cold, noxious, and thermal signals at 12 m/s, and Aα conducts proprioceptive information.

Question 212

C-pain or Aδ-fibers

Answer 212

C-pain fibers convey noxious, thermal, and heat signals

Question 213

C-tactile fibers

Answer 213

C-tactile fibers convey gentle touch, light stroking

Question 214

Identify the key structures of the eye and the role they play in vision.

Answer 214

-cornea: clear coating that protects the eye
-pupil
-iris: controls the size of pupil
-lens
-retina: contains photoreceptor cells, at the back of the eye

Question 215

Summarize how the eye and the visual cortex work together to sense and perceive the visual stimuli in the environment, including processing colours, shape, depth, and motion

Answer 215

multimodal perception: the effects on the perception of events when there is information from more than one sensory modality, information is combined and treated as a unitary representation of the world (integrated)
-super additive effect of multisensory integration
-principle of inverse effectiveness

Question 216

Vision;
Cornea
Iris
Pupil
Lens
Retina
Rods
Cones

Answer 216

Cornea - Clear part outside of our pupil
Iris - Colored part that helps control pupil size
Pupil - Hole that allow light through, and must contract and expand at will
Lens - Behind pupil, refracts light onto retina, and focuses it.
Retina - Thin layer on back of eye with photoreceptors
Rods - See in black and white, sensitive to low light. More along the edges of the retina.
Cones - See in color. Sensitive to bright light. More in the center of the retina.
Light passes through the cornea, into the pupil, which has contracted or expanded using the iris to allow in the right amount of light. Our lens then refracts that light onto the retina, which contains rods and cones, which pick up black/white, and color respectively.

Question 217

Describe how gustation (taste) and olfaction (smell) are different from the other senses.

Answer 217

They are the chemical senses., tey don’t respond to light, sound, or pressure. They respond to chemicals that bind with receptors causing specific sensations.

Question 218

Blind spot

Answer 218

A hole in our vision because there are no photoreceptor cells at the place where the optic nerve leaves the retina

Question 219

Optic nerve

Answer 219

A collection of millions of ganglion neurons that sends vast amounts of visual information, via the thalamus, to the brain

Question 220

Gestalt

Answer 220

A collection of physical, biological, psychological or symbolic elements that creates a whole, unified concept or pattern which is other than the sum of its parts, due to the relationships between the parts (of a character, personality, entity, or being)
examples: Figure-ground, Similarity, Proximity, Continuity, Closure

Question 221

Define the basic terminology and basic principles of multimodal perception.

Answer 221

Multimodal phenomena concern stimuli that generate simultaneous (or nearly simultaneous) information in more than one sensory modality. As discussed above, speech is a classic example of this kind of stimulus.

Question 222

Describe the neuroanatomy of multisensory integration and name some of the regions of the cortex and midbrain that have been implicated in multisensory processing.

Answer 222

-multisensory convergence zones: regions of the brain that receive input from multiple unimodal areas processing different sensory modalities
-large number of regions in midbrain and cerebral cortex respond to stimuli from multiple sensory neurons
-superior colliculus: receives input from from regions processing unimodal auditory and visual stimuli, also involved in “orienting response”, moving one eye gaze towards auditory stimuli
-neurons in the primary visual cortex have been found to receive information from the primary auditory cortex, indicates that at an early stage visual information is influenced by auditory information
-overlap of crossmodal receptive fields plays a role in the integration of crossmodal stimuli

Question 223

Explain the difference between multimodal phenomena and crossmodal phenomena.

Answer 223

-multimodal phenomena: binding of inputs from multiple sensory modalities and their effect on perception, generate simultaneous information in more than one sensory modality
-crossmodal phenomena: the influence of one sensory modality on another

Question 224

Give examples of multimodal and crossmodal behavioral effects.

Answer 224

-multimodal phenomena: binding of inputs from multiple sensory modalities and their effect on perception, generate simultaneous information in more than one sensory modality
-crossmodal phenomena: the influence of one sensory modality on another

Question 225

McGurk effect

Answer 225

An effect in which conflicting visual and auditory components of a speech stimulus result in an illusory percept.

Question 226

Rubber hand illusion

Answer 226

The false perception of a fake hand as belonging to a perceiver, due to multimodal sensory information.

Question 227

Primary auditory cortex

Answer 227

A region of the cortex devoted to the processing of simple auditory information.

Question 228

Primary visual cortex

Answer 228

A region of the cortex devoted to the processing of simple visual information.

Question 229

Bouncing balls illusion

Answer 229

The tendency to perceive two circles as bouncing off each other if the moment of their contact is accompanied by an auditory stimulus.

Question 230

Unimodal cortex

Answer 230

A region of the brain devoted to the processing of information from a single sensory modality.

Question 231

Principle of Inverse Effectiveness

Answer 231

The finding that, in general, for a multimodal stimulus, if the response to each unimodal component (on its own) is weak, then the opportunity for multisensory enhancement is very large. However, if one component—by itself—is sufficient to evoke a strong response, then the effect on the response gained by simultaneously processing the other components of the stimulus will be relatively small.

Question 232

Spatial principle of multisensory integration

Answer 232

The finding that the superadditive effects of multisensory integration are observed when the sources of stimulation are spatially related to one another.

Question 233

Understand scientific approaches to comprehending consciousness.

Answer 233

-began with first person perspective
-third person perspective
-contemplative science: research area that concerns how contemplative practices (like meditation) effect individuals behaviour, emotionally reactivity, cognitive abilities, and brains, as well as first person observations from individuals who have gained extraordinary experiences in introspection
-philosophy, psychology, and neuroscience

Question 234

Be familiar with evidence about human vision, memory, body awareness, and decision making relevant to the study of consciousness.

Answer 234

-visual awareness depends on an exchange of information in multiple brain areas, specifically cerebral cortex, reciprocal exchange of information between higher-level visual areas and primary visual cortex appears to be essential for generating visual awareness
-degree of consciousness is high when multiple interrelated ideas arise, a mixture of short, medium, and long range neural connections is needed
-body awareness: we can feel and can see our body being touched
-primary function of consciousness is that it allows us to predict our own behaviour
-conscious decision should be made when there are few factors vs a gut decision when there a many

Question 235

contemporary theories about consciousness.

Answer 235

the Global Neuronal Workspace Theory of Consciousness - in which sharing of information among prefrontal, inferior parietal, and occipital regions of the cerebral cortex is postulated to be especially important for generating awareness.
Information Integration Theory of Consciousness - shared information itself constitutes consciousness
A Social Neuroscience Theory of Consciousness - that you fare better in a social environment to the extent that you can predict what people are going to do.

Question 236

Awareness

Answer 236

A conscious experience or the capability of having conscious experiences, which is distinct from self-awareness, the conscious understanding of one’s own existence and individuality.

Question 237

Conscious experience

Answer 237

The first-person perspective of a mental event, such as feeling some sensory input, a memory, an idea, an emotion, a mood, or a continuous temporal sequence of happenings.

Question 238

Define consciousness and distinguish between high and low conscious states

Answer 238

-consciousness: awareness of ourselves and environment
-low awareness: our brains receive stimuli without us actually aware of the information taken in, affects our behaviour in an unconscious way
-high awareness: effortful attention and careful decision making, less persuaded by bias and stereotypes
-mindfulness: awareness of thoughts passing through one’s head

Question 239

Explain the relationship between consciousness and bias

Answer 239

-flexible correlation model: ability for people to correct or change their beliefs if they believe their judgments are biased

Question 240

Understand the difference between popular portrayals of hypnosis and how it is currently used therapeutically

Answer 240

-hypnosis: a state of consciousness where a person can be easily manipulated by the suggestions of others, involves dissociation from environment and focus on a single stimulus usually paired with a sense of relaxation
-hypnotherapy: involves a combination of relaxation, suggestion, motivation, and expectancies to create a desired mental state, mixed evidence on whether it can help with addiction, can help with those who experience chronic pain by helping them dissociate from their pain

Question 241

Hypnosis

Answer 241

Hypnosis: the state of consciousness whereby a person is highly responsive to the suggestions of another; this state usually involves a dissociation with one’s environment and an intense focus on a single stimulus, which is usually accompanied by a sense of relaxation

Question 242

Priming

Answer 242

Priming: the activation of certain thoughts or feelings that make them easier to think of and act upon

Question 243

Psychoactive drugs

Answer 243

• Hallucinogens (Weed)
• Depressants (alcohol)
• Stimulants (coffee)

Question 244

REM sleep

Answer 244

The body is essentially paralyzed
Brain waves similar to being awake, but we are dreaming
20%

Question 245

Slow-wave sleep

Answer 245

Muscle relaxation
Rapid delta waves start to appear
20%

Question 246

Light sleep

Answer 246

Features high intensity sleep spindles
Spindles important for memory
55%

Question 247

Sleep onset

Answer 247

This is when you are beginning to fall asleep
Characterized by theta waves
25%

Question 248

Circadian rhythms

Answer 248

The physiological sleep-wake cycle. It is influenced by
exposure to sunlight as well as daily schedule and
activity. Biologically, it includes changes in body
temperature, blood pressure and blood sugar.

Question 249

melatonin

Answer 249

A hormone associated
with increased drowsiness
and sleep.

Question 250

Describe how sensation and perception work together through sensory interaction, selective attention, sensory adaptation, and perceptual constancy.

Answer 250

-sensory interaction: working together of different senses, shown in the McGurk effect
-synesthesia: one sense creates experiences in another
-selective attention: ability to tune out some sensory inputs while focusing on others
-sensory adaptation: prolonged exposure to a stimulus decreases sensitivity, allows receptors to detect when important information changes in our environment (key for survival)
-perceptual constancy: ability to perceive a stimulus as constant despite its changes

Question 251

Give examples of how our expectations may influence our perception, resulting in illusions and potentially inaccurate judgments.

Answer 251

-perception of the world may be influenced by prior knowledge
-Mueller-Lyer illusion: the top line segment looks smaller even though they are both actually the same length
-Moon illusion: moon appears 50% bigger when over the horizon
-illusions can be created in a lab but less likely in the real world because humans are so in touch with their environment (embodied: environment is linked and built in with our cognition)

Question 252

Learn about different models of when and how selection can occur:

Answer 252

-Broadbent: select information based on physical features like the ear the message was coming in, the pitch, the colour or font, selection occurs very early with no processing for unselected information
-Treisman: suggest that we do monitor unattended information based on its meaning, suggest that selection starts at the physical level but unattended information is not blocked completely
-Alate/Response: suggests that all information in the unattended ear is processed on the basis of meaning, however only information relevant for the task response is gets into conscious awareness

Question 253

Understand how divided attention or multitasking is studied, and implications of multitasking in situations such as distracted driving:

Answer 253

-some research suggests that one cannot multitask but are just rapidly switching their attention back and forth
-multitasking could require practice and only be specific to tasks
-cognitive distractions like cellphones can cause inattentional blindness and lack of awareness, the cognitive demands of our limited capacity system can impair driving performance

Question 254

Donald Broadbent

Answer 254

-One of the first to try the characterize the selection process.
- Created the Broadbent’s Filter Model
-People select information based on physical features like sensory channel, voice pitch, and visual font, but are vaguely aware of the meaning of unattended information.

Question 255

Anne Treisman (1960)

Answer 255

Did dichotic listening experiments in which she presented two different stories to the two ears.
individuals spontaneously followed the story, or the content of the message, when it shifted from the left ear to the right ear. Then they realized they were shadowing the wrong ear and switched back.
Treisman suggested that selection starts at the physical or perceptual level, but that the unattended information is not blocked completely, it is just weakened or attenuated.
As a result, highly meaningful or pertinent information in the unattended ear will get through the filter for further processing at the level of meaning.

Question 256

Deutsch and Deutsch (1963)

Answer 256

suggests that all information in the unattended ear is processed on the basis of meaning, not just the selected or highly pertinent information.

Question 257

Johnston and Heinz, 1978)

Answer 257

We can either filter or late,
Selection is dynamic and depends on the tasks

Question 258

Learn about inattentional blindness and why it occurs.

Answer 258

-inattentional blindess: the failure to notice a fully visible unexpected object/event when focused on something else
-the more effort being put into the attention-demanding task, the less likely one is to notice an unexpected visual event
-capacity of attention: we have to be somewhat paying attention to the event to be aware of it

Question 259

Identify ways in which failures of awareness are counterintuitive.

Answer 259

-even minor delays in noticing something can cause accidents like car crashes

Question 260

Better understand the link between focused attention and failures of awareness.

Answer 260

-explicit memory: knowledge or experiences that can be consciously remembered
-episodic: first-hand experiences
-semantic: knowledge and facts
-implicit memory: influence of experience on behaviour, even if one is unaware of those influences
-procedural memory: unexplainable knowledge of how to do things
-priming: changes in behaviour as a result of experiences that happen frequently

Question 261

Dichotic listening

Answer 261

A task in which different audio streams are presented to each ear. Typically, people are asked to monitor one stream while ignoring the other.

Question 262

Inattentional deafness

Answer 262

The auditory analog of inattentional blindness. People fail to notice an unexpected sound or voice when attention is devoted to other aspects of a scene.

Question 263

Selective listening

Answer 263

A method for studying selective attention in which people focus attention on one auditory stream of information while deliberately ignoring other auditory information.

Question 264

Compare and contrast explicit and implicit memory, identifying the features that define each.

Answer 264

-explicit memory: knowledge or experiences that can be consciously remembered
-episodic: first hand experiences
-semantic: knowledge and facts
-implicit memory: influence of experience on behaviour, even if one is unaware of those influences
-procedural memory: unexplainable knowledge of how to do things
-priming: changes in behaviour as a result of experiences that happen frequently

Question 265

Explain the function and duration of eidetic and echoic memories.

Answer 265

-echoic memory: auditory sensory memory, can last up to four seconds; we can remember the words we said at the beginning of a sentence or copy down notes after the teacher has finished speaking
-iconic memory: visual memory, about 250 milliseconds

Question 266

Summarize the capacities of short-term memory and explain how working memory is used to process information in it.

Answer 266

-short term memory: small bits of information can be kept for longer then sensory memory but for less than a minute
-working memory is used to process/ make sense of information in short term memory
-working memory is not a memory storage but a set of memory procedures and operations
-central executive: the part of working memory that directs attention and processing

Question 267

Misinformation effect

Answer 267

When erroneous information occurring after an event is remembered as having been part of the original event.

Question 268

Flashbulb memory

Answer 268

Vivid personal memories of receiving the news of some momentous (and usually emotional) event.

Question 269

Describe the three stages in the process of learning and remembering.

Answer 269

Encoding - Initial learning of information
Retrieval - Maintaining information over time
Storage - Accessing information when you need it

Question 270

Describe strategies that can be used to enhance the original learning or encoding of information.

Answer 270

The Link Method
- Convert each item into visual imagery, then associated each pair of items in an interacting
image so that the memory for one item should cue the next.
The Peg Method
- Learn a simple rhyme: “1 is a gun, 2 is a shoe, etc …”, then use this to make distinctive
interactive cues. These are “pegs” on which you can hang memories.
The Method of Loci / Memory Palace
- Elaborate imagined scenes in which objects / words / digits can be “placed”in discrete locations for later retrieval

Question 271

Describe strategies that can improve the process of retrieval.

Answer 271

Relating events together to help you later retrieve the memory and also you could do retrieval tests to help you

Question 272

Describe why the classic mnemonic device, the method of loci, works so well.

Answer 272

The Method of Loci is an effective mnemonic device, or a trick to aid in memory storage and retrieval. The effectiveness of the Method of Loci relies on visualizing mental images to associate with the material that needs to be remembered. The more vivid the visual, the more effective the method.

Question 273

Autobiographical memory

Answer 273

Memory for the events of one’s life.

Question 274

Identify five reasons we forget and give examples of each.

Answer 274

1. encoding failures - we do not learn the information in the first place
2. Decay- memories fade away over time
3. Inaquateide retrieval cues– we lack sufficient reminders
4. Interference - other memories get in the way
5. trying not to remember - we deliberately attempt to keep things out of our minds

Question 275

Describe how forgetting can be viewed as an adaptive process.

Answer 275

This allows us to be efficient and hold onto only the most relevant memories to function in everyday life. We adapted to this overtime to only remember the most relevant events

Question 276

Explain the difference between anterograde and retrograde amnesia.

Answer 276

Retrograde amnesia is when you can’t recall memories from your past. Anterograde amnesia is when you can’t form new memories but can still remember things from before you developed this amnesia. Other forms of amnesia include: Post-traumatic amnesia