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UNI FIRST YEAR SEM 1 > MC week 6 > Flashcards

MC week 6 Flashcards

1
Q

What proportion of the body’s oxygen and calories does the brain consume?

A) 15%

B) 20%

C) 25%

D) 30%

A

Answer: B) 20%

Explanation: The text states that the brain utilizes 20% of the oxygen and calories despite being only 2% of the body’s weight.

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2
Q

Why can’t the brain’s limited cognitive abilities be explained by insufficient “brain fuel”?

A) The brain lacks enough neurons

B) Oxygen-deprivation

C) Competitive behavior among neurons

D) Glucose deficiency

A

C) Competitive behavior among neurons

Explanation: The text suggests that neurons inhibit each other, limiting the brain’s simultaneous response to information.

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3
Q

What is a probable reason behind the misconception that humans use only 10% of their brains?

A) Untapped potential

B) Insufficient neuroimaging data

C) Mythical interpretation

D) Limitation of cognitive abilities

A

A) Untapped potential

Explanation: The statement mentions that the myth likely started to imply untapped potential within the brain.

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4
Q

Which part of the brain is responsible for processing visual information?

A) Cerebral hemispheres

B) Brain stem

C) Cerebellum

D) Visual cortex

A

D) Visual cortex

Explanation: The text refers to the visual cortex as the part responsible for processing visual information.

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5
Q

How does the competitive wiring among neurons influence cognitive abilities?

A) Increases overall neuron firing

B) Enhances cognitive potential

C) Limits simultaneous information processing
D) Promotes rapid information recall

A

C) Limits simultaneous information processing

Explanation: Competitive wiring among neurons is mentioned as a factor that restricts how much information the brain can respond to simultaneously.

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6
Q

What has caused inconsistent and ambiguous nomenclature in neuroanatomy?

A) Lack of research interest

B) Rapid advances in technology

C) Differing ways to subdivide the brain

D) Insufficient neuroimaging techniques

A

C) Differing ways to subdivide the brain

Explanation: The text attributes inconsistent neuroanatomy nomenclature to the varied methods of subdividing the brain.

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7
Q

According to the text, what proportion of the brain is devoted to processing visual information?

A) Entire cerebral hemispheres

B) Brain stem

C) A portion of the cerebellum

D) The visual cortex

A

D) The visual cortex

Explanation: The text implies that the visual cortex is specifically dedicated to processing visual information.

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8
Q

What conclusion can be drawn about the brain’s usage from modern neuroimaging studies?

A) Only 20% is in use at any given time

B) The brain uses all its parts at different times

C) Roughly 50% is consistently active

D) Only 10% is regularly active

A

B) The brain uses all its parts at different times

Explanation: Neuroimaging studies suggest that all parts of the brain are used at various times, disproving the myth of using only 10%.

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9
Q

Which division of the brain is responsible for coordinating movement and balance?

A) Cerebral hemispheres

B) Brain stem

C) Cerebellum

D) Visual cortex

A

C) Cerebellum

Explanation: The text indicates that the cerebellum plays a role in coordinating movement and balance.

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10
Q

What does the text suggest as the primary reason for cognitive limitations?

A) Lack of oxygen

B) Neuronal competition

C) Depletion of glucose

D) Inconsistent neuron wiring

A

B) Neuronal competition

Explanation: The text indicates that limitations in cognitive abilities are more likely due to competitive behavior among neurons rather than specific resource depletion.

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11
Q

Which brain structure is referred to as the “small brain” by Aristotle?

A) Cerebral hemispheres

B) Brain stem

C) Cerebellum

D) Basal ganglia

A

C) Cerebellum

Explanation: Aristotle called the cerebellum “parencephalon” in Greek, which translates to “small brain” in Latin.

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12
Q

Split-brain patients have helped us understand the functioning of the two hemispheres due to:

A) Brain stem damage

B) Genetic abnormalities

C) Callosotomy

D) Cerebral cortex lesions

A

C) Callosotomy

Explanation: Split-brain patients have undergone a callosotomy, a procedure that disconnects the two hemispheres.

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13
Q

The somatosensory cortex is located in which brain lobe?

A) Occipital

B) Temporal

C) Parietal

D) Frontal

A

: C) Parietal

Explanation: The parietal lobe houses the somatosensory cortex and structures involved in visual attention.

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14
Q

What is the primary function of the amygdala and hippocampal formation?

A) Voluntary movement

B) Emotion regulation

C) Auditory processing

D) Multisensory integration

A

B) Emotion regulation

Explanation: The limbic system, including the amygdala and hippocampal formation, plays a significant role in emotions.

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15
Q

What is the primary role of the basal ganglia?

A) Auditory processing

B) Coordinated movement

C) Visual attention

D) Multisensory integration

A

B) Coordinated movement

Explanation: The basal ganglia are critical to voluntary movement and connect with the cortex and brain stem.

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16
Q

What function does the corpus callosum serve?

A) Regulating heart rate

B) Coordinating movement

C) Connecting the cerebral hemispheres

D) Controlling respiration

A

C) Connecting the cerebral hemispheres

Explanation: The corpus callosum is a dense bundle of white matter tracts connecting the two cerebral hemispheres.

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17
Q

What is gray matter composed of?

A) Neuronal axons

B) Axons with myelin sheath

C) Neuronal cell bodies

D) Synaptic connections

A

C) Neuronal cell bodies

Explanation: Gray matter consists of the neuronal cell bodies responsible for cell metabolism and protein synthesis.

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18
Q

Losses in either gray or white matter can result in deficits in:

A) Visual processing

B) Motor planning

C) Memory and reasoning

D) Auditory processing

A

C) Memory and reasoning

Explanation: Deficits in memory, reasoning, and other mental functions can arise from losses in gray or white matter.

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19
Q

Phrenology attempted to correlate features of the skull with:

A) Genetic abnormalities

B) Brainstem functions

C) Specific brain functions

D) Cerebellar disorders

A

C) Specific brain functions

Explanation: Phrenology aimed to link skull features to specific functions of the brain.

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20
Q

Which lobes house the motor cortex and structures involved in motor planning?

A) Occipital and temporal lobes

B) Parietal and occipital lobes

C) Temporal and parietal lobes

D) Frontal lobes

A

D) Frontal lobes

Explanation: The frontal lobes house the motor cortex, motor planning, and other functions like language and decision-making.

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21
Q

What roles does the temporal lobe play?

A) Vision and auditory processing

B) Motor coordination and language

C) Memory and reasoning

D) Sensory and motor functions

A

: A) Vision and auditory processing

Explanation: The temporal lobe is involved in auditory processing, vision, memory, and multisensory integration.

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22
Q

The cerebral cortex is made of:

A) Neuronal axons

B) Myelin sheaths

C) Neuronal cell bodies

D) Synaptic connections

A

C) Neuronal cell bodies

Explanation: The cerebral cortex is composed of neuronal cell bodies that are critical for cell metabolism and protein synthesis.

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23
Q

What characterizes the appearance of the cerebral cortex?

A) Gyri and sulci

B) Folds and grooves

C) White matter tracts

D) Gray matter sheets

A

A) Gyri and sulci & B) Folds and grooves

Explanation: The folds and grooves on the surface of the cerebral cortex are referred to as gyri and sulci, respectively.

24
Q

Which brain structure is most responsible for language in the majority of right-handed individuals?

A) Basal ganglia

B) Cerebellum

C) Amygdala

D) Left cerebral hemisphere

A

D) Left cerebral hemisphere

Explanation: In the majority of right-handed individuals, language primarily resides in the left hemisphere.

25
Q

What do neuroimaging studies provide for understanding brain function?

A) Identifying brain regions

B) Phrenology correlation

C) Skull analysis

D) Genetic mapping

A

A) Identifying brain regions

Explanation: Neuroimaging studies help identify brain regions associated with specific functions, providing insights into brain function.

26
Q

Which method provides the highest spatial resolution for studying specific groups of neurons or small brain structures?

A) Functional MRI

B) Electroencephalography (EEG)

C) Diffuse optical imaging (DOI)

D) Dissections

A

D) Dissections

Explanation: Dissections allow for a very high spatial resolution by slicing the brain thinly and highlighting particular cells for examination under a microscope.

27
Q

Transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) induces:

A) Direct electrical current

B) Virtual lesions

C) Changes in blood flow

D) Temporary paralysis

A

B) Virtual lesions

Explanation: Although TMS is sometimes referred to as inducing temporary virtual lesions, it actually interferes with normal neuron communication.

28
Q

What is a limitation of transcranial direct current stimulation (tDCS) compared to TMS?

A) Limited to the surface of the cortex

B) Requires injection of a radioactive substance

C) Poor temporal resolution

D) Involves electrical stimulation only

A

A) Limited to the surface of the cortex

Explanation: tDCS is limited to stimulating brain areas on the surface of the cortex, unlike TMS, which can reach deeper areas.

29
Q

Electroencephalography (EEG) is characterized by:

A) High spatial resolution and poor temporal resolution

B) Low spatial resolution and poor temporal resolution

C) High spatial resolution and good temporal resolution

D) Low spatial resolution and good temporal resolution

A

D) Low spatial resolution and good temporal resolution

Explanation: EEG measures electrical activity with good temporal resolution but lacks precise spatial information.

30
Q

Positron emission tomography (PET) records:

A) Electrical activity of the brain

B) Changes in oxygen levels in the blood

C) Blood flow in the brain

D) Light properties through oxygenated blood

A

C) Blood flow in the brain

Explanation: PET records blood flow in the brain by detecting injected radioactive substances that flow into active regions.

31
Q

Diffuse optical imaging (DOI) can offer high spatial and temporal resolution by:

A) Shining infrared light into the brain

B) Inducing lesions in specific brain areas

C) Measuring electrical activity

D) Detecting changes in oxygen levels

A

A) Shining infrared light into the brain

Explanation: DOI uses infrared light to detect changes in blood oxygen levels or active neurons, providing high spatial and temporal resolution depending on its setup.

32
Q

Which technique directly measures changes in neural activity without relying on a correlate of that activity?

A) Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)

B) Positron emission tomography (PET)

C) Electroencephalography (EEG)

D) Magnetoencephalography (MEG)

A

C) Electroencephalography (EEG)

Explanation: Unlike fMRI and PET, EEG directly measures electrical activity occurring within the brain without relying on a secondary indicator of neural activity.

33
Q

Which method provides the poorest spatial resolution but exceptional temporal resolution?

A) fMRI

B) sMRI

C) EEG

D) MEG

A

Answer: C) EEG

EEG offers excellent temporal resolution, recording events in milliseconds, but it has relatively poor spatial localization compared to fMRI or sMRI.

34
Q

What technique relies on blood-oxygen-level-dependent (BOLD) signals to infer neural activity?

A) EEG

B) PET

C) MEG

D) sMRI

A

B) PET

Explanation: PET measures blood flow and uses the BOLD signal to infer neural activity in different areas of the brain

35
Q

Which technique is used primarily to identify specific brain areas associated with language for neurosurgical purposes?

A) MEG

B) sMRI

C) TMS

D) fMRI

A

D) fMRI

Explanation: fMRI is commonly used before neurosurgery to identify brain areas associated with language to avoid damage during surgery.

36
Q

Which measure provides insights into the consistency in the time intervals between heartbeats?

A) Skin conductance

B) Cardiovascular responses

C) Heart rate variability

D) Electromyography (EMG)

A

C) Heart rate variability

Explanation: Heart rate variability measures the consistency in time intervals between heartbeats, often associated with stress or psychiatric conditions.

37
Q

What technique uses electrical conductance between two points on the skin to measure sympathetic nervous system (SNS) activity?

A) Cardiovascular responses

B) Heart rate variability

C) Skin conductance

D) Electromyography (EMG)

A

C) Skin conductance

Explanation: Skin conductance measures SNS activity by assessing electrical conductance between two points on the skin, reflecting changes in moisture level.

38
Q

Which method is considered invasive and involves the introduction of a positron-emitting tracer atom into the bloodstream?

A) fMRI

B) TMS

C) sMRI

D) PET

A

D) PET

Explanation: PET involves introducing a positron-emitting tracer atom into the bloodstream, making it an invasive method for imaging.

39
Q

Which technique is capable of detecting very weak magnetic fields produced by neural activity?

A) sMRI

B) EEG

C) TMS

D) PET

A

B) EEG

Explanation: EEG is capable of detecting weak magnetic fields produced by neural activity, providing insights into brain function.

40
Q

Which measure can be used to detect very small facial movements that may not be visibly observable?

A) Eye movements

B) Pupil diameter

C) Eye blinks

D) Electromyography (EMG)

A

D) Electromyography (EMG)

Explanation: EMG can detect very small facial movements that may not be visible to the naked eye.

41
Q

Which method focuses on measuring neural activity by inducing depolarization or hyperpolarization in neurons near the scalp?

A) TMS

B) EEG

C) MEG

D) PET

A

A) TMS

Explanation: TMS induces depolarization or hyperpolarization in neurons near the scalp to study neural activity.

42
Q

Which method is most appropriate for studying the temporal dynamics of neural processes?

A) sMRI

B) fMRI

C) MEG

D) PET

A

Answer: C) MEG

MEG and EEG are excellent for elucidating the temporal dynamics of neural processes, measuring events that occur in milliseconds.

43
Q

What method can be used to identify the sequence, direction, and duration of gaze fixations during a task?

A) Eye movements

B) Pupil diameter

C) Eye blinks

D) Skin conductance

A

A) Eye movements

Explanation: Eye movement recordings, often with a camera, allow identification of gaze fixations’ sequence, direction, and duration, particularly when scanning a picture or scene.

44
Q
  1. What is the primary function of the parasympathetic nervous system in response to a fear-inducing cue?

a) To energize bodily muscles for fight-or-flight responses
b) To release adrenaline and increase activity in the heart
c) To regulate undue energy mobilization into muscles and glands
d) To increase energy levels in preparation for physical exertion

A

c) To regulate undue energy mobilization into muscles and glands

Explanation: The parasympathetic nervous system modulates the response triggered by the sympathetic nervous system by curbing excessive energy mobilization into muscles and glands

45
Q

Which area of the cerebral cortex is responsible for language production?

a) Primary somatosensory cortex
b) Primary auditory cortex
c) Broca’s area
d) Wernicke’s area

A

c) Broca’s area

Explanation: Broca’s area, located in the left frontal lobe, is involved in language production.

46
Q

The magnification factor in the primary motor cortex refers to:

a) The size of the cortex relative to the rest of the brain
b) The increased representation of body parts like fingers and thumbs
c) The number of gyri compared to sulci in the cortex
d) The overall thickness of the cortex in different brain regions

A

b) The increased representation of body parts like fingers and thumbs

Explanation: The magnification factor in the primary motor cortex represents the disproportionate representation of certain body parts, such as fingers and thumbs, compared to other body parts.

47
Q

Damage to the Wernicke’s area may result in:

a) Word deafness
b) Inability to recognize written language
c) Loss of motor coordination
d) Decreased olfactory sensation

A

a) Word deafness

Explanation: Damage to the Wernicke’s area can lead to various forms of agnosias, including word deafness, which is the inability to recognize spoken language.

48
Q

Which part of the brain is involved in visual processing and perception?

a) Cerebellum
b) Hypothalamus
c) Occipital lobe
d) Parietal lobe

A

c) Occipital lobe

Explanation: The primary visual cortex, responsible for visual processing, is located in the occipital lobe.

49
Q

Which method visualizes brain function by detecting changes in fluid flow in brain areas over time?

a) Positron Emission Tomography (PET)
b) Computerized Axial Tomography (CAT)
c) Functional Magnetic Resonance Imaging (fMRI)
d) Electron Microscopy

A

c) Functional Magnetic Resonance Imaging (fMRI)

Explanation: fMRI visualizes brain function by detecting changes in the flow of fluids (blood) in brain areas as activities occur.Lesion studies in neuroscience involve:

50
Q

Lesion studies in neuroscience involve:

a) Recording electrical activity from single neurons
b) Staining selected neurons with specific dyes
c) Removing parts of the nervous system to study effects on behavior
d) Visualizing synaptic connections between neurons

A

c) Removing parts of the nervous system to study effects on behavior

Explanation: Lesion studies involve ablating or removing parts of the nervous system to understand their functions by observing resultant changes in behavior or mental processes.

51
Q

What is the main difference between CAT scans and MRI scans?

a) CAT scans provide better functional information about the brain
b) MRI scans use X-rays to capture brain images
c) CAT scans have better spatial resolution than MRI scans
d) MRI scans do not use radiation unlike CAT scans

A

d) MRI scans do not use radiation unlike CAT scans

Explanation: MRI scans use magnets and radio waves to capture brain images without using radiation, unlike CAT scans.

52
Q

. Which part of the nervous system regulates arousal, sleep, and temperature?

a) Cerebellum
b) Hypothalamus
c) Thalamus
d) Medulla oblongata

A

b) Hypothalamus

Explanation: The hypothalamus is involved in regulating arousal, sleep, temperature, and drives.

53
Q

What is the primary function of the midbrain’s superior colliculus?

a) Processing visual information
b) Controlling motor movements
c) Regulating endocrine hormones
d) Processing auditory information

A

a) Processing visual information

Explanation: The superior colliculus in the midbrain processes visual information.

54
Q

What technique allows the visualization of synaptic connections between neurons?

a) Positron Emission Tomography (PET)
b) Functional Magnetic Resonance Imaging (fMRI)
c) Computerized Axial Tomography (CAT)
d) Electron Microscopy

A

d) Electron Microscopy

Explanation: Electron microscopy allows the visualization of fine structures like the synaptic cleft between pre- and post-synaptic neurons.

55
Q

How does fMRI differ from PET scans in terms of invasiveness?

a) fMRI is more invasive than PET scans
b) Both fMRI and PET scans are equally invasive
c) PET scans are more invasive than fMRI
d) Neither fMRI nor PET scans are invasive

A

c) PET scans are more invasive than fMRI

Explanation: PET scans involve the injection of radio-labeled isotopes, making them more invasive compared to fMRI scans, which do not involve injections.

UNI FIRST YEAR SEM 1 (21 decks)

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