PSYC multiple-choice Flashcards
The author mentions the examples of a great violinist and a basketball player to illustrate:
A) The impact of genetic factors on physical attributes.
B) The influence of diet on musical and athletic abilities.
C) The role of hard work in developing skills.
D) The uncertainty in determining the origins of human characteristics.
Answer: D) The uncertainty in determining the origins of human characteristics.
Explanation: The examples of the violinist and basketball player are used to highlight the complexity of human characteristics and how they can be influenced by a combination of factors, making it challenging to attribute them solely to nature or nurture.
According to the passage, which of the following statements is true regarding personal traits?
A) Traits like height and instrument-mastery are solely determined by genetics.
B) Perfect pitch and long, nimble fingers are exclusively developed through hard work.
C) Personal traits often have both genetic and environmental influences.
D) Traits like drinking habits and worries are entirely within an individual’s control.
C) Personal traits often have both genetic and environmental influences.
Explanation: The passage highlights that personal traits are not solely determined by nature or nurture but often result from a combination of both factors—genetic predispositions and environmental influences.
Which phrase best describes the author’s stance on human characteristics in the text?
A) Human traits are predominantly determined by genetic factors.
B) Environmental factors play a negligible role in shaping human characteristics.
C) Human traits are a complex interplay between genetics and environment.
D) Human traits are entirely within an individual’s control.
C) Human traits are a complex interplay between genetics and environment.
Explanation: The author emphasizes the complexity of human characteristics, suggesting that they arise from a combination of genetic predispositions and environmental influences rather than being solely dictated by one factor.
In the context of determining nature-nurture influences, what sets apart experiments with nonhuman animals from those involving humans?
A) Ability to randomly assign babies to parents for experimentation purposes.
B) The simplicity in breeding animals to analyze behavioral traits.
C) Difficulty in assigning babies to parents for experimental purposes.
D) The ability to manipulate genetic factors in nonhuman animals.
C) Difficulty in assigning babies to parents for experimental purposes.
Explanation: The text highlights the challenge of conducting similar experiments with humans due to ethical and practical constraints in assigning babies to specific parents for the purpose of studying nature-nurture influences.
What method allows researchers to observe nature-nurture influences in humans by comparing similarities among individuals based on biological relationships?
A) Behavioral genetics
B) Twin studies
C) Adoption studies
D) Quantitative genetics
D) Quantitative genetics
Explanation: Quantitative genetics involves analyzing similarities among individuals based on their biological relationships, encompassing methods like twin studies, adoption studies, and examination of extended families.
Which scenario best exemplifies the influence of genetics in determining a human trait according to the text?
A) Fraternal twins raised together having similar heights
B) Identical twins displaying differences in spoken language
C) Adoption of a child by parents of different heights impacting the child’s growth
D) Identical twins showing almost perfect similarity in height
D) Identical twins showing almost perfect similarity in height
Explanation: The text illustrates that identical twins, who share the same DNA, exhibit high similarity in traits influenced by genetics, such as height.
What cautionary note does the text provide regarding heritability coefficients?
A) They are straightforward to interpret and apply universally.
B) They offer a precise measure of the impact of genetics on a trait.
C) They are deceptively simple to interpret despite their complexity.
D) They provide concrete answers regarding the influence of genetics on behavior.
C) They are deceptively simple to interpret despite their complexity.
Explanation: The text cautions that while heritability coefficients provide a measure of genetics’ influence on a trait, they are difficult to interpret accurately due to their complexity.
Darwin’s theory of sexual selection addresses the evolution of characteristics that:
A) Are exclusively beneficial for survival in harsh climates.
B) Offer direct advantages in intrasexual competition.
C) Enhance reproductive success rather than aiding survival.
D) Promote traits and behaviors solely for preferential mate choice.
Answer: C) Enhance reproductive success rather than aiding survival.
Explanation: Sexual selection focuses on traits that contribute to reproductive success, even if these traits may not directly contribute to survival, as seen in the examples of the peacock’s plumage or stag’s antlers.
In the context of intrasexual competition, which statement aligns with the concept of sexual selection, as explained in the text?
A) Traits contributing to survival success are favored for mating.
B) Qualities leading to success in competition diminish reproductive success.
C) Characteristics enhancing mating opportunities may conflict with survival.
D) Behaviors promoting survival success are prioritized over mating advantage.
C) Characteristics enhancing mating opportunities may conflict with survival.
Explanation: The text highlights how certain traits or behaviors that aid in mating success (like large antlers in stags or physical contests in humans) might hinder survival success due to their association with mating advantages.
According to the text, what distinguishes human mate choice from that of other animals in terms of sexual selection?
A) Humans exhibit exclusively intrasexual competition for mate selection.
B) Human mate choice is influenced solely by survival adaptations.
C) Mutual mate choice exists, allowing both sexes to have a say in selecting mates.
D) Mate choice in humans is primarily influenced by preferential selection of physical traits.
C) Mutual mate choice exists, allowing both sexes to have a say in selecting mates.
Explanation: Unlike some animals where one sex has dominant control over mate choice, humans exhibit mutual mate choice, where both men and women typically have input in selecting their mates.
Inclusive fitness, as mentioned in the text, refers to genes influencing organisms:
A) To maximize survival and reproduction within the same species.
B) To support the survival and reproduction of genetic relatives.
C) To solely prioritize individual reproductive success over relatives.
D) To suppress the effects of genes in other organisms.
Answer: B) To support the survival and reproduction of genetic relatives.
Explanation: Inclusive fitness involves genes influencing an organism’s behavior to aid the survival and reproduction of genetic relatives, as it enhances the likelihood of passing on shared genetic material.
Evolutionary psychology primarily focuses on:
A) Physiological adaptations due to environmental changes.
B) Psychological adaptations developed for survival and reproduction.
C) Physical changes influenced by cultural practices.
D) Behavioral adaptations unrelated to environmental factors.
B) Psychological adaptations developed for survival and reproduction.
Explanation: Evolutionary psychology studies the mind’s mechanisms evolved to solve specific survival and reproductive problems, contrasting them with physiological adaptations that occur in response to environmental factors.
According to the text, what distinguishes psychological adaptations from physiological adaptations?
A) Psychological adaptations rely solely on cultural influences.
B) Physiological adaptations occur as a response to environmental input.
C) Psychological adaptations involve changes in the body due to external factors.
D) Physiological adaptations refer to changes in mental processes for survival.
B) Physiological adaptations occur as a response to environmental input.
Explanation: Physiological adaptations, like callus formation, occur in the body as a result of specific environmental stimuli. Psychological adaptations, such as sexual jealousy, involve changes in mental processes in response to environmental triggers.
In evolutionary psychology, the theory of sexual strategies suggests:
A) Both men and women have identical mating preferences.
B) Men tend to invest more in long-term relationships than women.
C) Women exhibit higher variability in short-term mating choices.
D) Differences in parental investment shape mating strategies in men and women.
D) Differences in parental investment shape mating strategies in men and women.
Explanation: Sexual strategies theory highlights how differences in minimum parental investment between men and women lead to varied mating strategies, influencing preferences and behaviors in short-term and long-term relationships.
Error Management Theory (EMT) predicts that humans:
A) Overestimate risks in uncertain situations to avoid costly errors.
B) Prefer choices that maximize errors in judgment for learning purposes.
C) Are equally cautious in evaluating risky and safe options.
D) Exhibit biased perceptions based on cultural and societal norms.
A) Overestimate risks in uncertain situations to avoid costly errors.
Explanation: EMT posits that humans evolved to prefer choices minimizing the cost of errors in judgment, favoring options that reduce the risk of severe consequences, even if it means overestimating potential threats.
What characterizes the epigenome in contrast to the genome?
A) It remains static across cell types and tissues.
B) It is highly dynamic and varies among cells, tissues, and brain regions.
C) It consists of the same sequence in all cells.
D) It primarily influences physical growth but not mental development.
B) It is highly dynamic and varies among cells, tissues, and brain regions.
The epigenome differs among cell types, tissues, and brain regions, unlike the static nature of the genome.
According to the text, what does the term “phenotypic plasticity” refer to?
A) The ability of the brain to form neural connections rapidly.
B) The generation of varied morphology, physiology, and behavior from a single genome in response to environmental changes.
C) The formation of stable neural connections during childhood.
D) The rapid changes in synaptic properties and excitability in the adult brain.
B) The generation of varied morphology, physiology, and behavior from a single genome in response to environmental changes.
Explanation: Phenotypic plasticity involves developing different outcomes from a single genome due to environmental variations, aiding organisms in navigating their environment.
What has research found about the influence of DNA sequence variation on personality traits and mental health?
A) DNA sequence variation explains the majority of the risk for inheritance of mental disorders.
B) DNA sequence variation has no significant impact on personality traits.
C) DNA sequence variation and rare mutations account for only a small fraction of the total risk for inheritance.
D) DNA sequence variation’s influence is confined to brain development, not mental health.
C) DNA sequence variation and rare mutations account for only a small fraction of the total risk for inheritance.
Explanation: Research suggests that common DNA sequence variation and rare mutations contribute minimally (1%–2%) to the overall risk for the inheritance of personality traits and mental disorders.
What does epigenetics refer to in the context of gene expression?
A) Gene expression determined solely by DNA sequence.
B) The transmission of phenotype without changes in DNA sequence.
C) The study of the genome’s static nature in all cells.
D) The influence of environmental factors on genetic mutations.
B) The transmission of phenotype without changes in DNA sequence.
Explanation: Epigenetics involves the transmission of gene expression patterns without alterations in the DNA sequence, impacting the phenotype.
Which specific DNA bases primarily form CpG dinucleotides targeted for methylation in mammalian genomes?
A) Adenine (A) and thymine (T)
B) Cytosine (C) and adenine (A)
C) Cytosine (C) and guanine (G)
D) Thymine (T) and guanine (G)
C) Cytosine (C) and guanine (G)
Explanation: DNA methylation primarily occurs at cytosines followed by guanines (CpG dinucleotides).
What enzymes perform DNA methylation by transferring a methyl group to cytosine?
A) DNA polymerases
B) DNA demethylases
C) Histone acetyltransferases (HATs)
D) DNA methyltransferases (DNMTs)
D) DNA methyltransferases (DNMTs)
Explanation: DNA methyltransferases (DNMTs) catalyze the transfer of a methyl group to cytosine residues.
How does methylation in gene regulatory regions (promoters/enhancers) generally affect gene expression?
A) Enhances gene activation
B) Causes DNA demethylation
C) Results in gene silencing and reduced expression
D) Stimulates histone acetylation
C) Results in gene silencing and reduced expression
Explanation: Methylation in gene regulatory regions usually leads to gene silencing and reduced gene expression.
What is the primary association of histone acetylation with respect to gene expression?
A) Gene silencing and decreased expression
B) DNA methylation and reduced gene activation
C) Gene activation and increased expression
D) Histone deacetylation and enhanced gene activity
C) Gene activation and increased expression
Explanation: Histone acetylation is generally associated with gene activation and increased gene expression.
In rats, what long-term effects were observed due to variations in maternal care during the offspring’s first week of life?
A) Increased DNA methylation and reduced stress responsiveness
B) Decreased histone acetylation and enhanced cognitive performance
C) Lower hormonal stress response and altered glucocorticoid receptor expression
D) Enhanced histone deacetylation and decreased gene expression
C) Lower hormonal stress response and altered glucocorticoid receptor expression
Explanation: Rat pups experiencing different maternal care levels showed altered stress responses and glucocorticoid receptor expression in adulthood.
What experimental treatment reversed the effects of poor maternal care in rats by influencing histone acetylation and DNA methylation?
A) Dietary amino acid supplementation
B) Histone acetyltransferase inhibitors
C) DNA demethylating agents
D) Histone deacetylase inhibitors
D) Histone deacetylase inhibitors
Explanation: Treatment with HDAC inhibitors influenced histone acetylation and reversed the effects of poor maternal care in rats.
What did the examination of post-mortem brain tissue from healthy human subjects reveal about the glucocorticoid receptor gene promoter?
A) Increased DNA methylation due to stress
B) Similarity to rat glucocorticoid receptor gene regulation
C) Unique characteristics specific to each individual
D) Consistent gene silencing in all subjects
C) Unique characteristics specific to each individual
Explanation: Human glucocorticoid receptor gene promoter was unique to each individual in the study.
In the study on bipolar disorder patients, what was strongly related to the degree of DNA methylation of the glucocorticoid receptor gene promoter?
A) Presence of histone modifications
B) Childhood maltreatment
C) Individual genetic variations
D) Maternal care during infancy
B) Childhood maltreatment
Explanation: The degree of DNA methylation was strongly related to reported childhood maltreatment in bipolar disorder patients.
What potential did the examination of blood samples from bipolar disorder patients provide?
A) A replacement for current diagnostic methods
B) Identification of unique histone markers
C) A potential blood test for physiological traces of early experiences
D) Enhanced prediction of genetic diseases
C) A potential blood test for physiological traces of early experiences
Explanation: Blood samples revealed a potential for a blood test measuring physiological traces of early experiences.
What does the text suggest regarding the use of blood tests based on epigenetic measures?
A) A direct replacement for current diagnostic methods
B) Providing unique genetic insights not found in brain samples
C) Contributing additional information about disease manifestation
D) Limited utility compared to brain sample analysis
C) Contributing additional information about disease manifestation
Explanation: Blood tests using epigenetic measures add unique information about disease manifestation in addition to existing diagnostic methods.
How do nutrients influence the epigenome regarding DNA methylation and histone modifications?
A) Nutrients directly alter the DNA sequence
B) Nutrients inhibit histone deacetylases
C) Nutrients regulate availability of substrates for enzymatic reactions
D) Nutrients prevent DNA polymerase activity
C) Nutrients regulate availability of substrates for enzymatic reactions
Explanation: Nutrients can influence the epigenome by altering the availability of substrates necessary for DNA methylation and histone modifications.
What was observed in the offspring of rat mothers fed a low-methyl group donor diet during pregnancy?
A) Increased DNMT-1 expression
B) Reduced histone acetylation
C) Decreased DNA methylation and increased gene expression
D) Enhanced cognitive abilities
C) Decreased DNA methylation and increased gene expression
Explanation: Offspring of rats on a low-methyl group donor diet showed decreased DNA methylation and increased gene expression.
What association was found between prenatal famine exposure and offspring health risks?
A) Increased birth weight and insulin sensitivity
B) Lower rates of obesity and coronary heart disease
C) Higher birth weight and improved glucose tolerance
D) Various risks like obesity and increased rates of coronary heart disease
D) Various risks like obesity and increased rates of coronary heart disease
Explanation: Famine exposure during different stages of gestation was associated with several risks like obesity and increased coronary heart disease rates.
In what context does DNA methylation have an impact on synaptic plasticity and cognitive functions?
A) Promotion of histone acetylation
B) Role in neural gene expression regulation
C) Impaired synaptic transmission
D) Prevention of dendritic development
B) Role in neural gene expression regulation
Explanation: DNA methylation impacts synaptic plasticity and cognitive functions by regulating neural gene expression.
How do changes in histone modifications influence long-term memory formation?
A) By reducing synaptic transmission
B) Through decreased gene expression
C) By promoting chromatin accessibility and gene expression
D) Via inhibition of DNA methylation
C) By promoting chromatin accessibility and gene expression
Explanation: Changes in histone modifications support long-term memory formation by promoting chromatin accessibility and gene expression.
Which intellectual disability disorder is associated with a mutation in the MECP2 gene?
A) Rubinstein-Taybi syndrome (RTS)
B) Down syndrome
C) Rett syndrome
D) Fragile X syndrome
C) Rett syndrome
Explanation: Rett syndrome is associated with a mutation in the MECP2 gene.
What is the role of MECP2 in the cell?
A) Preventing dendritic and synaptic development
B) Reading DNA sequence and detecting histone acetylation
C) Promoting genome-wide histone methylation
D) Ensuring proper packaging of DNA within the cell
: B) Reading DNA sequence and detecting histone acetylation
Explanation: MECP2 reads DNA sequences, checks for DNA methylation, and binds to areas with methylation.
What cognitive impact is associated with a mutation in the CBP gene?
A) Improved synaptic plasticity
B) Enhanced genome-wide histone acetylation
C) Learning and memory deficits
D) Increased neurogenesis in adult brains
C) Learning and memory deficits
Explanation: Mutation in the CBP gene is associated with learning and memory deficits.
How do environmental cues affect neurobehavioral development through histone-modifying enzymes?
A) By reducing neuronal growth and differentiation
B) By directly altering DNA sequences
C) By promoting epigenetic status and regulating neurogenesis
D) By inhibiting gene expression in the brain
C) By promoting epigenetic status and regulating neurogenesis
Explanation: Environmental cues regulate neurobehavioral development through histone-modifying enzymes by promoting epigenetic status and regulating neurogenesis
What might epigenetic studies help identify regarding psychological disorders?
A) Novel therapeutic targets
B) Sole genetic causes of disorders
C) Direct replacements for existing diagnostic methods
D) Environmental factors unrelated to disorders
A) Novel therapeutic targets
Explanation: Epigenetic studies may help identify novel therapeutic targets for psychological disorders.
How does an action potential travel from one neuron to another?
A) Synaptic gap
B) Myelin sheath
C) Dendritic spine
D) Axon terminal button
A) Synaptic gap
Explanation: The action potential travels across the synaptic gap between neurons.
Which glia cell forms the myelin sheath around axons?
A) Astrocytes
B) Oligodendroglia
C) Microglia
D) Bipolar cells
B) Oligodendroglia
Explanation: Oligodendroglia cells form the myelin sheath around axons in the brain.
Which neuron type typically communicates sensory and motor information in the brain?
A) Bipolar neurons
B) Unipolar neurons
C) Multipolar neurons
D) Pyramidal neurons
C) Multipolar neurons
Explanation: Multipolar neurons commonly communicate sensory and motor information within the brain.
What structures are involved in transmitting sensory perception, like light perception in the retina?
A) Axons
B) Synapses
C) Unipolar neurons
D) Bipolar neurons
D) Bipolar neurons
Explanation: Bipolar neurons are involved in sensory perception, such as light perception in the retina.
Which cell type does not actively participate in intercellular communication in the brain?
A) Oligodendroglia
B) Astrocytes
C) Microglia
D) Neurons
A) Oligodendroglia
Explanation: Oligodendroglia cells are a type of glia cell that supports neurons but doesn’t actively participate in intercellular communication.
What is the primary function of dendrites in a neuron?
A) Transmit action potentials
B) Initiate an action potential
C) Receive information from other neurons
D) Generate neurotransmitters
C) Receive information from other neurons
Explanation: Dendrites are the main source of input for a neuron, receiving information from other neurons.
Which neuron type has one axon and no dendrites?
A) Bipolar neurons
B) Multipolar neurons
C) Unipolar neurons
D) Pyramidal neurons
C) Unipolar neurons
Explanation: Unipolar neurons have one axon and no dendrites, ideal for relaying information forward.
What is the approximate size of the synaptic gap between neurons?
A) 5 millimeters
B) 5 nanometers
C) 5 micrometers
D) 5 centimeters
B) 5 nanometers
Explanation: The synaptic gap between neurons is approximately 5 nanometers in size.
What is the primary role of the myelin sheath surrounding axons?
A) Increase the speed of nerve impulses
B) Increase the size of the neuron
C) Support the axon’s structure
D) Generate electrical signals
A) Increase the speed of nerve impulses
Explanation: The myelin sheath helps speed up nerve impulses along axons.
Which cell type digests debris of dead neurons and carries nutritional support to neurons?
A) Astrocytes
B) Oligodendroglia
C) Microglia
D) Pyramidal neurons
C) Microglia
Explanation: Microglia cells are responsible for digesting debris of dead neurons and providing nutritional support to neurons.
What is the approximate resting membrane potential of a neuron?
A) -20 mV
B) -50 mV
C) 0 mV
D) +20 mV
B) -50 mV
Explanation: The resting membrane potential of a neuron is typically around -70 mV.
What causes the change in the charge or potential of a cell from its resting membrane potential toward depolarization?
A) EPSPs
B) IPSPs
C) Electrostatic pressure
D) Equilibrium potential
A) EPSPs
Explanation: Excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs) cause depolarization toward the threshold of excitation.
Which force causes chloride ions (Cl–) to move outside the cell at rest?
A) Diffusion
B) Electrostatic pressure
C) ATP energy
D) Ionotropic receptors
B) Electrostatic pressure
Explanation: Electrostatic pressure pushes Cl– ions outside the cell due to their negative charge.
At what voltage does the membrane potential typically need to reach to initiate an action potential?
A) +30 mV
B) -20 mV
C) +50 mV
D) -50 mV
D) -50 mV
Explanation: The threshold of excitation, typically around -50 mV, initiates an action potential.
What is the primary role of the sodium-potassium pump in neurons?
A) Moves K+ out and Na+ in
B) Moves K+ in and Na+ out
C) Moves Cl– out of the cell
D) Regulates EPSPs and IPSPs
A) Moves K+ out and Na+ in
Explanation: The sodium-potassium pump moves 3 Na+ ions out in exchange for bringing 2 K+ ions inside the cell.
Which force opposes the movement of potassium (K+) outside the cell at rest?
A) Diffusion
B) Electrostatic pressure
C) Ion channels
D) ATP energy
B) Electrostatic pressure
Explanation: Electrostatic pressure pushes K+ inside the cell due to the negative charge inside.
What initiates the release of neurotransmitters from the presynaptic terminal button into the synaptic gap?
A) Depolarization of the cell
B) ATP energy release
C) Ionotropic receptors activation
D) IPSP summation
A) Depolarization of the cell
Explanation: Action potentials trigger the release of neurotransmitters into the synaptic gap.
Which potentials are smaller and graded in strength compared to action potentials?
A) EPSPs and IPSPs
B) Resting membrane potentials
C) Equilibrium potentials
D) Threshold potentials
A) EPSPs and IPSPs
Explanation: EPSPs and IPSPs are smaller and graded in strength compared to action potentials.
What potential typically marks the initiation of an action potential?
A) Threshold of excitation
B) Resting membrane potential
C) Equilibrium potential
D) Hyperpolarization potential
A) Threshold of excitation
Explanation: The action potential is triggered when the membrane potential reaches the threshold of excitation.
How do EPSPs and IPSPs interact within a neuron?
A) They summate or cancel each other out
B) They maintain separate paths
C) They generate action potentials
D) They trigger neurotransmitter release
A) They summate or cancel each other out
Explanation: EPSPs and IPSPs either sum together or cancel each other out depending on their strengths and directions.
What initiates the rising or depolarizing phase of the action potential?
A) Closing of K+ channels
B) Opening of voltage-dependent Na+ channels
C) Increased permeability to Cl- ions
D) Activation of GABA receptors
B) Opening of voltage-dependent Na+ channels
Explanation: Depolarization is caused by the influx of Na+ when these channels open.
What is responsible for the hyperpolarizing phase of the action potential?
A) Activation of NMDA receptors
B) Closing of voltage-dependent Na+ channels
C) Movement of K+ out of the cell
D) Inactivation of the sodium-potassium pump
C) Movement of K+ out of the cell
Explanation: During hyperpolarization, K+ moves out, helping the cell return to its resting potential.
What occurs during the refractory period of an action potential?
A) The cell becomes more sensitive to neurotransmitters
B) Na+ channels reopen for another action potential
C) The action potential can only move in one direction
D) The cell potential becomes more positive
B) Na+ channels reopen for another action potential
Explanation: The refractory period prevents immediate re-firing by keeping Na+ channels closed.
How does myelin affect the action potential?
A) It slows down the propagation of the action potential
B) It prevents the action potential from reaching the terminal button
C) It allows ions to flow freely between intracellular and extracellular fluids
D) It facilitates saltatory conduction by skipping some regions
D) It facilitates saltatory conduction by skipping some regions
Explanation: Myelin speeds up the process by enabling the action potential to jump between nodes of Ranvier.
What process occurs when neurotransmitters do not bind to receptors in the synaptic gap?
A) Reuptake
B) Enzymatic breakdown
C) Glial cell inactivation
D) Ion channel activation
A) Reuptake
Explanation: Unbound neurotransmitters are taken back into the presynaptic terminal button in a process called reuptake.
Which neurotransmitter activates NMDA receptors, causing an EPSP?
A) Glutamate
B) GABA
C) Acetylcholine
D) Dopamine
A) Glutamate
Explanation: Glutamate activates NMDA receptors, leading to an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP).
Hormonal communication differs from neural communication primarily in:
A) Rapidity of message transmission
B) Target cell specificity
C) The number of pathways available
D) The method of message transmission
C) The number of pathways available
Explanation: Hormonal communication uses the circulatory system, allowing messages to reach various cells, while neural communication relies on specific nerve tracts.
Hormonal messages take longer to occur because they are:
A) Analog and graded
B) Digital and all-or-none
C) Rapid and immediate
D) Influenced by specific receptors
A) Analog and graded
Explanation: Hormonal messages are analog, unlike digital neural messages, and can take seconds to hours to manifest.
Hormones affect behavior by:
A) Directly causing specific behaviors
B) Altering input systems
C) Influencing probability of behavioral responses
D) Regulating neurotransmitter levels
C) Influencing probability of behavioral responses
Explanation: Hormones change the likelihood of specific behaviors in appropriate situations but do not directly cause behaviors.
Hormones primarily influence behavior by affecting:
A) Central processing systems
B) Effector organs
C) Input systems
D) Sensory capabilities
A) Central processing systems
Explanation: Hormones can impact neural architecture, neural processing speed, and higher cognitive processes.
Testosterone concentrations in men can be affected by:
A) Losing a fight
B) Winning a game
C) Participating in physical combat
D) Witnessing a competitive event
A) Losing a fight
Explanation: Losing a fight can reduce testosterone concentrations in men for days or even weeks.
Hormonal secretions from developing gonads:
A) Determine neural processing speed
B) Influence behavioral sex differences
C) Control neurotransmitter levels
D) Impact sensory capabilities
B) Influence behavioral sex differences
Explanation: Gonadal steroid hormones influence the development of behavioral traits in males and females.
Steroid hormones have organizational effects on behavior that occur:
A) Early in development
B) During puberty
C) Only in adulthood
D) During senescence
A) Early in development
Explanation: Steroid hormones have lasting organizational effects on behavior, particularly during early developmental stages.
The three interacting components that form the framework for understanding hormonal effects on behavior include:
A) Neurotransmitters, receptors, and hormones
B) Input systems, integrators, and effector organs
C) Endocrine glands, neurotransmitters, and effectors
D) Synaptic gaps, hormonal pathways, and neural systems
B) Input systems, integrators, and effector organs
Explanation: These components outline how hormones influence behavior by affecting sensory inputs, central processing, and responses.
Toy preferences in vervet monkeys suggest:
A) Strong genetic predispositions
B) Limited exposure to toy types
C) Learned behaviors based on gender
D) Similar preferences across both sexes
A) Strong genetic predispositions
Explanation: Female and male vervet monkeys show distinct preferences for gender-typical toys, suggesting genetic influences.
Hormones might influence a child’s preference for specific toys by:
A) Regulating neurotransmitter levels
B) Shaping brain development
C) Controlling muscle growth
D) Modulating sensory input
B) Shaping brain development
Explanation: Hormones during development might affect neural circuits associated with specific preferences.
Sex differences in human behaviors:
A) Only occur in adulthood
B) Arise primarily due to genetic factors
C) Are strongly influenced by hormonal secretions
D) Have no link to gonadal hormone exposure
C) Are strongly influenced by hormonal secretions
Explanation: Hormonal secretions from developing gonads play a significant role in shaping behavioral sex differences.
Behavioral dimorphism in boys and girls includes differences in:
A) Cognitive abilities
B) Physical appearance
C) Hormonal secretions
D) Neurotransmitter levels
A) Cognitive abilities
Explanation: Boys and girls often show differences in cognitive abilities and behavioral tendencies
The sight of a territorial intruder in male birds can:
A) Increase hormone levels
B) Reduce neural processing speed
C) Alter neurotransmitter levels
D) Enhance sensory capabilities
A) Increase hormone levels
Explanation: Sight of a territorial intruder can elevate testosterone levels in male birds.
Toy manufacturers’ observed gender preferences:
A) Reflect strong gender biases
B) Are solely based on marketing strategies
C) May be influenced by children’s inherent preferences
D) Indicate a lack of toy variety
C) May be influenced by children’s inherent preferences
Explanation: Children’s inherent preferences may influence observed gender-based toy preferences.
The primary difference between hormonal and neural communication is:
A) The speed of transmission
B) The type of receptors involved
C) The method of signal transmission
D) The number of pathways available
D) The number of pathways available
Explanation: Hormonal communication uses the circulatory system, providing more extensive pathways compared to neural communication, which relies on specific nerve tracts.
What is the primary reason behind boys’ preference for certain toys like balls or toy cars?
A) The appeal of colors like pink and red
B) Toys that promote rough and tumble play
C) Toys that encourage quiet and solitary play
D) Toys that involve complex construction
B) Toys that promote rough and tumble play
Which hormone-related observation suggests a potential link to toy preferences?
A) A decrease in testosterone levels after a competitive event
B) Higher androgen exposure in girls diagnosed with congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)
C) Decreased estrogen levels in boys engaging in rough play
D) Similar testosterone levels in boys and girls during play activities
B) Higher androgen exposure in girls diagnosed with congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)
What age range shows a fixed sex difference in toy preferences according to the text?
A) 12 to 24 months
B) 24 to 36 months
C) 6 to 12 months
D) 3 to 6 months
A
Why do males typically exhibit more aggression than females across species, including humans?
A) Higher blood concentrations of cortisol in males
B) Greater sensitivity to social cues
C) Typically higher androgen concentrations in males
D) Increased estrogen levels in males
C) Typically higher androgen concentrations in males
In mammalian sexual differentiation, what regulates morphological sex?
A) Chromosomal sex
B) Gonadal sex
C) Hormonal sex
D) Behavioral sex
C
What is the primary factor inducing maternal aggression in rodents?
A) High levels of estrogen during pregnancy
B) Seasonal variations in blood plasma concentrations
C) Elevated levels of cortisol during lactation
D) Progesterone concentrations after parturition
D
In humans, what hormones have been associated with increased maternal responsiveness?
A) High levels of cortisol
B) Elevated levels of estrogen
C) Decreased progesterone levels
D) Increased testosterone concentrations
A
Which brain region is critical for the expression of rat maternal behavior?
A) Amygdala
B) Hippocampus
C) Prefrontal cortex
D) Medial preoptic area
D
What is the primary difference in cognitive abilities between males and females according to the text?
A) Verbal skills
B) Visual-spatial skills
C) Mathematical abilities
D) Fine motor skills
B
Which phrase best describes the influence of hormones on aggression in male mice?
A) Activational effects of steroid hormones
B) Organization and activation by androgens
C) Dependent on estrogen concentrations
D) Controlled solely by testosterone
B
What is the primary function of psychopharmacology?
A) Exploring the historical usage of drugs in human societies
B) Analyzing the interactions between behavior, brain, and drugs
C) Investigating the psychological effects of food consumption
D) Studying the evolution of neurotransmitters in the brain
B) Analyzing the interactions between behavior, brain, and drugs
How do psychoactive drugs primarily alter neuronal communication?
A) By inhibiting neurotransmitter release
B) By enhancing synapse formation
C) By changing the structure of neurons
D) By modifying neurotransmitter activity at synapses
D) By modifying neurotransmitter activity at synapses
Which term describes drugs that reduce activity at the synapse?
A) Stimulants
B) Antagonists
C) Agonists
D) Neurotransmitters
B) Antagonists
What is the primary significance of pharmacokinetics in understanding psychoactive drugs?
A) Determining the psychological effects of drug administration
B) Evaluating the impact of drugs on specific neurotransmitters
C) Understanding how drugs alter neuronal communication
D) Explaining how the body handles drugs after consumption
D) Explaining how the body handles drugs after consumption
Which drug administration route is known for its rapid drug delivery to the brain?
A) Oral administration
B) Intravenous (IV) injection
C) Inhalation
D) Subcutaneous injection
B) Intravenous (IV) injection
What is a crucial factor contributing to a drug’s high risk for abuse and addiction?
A) The drug’s ability to alter neuronal structure
B) The drug’s direct impact on neurotransmitter synthesis
C) The drug’s rapid access to the brain and activation of reward circuits
D) The drug’s exclusive interaction with specific receptors
C) The drug’s rapid access to the brain and activation of reward circuits
Why are cigarettes considered highly addictive?
A) They contain a high quantity of nicotine
B) They induce immediate neurotransmitter depletion
C) They primarily activate serotonin receptors
D) They modulate neuron development
A) They contain a high quantity of nicotine
How might cues associated with drug use contribute to addiction?
A) By inducing rapid brain metabolism
B) By activating the body’s immune response
C) By causing cravings alleviated by drug use
D) By promoting neuronal regeneration
C) By causing cravings alleviated by drug use
What makes cigarette smoking challenging to quit, according to the text?
A) The adverse impact on brain neurons
B) The immediate effect on neurotransmitter synthesis
C) The association of cues with drug use
D) The extensive damage to brain regions
C) The association of cues with drug use
What difficulty might individuals in drug treatment programs face when exposed to cues associated with drug use?
A) Rapid loss of cravings
B) Risk of immediate relapse
C) Enhanced resistance to drug effects
D) Reduced sensitivity to drug cues
B) Risk of immediate relapse
Where does the breakdown of psychoactive drugs primarily occur?
A) Brain
B) Kidneys
C) Liver
D) Stomach
C) Liver
Which family of enzymes primarily aids in breaking down psychoactive drugs?
A) Serotonin enzymes
B) Dopamine enzymes
C) Cytochrome P450 enzymes
D) GABA enzymes
C) Cytochrome P450 enzymes
What happens with repeated exposure to certain drugs in terms of their effects?
A) Increased potency
B) Reduced effects
C) Prolonged duration
D) Immediate tolerance
B) Reduced effects
Which type of metabolizer experiences an increase in enzymes due to certain drugs like alcohol?
A) Rapid metabolizer
B) Intermediate metabolizer
C) Extensive metabolizer
D) Ultra-extensive metabolizer
D) Ultra-extensive metabolizer
What effect does grapefruit juice have on cytochrome P450 enzymes?
A) Enhances their activity
B) Reduces their activity
C) Triggers enzyme synthesis
D) Alters enzyme structure
B) Reduces their activity
What is the estimated percentage of adults experiencing a serious mental illness?
A) 10%
B) 15%
C) 20%
D) 25%
Answer: D) 25%
What is the predicted second largest contributor to disease burden by 2020?
A) Cancer
B) Heart disease
C) Depression
D) Anxiety disorders
C) Depression
What genetic differences are observed in some cytochrome P450 enzymes?
A) Ability to metabolize fats
B) Ability to break down amino acids
C) Differences in drug metabolism
D) Variation in neurotransmitter synthesis
C) Differences in drug metabolism
What is the term for the use of multiple drugs, which is common in elderly populations?
A) Multidrug syndrome
B) Polypharmacy
C) Pharmacokinetics
D) Drug polyphony
B) Polypharmacy
What concern arises regarding the elderly population’s consumption of psychotropic medications?
A) Risk of accelerated metabolism
B) Increased risk of metabolic disorders
C) Potential impact on bone density
D) Heightened resistance to drug effects
C) Potential impact on bone density
