Pulmonology Flashcards

1
Q

Laryngobrachiobronchitis

A

croup

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2
Q

Croup is most often seen in what age group

A
  • 6 months to 3 years
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3
Q

Most common cause of Croup

A
  • parainfluenza virus
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4
Q
  • Hoarseness, inspiratory stridor, and bark-like cough is associated with
A

croup

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5
Q

What sign on X-ray is associated with croup

A

Steeple sign

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6
Q

How is croup treated?

A
  • cool mist
  • moderate: corticosteroids (Dexamethasone IM)
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7
Q

Abrupt onset of cough in < 4 y.o., must rule out

A
  • Foreign body aspiration
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8
Q

Foreign body is most often found in what part of lung

A
  • Right mainstem bronchus
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9
Q

Diagnostic and curative method for foreign body aspiration

A
  • bronchoscopy
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10
Q

Most common cause of lower respiratory tract infection in children < 1 y.o.

A
  • RSV: respiratory syncytial virus
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11
Q

During what part of the year is RSV: respiratory syncytial virus most common

A

November - April (peak: Jan, Feb)

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12
Q

RSV prophylaxis

A

Palivizumab

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13
Q

what is bronchiolitis

A
  • Lower respiratory tract infection that affects small airways (bronchioles)
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14
Q

Most common cause of bronchiolitis

A
  • RSV
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15
Q

How is RSV diagnosed

A
  • RSV nasopharyngeal swab
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16
Q

Presentation of bronchiolitis

A
  • 2-3 days of URI followed by low grade fever, cough, expiratory wheezing
  • diagnosis is clinical: symptoms, age (<2 y.o.), time of year
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17
Q

Most common fatal autosomal recessive disease in US

A
  • cystic fibrosis
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18
Q

What is cystic fibrosis

A
  • abnormal chloride transport
  • Multi-system
  • causes thick, viscous secretions in lungs, pancreas, liver, intestines, and reproductive tract
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19
Q

How is cystic fibrosis diagnosed

A
  • Sweat chloride test >60 meq/L
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20
Q

Patient presents with bronchiectasis, pancreatic insufficiency, growth delays and infertility. Suspect this diagnosis

A

Cystic fibrosis

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21
Q

If a full term infant presents with meconium at birth, suspect

A

Cystic fibrosis

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22
Q

Most common cause of PNA in children less than 5 y.o.

A
  • Viral PNA, most likely RSV
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23
Q

Most common cause of PNA in ages 5-18 y.o.

A
  • Bacterial
  • S. Pneumonie and Atypicals
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24
Q

Most common cause of community acquired PNA

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

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25
Q

Which PNA-causing bacteria presents with pharyngitis and bullous myringitis

A
  • Mycoplasma pneumoniae
26
Q
  • List the causes of “typical” PNA
A
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • haemophilus influenzae
  • moraxella catarrhalis
27
Q

List the causes of “Atypical” PNA

A
  • Mycoplasma pneumoniae
  • chlamydophilla pneumoniae
  • legionella pneumophila
28
Q
  • Bronchial breath sounds
  • dullness to percussion
  • increase in tactile Fremitus and egophony
A
  • Consilidation consistent with PNA
29
Q

Tx of outpatient community acquired PNA

A
  • A macrolide or doxycycline
30
Q

Hospital acquired PNA, make sure treatment covers

A
  • pseudomonas
31
Q

Vaccination schedule for PCV13

A
  • 2 months
  • 4 months
  • 6 months
  • after 4 y.o.
32
Q

Define asthma

A
  • chronic airway inflammation
  • Reversible obstruction
  • hyper-responsiveness
33
Q

What FEV1/FVC ratio is expected in asthma

A
  • FEV1/FVC will be decreased
  • obstructive pattern
34
Q

What results are expected in a patient with asthma after a bronchodilator is given

A
  • Increase in FEV1 by 12% or > 200mL
35
Q

List Atopic triad

A
  • Atopic dermatitis
  • allergic rhinitis
  • asthma
36
Q

What is peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR)

A
  • Person’s maximum speed of expiration
37
Q

The best objective way to assess severity of asthma exacerbation and patient response in the ED is by peak expiratory flow rate. A response of what percentage shows a response to treatment

A

15%

38
Q

What is the Methacholine challenge test

A
  • Methacholine is a cholinergic drug which promotes bronchoconstriction
  • Positive if FEV1 decreases by 20%
39
Q

What ABG results would you expect in asthma attack

A
  • Respiratory alkalosis due to hyperventilation
40
Q

First line treatment for acute asthma exacerbation

A
  • SABA: short acting beta agonist : albuterol inhlaed
  • every 20 minutes for 3 doses
41
Q

MOA of anticholinergic in treatment of asthma exacerbation

A
  • Have a beneficial effect when added to beta-2 agonist by relieving cholinergic bronchomotor tone and secretions
42
Q

Anticholinergics cause worsening of what condition in men

A
  • BPH
43
Q

LABA should be used in combination with

A

ICS

44
Q

Symbicort

A

Budesonide + Formoterol

45
Q

Beclomethasone (beclovent)

A

ICS- QVAR

46
Q

Flunisolide

A

ICS

47
Q

Triamcinolone (Azmacort)

A

Long acting ICS

48
Q

Advair

A

Fluticasone (ICS) + Salmeterol (LABA)

49
Q

Dulera

A

Mometasone (ICS) + Formoterol (LABA)

50
Q

Pulmicort (budesonide)

A

ICS

51
Q

Aerospan (Flunisolide)

A

ICS

52
Q

Montelukast

A

Leukotriene receptor antagonist

53
Q
  • Symptoms < or = 2 days a week
  • nighttime awakenings < or = 2 times per month
  • FEV1 > 80%
A

Intermittent asthma

54
Q
  • Symptoms > 2 days a week but not daily
  • nighttime awakenings 3-4 x times per month
  • FEV1 > or = 80%
A

Mild persistent asthma

55
Q
  • Symptoms Daily
  • nighttime awakenings > 1x/week
  • FEV1 60-80%
A
  • Moderate persistent asthma
56
Q
  • Symptoms throughout the day
  • nighttime awakening often 7x/week
  • FEV1 <60%
A
  • severe persistent asthma
57
Q

Treatment for intermittent asthma

A
  • SABA prn
58
Q

Treatment for mild persistent asthma

A
  • SABA prn
  • low dose ICS
59
Q

Treatment for moderate persistent asthma

A
  • SABA prn
  • moderate dose ICS OR
  • Low dose ICS + LABA (age >5 y.o.) or LTRA (0-4 y.o.)
60
Q

Treatment for severe persistent asthma

A
  • SABA prn
  • Medium dose ICS + LABA
61
Q

What is hyaline membrane disease

A
  • Infant respiratory distress syndrome
  • Syndrome in premature infants caused by decreased surfactant and structural immaturity in the lungs