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MCAT Prep > Psychology > Flashcards

Psychology Flashcards

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MCAT flashcards
1
Q

Instinctual behaviors

A

genetically coded and happen automatically

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2
Q

What changes instinctual behaviors in humans?

A

cultural learning

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3
Q

adaptive trait

A

trait which increases the reproductive success of an organism

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4
Q

temperament

A

how individuals respond behaviorally and emotionally to environmental stimuli

biologically shaped

ex: two siblings might act very different as infants

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5
Q

heritability

A

how much of a trait is determined by genes alone

score from 0-1 (high heritability)

quantifies genetic versus environmental influence on a trait

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6
Q

example of promoters and regulatory genes shaping expression

A

5-HTT promoter gene can affect serotonin levels and influence depression

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7
Q

example of epigenetics

A

chronic stress can lead to methylation of certain genes which is passed down to future generations

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8
Q

epigenetics

A

study of how behaviors and environment can change gene expression

often involves methylation

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9
Q

patellar reflex

A

knee jerk

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10
Q

4 types of infant reflexes

A

1) Palmar grasp reflex
2) rooting and sucking
3) moro reflex- startled baby
4) babinski reflex- foot

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11
Q

critical period

A

time when experiences imprint development with life-long effects

language learning depends on the critical period

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12
Q

What is the prefrontal cortex? When does it fully develop?

A

prefrontal cortex is responsible for decision making

does not fully develop until 25

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13
Q

crystallized versus fluid intelligence

A

crystallized intelligence refers to knowledge acquired through previous experience, keep this in old age

fluid intelligence refers to being able to think and reason to solve problems, loose this in old age

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14
Q

attribution

A

process by which individuals explain the causes of either their own or other’s behavior

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15
Q

Independent versus dependent variables

A

independent variables are manipulated/selected by the researcher and go on the x-axis

dependent variables are measured in response to the independent variables and go on the y-axis

y-axis DEPENDS on the x-axis

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16
Q

experimental study

A

the researcher manipulates the independent variable and tracks changes in the dependent variable

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17
Q

confounding variable

A

affects both the independent and the dependent variables

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18
Q

mediating variable

A

provides a mechanistic link between an observed relationship between two variables

in between the independent and dependent variable

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19
Q

moderating variable

A

modulates the intensity of a certain relationship

ex: exercise could lessen the relationship between stress and heart attacks

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20
Q

operationalization

A

translating a goal of studying something into a practical way

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21
Q

negative controls

A

do not receive the treatment or intervention of interest

ex: placebo

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22
Q

positive controls

A

receive a treatment that is known to produce some outcome of interest

used to compare a known response to a new response

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23
Q

randomized control trial (RCT)

A

an experimental study where participants are either randomized into a treatment or control group

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24
Q

cross sectional study

A

an observational study in which researches take a set of people representative of a population, measure various things about them, and look for correlations

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25
Q

longitudinal design

A

a cross sectional study that makes multiple observations over time

allows the study to draw correlations over time

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26
Q

can a cross sectional study prove causation?

A

no, cross sectional studies can only prove correlation

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27
Q

protective factors

A

are independent variables associated with a lower risk of a negative outcome

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28
Q

cohort studies

A

subset of longitudinal cross-sectional studies in which a group of subjects is assembled according to some similarity and followed up over time

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29
Q

can experimental studies be longitudal?

A

yes, depending on the length and regularity of treatments and follow ups

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30
Q

case-control studies

A

compare a group of cases to a group of controls

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31
Q

when are case-control studies often used?

A

to determine the cause of a new disease

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32
Q

meta analyses

A

a type of systematic review thought to yield the strongest available evidence on a given topic

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33
Q

what is a huge consideration in the ethics of experimental design?

A

informed consent

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34
Q

validity

A

refers to the extent to which a study’s results are both genuine and generalizable

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35
Q

internal validity

A

refers to the extent to which we can draw casual connections from the study data

can we draw a direct cause and effect from our variables studied? if not, probably lacks internal validity

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36
Q

external validity

A

the extent to which we can generalize our study to real life

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37
Q

test validity

A

how well was the experiment able to test what it intended to test

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38
Q

construct validity

A

how well the experiment assessed what it wanted to

did the variable make sense to test?

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39
Q

example of the difference between test validity and content validity

A

an experiment could have test validity and accurately measure speed, but not assess athletic ability since it didn’t look at strength and flexibility

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40
Q

content validity

A

how well the test covers the full scope of something the researchers wanted to test

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41
Q

criterion validity

A

how well does our test match up with other well-respected tests measuring a similar thing

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42
Q

predictive validity

A

was the experiment accurate in predicting future results?

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43
Q

reliability

A

the extent to which a study results are consistent

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44
Q

prescision

A

how close together experimental measurements are

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45
Q

reliability versus precision

A

precision refers to a specific set of data points while reliability refers to the experiment as a whole

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46
Q

accuracy

A

refers to the closeness of a measurement to the actual, real value that we are measuring

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47
Q

relationship between reliability and validity

A

a reliable experiment must be precise while a valid experiment must be accurate

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48
Q

Likert scale

A

a way to quantify a questionare’s responses

participants select their response on a contiuum

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49
Q

social desirability bias

A

a type of response bias where respondents answer in a way that they think makes them look more socially successful

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50
Q

acquiescense bias

A

a type of response bias or thee tendency to answer “yes” when asked a question, especially when you aren’t sure of the answer

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51
Q

social facilitation

A

people who perform tasks better in group settings where psychological arousal is higher

need other people

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52
Q

When does social facilitation work?

A

for simple, familiar tasks like riding a bike

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53
Q

Yerkes Dodson Law

A

for harder tasks, performance decreases with psychological arousal

performance peaks at mid-level arousal

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54
Q

social loafing

A

people tend to work less hard in group settings

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55
Q

Bystander effect

A

people tend not to offer help if others are around

diffusion of responsibility

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56
Q

deindividuation

A

people lose self-awareness in a large group

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57
Q

group polarization

A

a group of people will arrive at final opinions that are more extreme than the initial positions of the individual members

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58
Q

informational influence

A

people in a group are more likely to stress points in line with the dominant viewpoint

leads to group polarization

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59
Q

normative influence

A

individuals affected by an opinion a majority of the group shares

want to seek social approval

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60
Q

group think

A

irrational decisions made within a group due to pressures towards harmony and individual conformity

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61
Q

illusion of invulnerability

A

characteristic of groupthink

belief that no serious harm will come to the group

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62
Q

what can illusion of invulnerability lead to?

A

excessive risk taking

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63
Q

illusion of morality

A

characteristic of groupthink

unbending belief in the moral righteousness of the group’s cause

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64
Q

illusion of unaniminity

A

characteristic of groupthink

the group assumes the majority of opinions in the group are unanimous

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65
Q

self-censorship

A

characteristic of groupthink

members who disagree with the group do not share their opinions

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66
Q

pressure on dissenters

A

characteristic of groupthink

members feel pressure not to contradict the majority group

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67
Q

collective rationalization

A

characteristic of groupthink

group finds reasons to ignore warnings

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68
Q

excessive stereotyping

A

characteristic of groupthink

negative views of outside groups

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69
Q

mind guards

A

characteristic of groupthink

certain members of the group filter out information that could destabilize consensus

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70
Q

conformity

A

when someone’s behavior, beliefs, or thinking changes to line up with the perspectives of others

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71
Q

what is a key to determining conformity?

A

there is a change in behavior

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72
Q

internalization

A

a genuine change in someone’s beliefs

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73
Q

compliance (subset of conformity definition)

A

when the person conforms, but internally dissents

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74
Q

identification

A

a person’s beliefs only change in the context of the group

outside the group they might have different views

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75
Q

convergence / congruence

A

group has preexisting similar behaviors/beliefs, not conforming

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76
Q

the Asch experiment

A

shows conformity

people will state incorrect answers / change their answer to incorrect if others do

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77
Q

compliance (2nd definition)

A

responses to requests from someone with no power to enforce that request

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78
Q

foot in the door technique

A

a compliance tactic

first make a small request, then follow with a bigger request

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79
Q

door in the face technique

A

a compliance tactic

make a large request you know will be rejected, and follow with a smaller and more reasonable request

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80
Q

low ball technique

A

a compliance tactic

present low price at first, only to raise it at the last minute

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81
Q

obedience

A

a change in behavior in response to a direct request from someone with power to enforce that request

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82
Q

social control

A

the ways social norms are taught, enforced and perpetuated

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83
Q

deviance

A

not following social norms

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84
Q

formal social norms

A

must be encoded somewhere with specific penalties for violations

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85
Q

informal social norms

A

not written down, no fixed penalties

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86
Q

folkways

A

insignificant informal social norms that involve small details, no real penalty for breaking

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87
Q

mores

A

important informal social norms which incur disapproval when violated

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88
Q

taboos

A

even more restrictive norms that generate extreme disapproval

ex: incest

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89
Q

are taboos informal or formal social norms?

A

they can be both

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90
Q

sanctions

A

either positive rewards or negative consequences for violating a social norms

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91
Q

peer pressure

A

the desire for approval from our peers

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92
Q

anomie

A

refers to a situation where there is a poor match between society’s and individual’s norms

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93
Q

what can anomie lead to?

A

a withering of social norms

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94
Q

differential association theory

A

views deviance as behavior that is learned socially

ex: criminals learn in prison

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95
Q

labeling approach

A

focuses on how behavior is affected by being labeled as deviant

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96
Q

primary deviance

A

deviant acts committed before someone gets a label

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97
Q

secondary deviance

A

deviant acts committed after getting a label

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98
Q

strain theory

A

focuses on the role of social and economic pressures that lead someone towards deviance

some people will commit crime under certain circumstances

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99
Q

socialization

A

how we learn social norms

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100
Q

fads

A

a new behavior becomes incredibly popular then fades

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101
Q

mass hysteria

A

irrational fear of a perceived threat

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102
Q

emotional signalling

A

physical stimuli and body language that communicate emotions

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103
Q

different focuses to study emotional signalling

A

cultural focus

gender focus

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104
Q

self-disclosure

A

a strategy of self-presentation

what you choose to disclose about yourself to others

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105
Q

managing appearances

A

a strategy of self-presentation

how you groom yourself, dress, nonverbal signals, etc

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106
Q

ingratiation

A

a strategy of self-presentation

an attempt to influence another person by becoming more likeable

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107
Q

aligning actions

A

a strategy of self-presentation

explaining our actions in a way that makes them more appealing

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108
Q

altercasting

A

a strategy of self-presentation

project an identity on someone and then expect them to act in a certain way

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109
Q

example of altercasting

A

since you’re a professional athlete, I shouldn’t have to tell you to practice

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110
Q

religning actions

A

explicitly expressing our unhappiness with a situation to appear in a certain way

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111
Q

Goffman’s approach to self-presentation

A

we have a front-stage self that we present and act

and we have a more authentic back-stage self

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112
Q

mere exposure effect

A

develop preferences/attraction for familiar people and things in proximity

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113
Q

What regulates/inhibits emotional responses?

A

prefrontal cortex regulates and restrains behavior

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114
Q

Where does emotional arousal come from?

A

the limbic system with the amygdala

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115
Q

secure attachment

A

child feels stress when the caregiver leaves but then is okay

comes from consistent and responsive caregiver

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116
Q

ambivalent attachment

A

child is intensely distressed when caregiver leaves

comes from inconsistent caregiver

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117
Q

avoidant attachment

A

child is not stressed when the caregiver leaves

comes from neglectful caregiver

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118
Q

disoriented attachment

A

child is confused when the caregiver leaves

comes from an abusive caregiver

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119
Q

altruism

A

helping other people at some cost to yourself

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120
Q

examples of social support

A

emotional, informational, tangible/material support and companionship

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121
Q

Fisherian selection

A

mate selection by exaggerated phenotypic appearance

ex: male peacock feathers to attract a mate

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122
Q

example of game theory in ecological interactions

A

should an animal be predatory or cooperative?

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123
Q

interference effect

A

irrelevant information interferes with recall

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124
Q

proactive interference

A

previously learned material can hinder subsequent learning

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125
Q

internal locus of control

A

attributing an outcome/behavior to a personal trait

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126
Q

latent learning

A

refers to learning without a change in behavior

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127
Q

Mead’s theory of identity

A

I - refers to the spontaneous/autonomous part of ourself

me - forms through interactions with others and the social environment

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128
Q

What is merit derived from?

A

achievements / achieved status

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129
Q

What is more important in color vision, cones or rods?

A

cones

cones are the photoreceptors of the eye for color

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130
Q

Cones versus rods

A

cones are the photoreceptors in the retina for color vision, located in the middle part of the retina

rods are the photoreceptors in the retina for light, located on outer part of the retina

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131
Q

saccade

A

a quick jump of the eye from one position to another as it takes in visual stimuli

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132
Q

limen

A

a threshold below which a stimulus is not perceived or not distinguished from another

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133
Q

libido

A

a term used in psychoanalytic theory to describe the energy created by survival and sexual instincts

libido drives all behavior and is part of the ID

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134
Q

negative reinforcement

A

taking something away to produce a desired response

ex: could reward a kid by taking away their chores

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135
Q

affective flattening

A

loss of emotional expression

negative symptom (loss of function)

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136
Q

type II error

A

gives a false negative

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137
Q

type I error

A

gives a false positive

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138
Q

mesolimbic system

A

the reward pathway

includes VTA and nuccleus accumbens

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139
Q

reticular activating system

A

brings about alertness

part of the brainstem

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140
Q

polysomnography

A

a sleep study measuring multiple physiological parameters

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141
Q

EEG

A

measures brain activity

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142
Q

EMG

A

measures muscle activity

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143
Q

What type of brainwaves are associated with complete wakefulness?

A

beta-waves

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144
Q

What type of brainwaves are associated with REM sleep?

A

similar brainwaves to beta-waves

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145
Q

When do a majority of dreams occur?

A

during REM sleep

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146
Q

REM rebound

A

after missing REM cycles one night, the next night we spend more time in REM to catch up

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147
Q

Stage 1 non-REM sleep

A

light sleep

low frequency theta waves found here

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148
Q

Stage 2 non-REM sleep

A

Heart rate and breathing slows

low frequency theta waves found here

Busts of K-complexes and sleep spindles

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149
Q

Stage 3 of non-REM sleep

A

deep sleep

delta waves

memory processing / recovering

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150
Q

How is drowsiness signaled?

A

pineal gland releases melatonin

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151
Q

How is wakefulness signaled?

A

adrenal cortex releases cortisol

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152
Q

dyssomnias

A

disorders impairing regular ability to fall asleep or stay asleep

153
Q

parasomnia

A

sleep disorders that involve abnormal behavior during sleep

154
Q

Freud’s dream content

A

manifest dream –surface level details

latent dream – underlying meaning

155
Q

activation / synthesis model of dreams

A

neurons activate during REM to synthesize experience

156
Q

problem-solving model of dreams

A

dreams process / resolve real problems

157
Q

cognitive theory of dreams

A

dreams visualize our cognitive processes

158
Q

stimulants

A

increase activity of the CNS

mimic the sympathetic nervous system

159
Q

caffeine

A

mild CNS stimulant

antagonizes adenosine (sleepiness) receptors

160
Q

addiction

A

patterns of compulsive behavior that persists despite negative consequences

triggers reward pathways

161
Q

dependence

A

absence of drugs causes withdrawal symptoms

162
Q

nicotine

A

mild CNS stimulant

highly addictive

163
Q

amphetamines

A

stimulants

increased alertness, appetite loss, intense mood swings

164
Q

example of amphetamines

A

adderall and MDMA (ectasy/molly)

165
Q

How does MDMA work?

A

depletes serotonin reserves to produce euphoria

leads to depression after working

166
Q

cocaine

A

strong stimulant

blocks reuptake of serotonin, dopamine and norepinephrine, causing buildup in the brain

167
Q

depressants

A

reduce activity of CNS

168
Q

How does alcohol work?

A

enhances the action of GABA

169
Q

GABA

A

inhibitory neurotransmitter

170
Q

Korsakoff syndrome

A

develops from alcohol abuse

leads to retrograde and anterograde amnesia

171
Q

barbiturates and benzodiazepines

A

depressants

increase GABA activity

172
Q

what type of drug is alcohol?

A

depressant

173
Q

opiods

A

bind to opiod receptors on neurons

depressant

174
Q

opiod receptors normal function

A

endorphins interact with opiod receptors

175
Q

VTA

A

releases dopamine

176
Q

nucleus accumbens

A

dopamine uptake / motivation

177
Q

List Piaget’s stages of cognitive development

A

1) sensorimotor stage (0-2)
2) preoperational stage (2-7)
3) concrete operational stage (7-11)
4) formal operational stage (11-16)

178
Q

sensorimotor stage

A

interact with world through sensory input and motor activity

development of object permanence

development of stranger anxiety at 8-9 months

179
Q

preoperational stage

A

represent objects symbollically with words and images

egocentric

centration: focus on single parameter/ property of an object

minimal abstract reasoning

180
Q

concrete operational stage

A

develop understanding of conservation

loss of egocentrism

logical thinking about concrete objects

181
Q

formal operational stage

A

abstract thinking develops

182
Q

schema

A

ways of organizing our thinking

183
Q

deductive reasoning

A

top down

apply general principles to specifics

184
Q

inductive reasoning

A

bottom up

observe multiple specifics to find general principle

185
Q

mental set

A

framework for conceptualizing a problem and trying to solve

186
Q

functional fixedness

A

see objects as only having a certain function

187
Q

belief perserverance

A

maintaining or strengthening beliefs in face of contradictory evidence

188
Q

hindsight bias

A

in retrospect, events seem more obvious and predictable

189
Q

causation bias

A

thinking that events closely related in time share a causal link

190
Q

heuristics

A

mental shortcuts

fixed processes to arrive at quick answers

191
Q

representativeness heuristic

A

making decisions based on prototypical examples

what is typical

192
Q

availability heuristic

A

how likely we think something is to occur based on readily available information

what is in recent memory

193
Q

Spearman

A

notes correlation in performance in different academic subjects

leads to creating g-factor

194
Q

g-factor

A

general intelligence

underlying capacity that drives performance in many fields

195
Q

Flynn effect

A

describes how IQ scores increased in developed countries throughout the 20th century

196
Q

Gardener

A

came up with the theory of multiple intelligences

197
Q

phonetics

A

study of the physical production and repetition of speech sounds

198
Q

phonology

A

organization of sounds into meaningful units

199
Q

phoneme

A

smallest unit of sound that distinguishes meaning of a word

200
Q

morphology

A

the study of how words are formed

201
Q

syntax

A

how words are joined together to form phrases or sentences

202
Q

semantics

A

focuses on literal meanings

203
Q

pragmatics

A

focuses on non-literal meanings

depends on contexts, body language, tone, etc/

204
Q

Learning Theory of Language (skinner)

A

treats language as a learned behavior based on environmental input (behavior occurs from conditioning)

theory denies innate language capacity

205
Q

Nativist Theory of Language

A

humans have an innate (genetic) capacity for learning language

babies can learn any language

206
Q

generative linguistics

A

grammatical rules which govern syntax

rules about why certain sentence structures do and do not work

207
Q

Interactionist theory

A

language is acquired during social interactions

208
Q

Sapir-Whorf Hypothesis / Lingustic Relativity

A

grammatical categories and vocabulary influence thought

209
Q

Linguistic determinism

A

grammatical categories determine thought

210
Q

aphasia

A

an impaired ability to communicate

211
Q

where is Wernicke’s area located?

A

temporal lobe and left hemisphere

212
Q

where is Broca’s area located?

A

frontal lobe and left hemisphere

213
Q

Wernicke’s aphasia

A

can make proper noises and words, but cannot produce meaning

214
Q

Broca’s aphasia

A

can understand language but not produce sounds

215
Q

arcuate fasciculus

A

connects Broca and Wernicke’s areas

216
Q

conduction aphasia

A

difficulty in repeating words as arcuate fasciculus connecting Broca and Wernicke’s areas is damaged

217
Q

list of universal emotions

A

happiness, sadness, anger, disgust, surprise, fear, contempt

218
Q

what is a biological link between emotion and physiological arousal?

A

amygadala (emotion) has neurons that connect to the hypothalamus which converts the nervous system to the endocrine system

219
Q

behavioral versus physiological manifestions of emotions

A

behavioral - running in response to stimuli

physiological - pupils dilating in response to stimuli

220
Q

James-Lange Theory

A

stimulus to physiological arousal to emotional response

emotions come from physiological arousal

221
Q

Schachter-Singer Theory

A

stimulus to physiological response to cognitive appraisal to emotional response

222
Q

Cannon-Bard Theory

A

stimulus to simultaneous physiological response and emotional response

223
Q

Lazarus Theory

A

stimulus to cognitive appraisal to simultaneous physiological response and emotional response

224
Q

independent stressors

A

stressors that are outside of our control

225
Q

dependent stressors

A

stressors that are effected by our own behavior

226
Q

avoidance-approach conflict

A

want to avoid a bad decision and approach good ones

227
Q

avoidance-avoidance conflict

A

have to decide between two bad choices

228
Q

double avoidance-approach conflict

A

have to decide between two options that both have pros and cons

229
Q

primary stress appraisal

A

recognize stressor

230
Q

secondary stress appraisal

A

assess our ability to deal with stressor

231
Q

distress

A

form of stress with negative effects

232
Q

eustress

A

form of stress with positive effects

233
Q

neustress

A

neutral / inconsequential stress

234
Q

General adaption syndrome

A

alarm, resistance (cortisol) and exhaustion

235
Q

learned helplessness

A

behavior exhibited by a subject after enduring repeated aversive stimuli beyond their control.

236
Q

motivation

A

the underlying purpose for our actions

237
Q

intrinsic motivation

A

enjoyment of activity despite no apparent reward

238
Q

extrinsic motivation

A

external factors drive behavior

ex: money, prestige, etc.

239
Q

drive

A

an excited state produced by a homeostatic disturbance

240
Q

drive reduction theory

A

motivation comes from a desire to return to homeostasis

241
Q

primary drives

A

hunger, thirst, etc

242
Q

secondary drives

A

money, prestige, etc

243
Q

Maslow’s heirarchy of needs

A

physiological needs, safety, love+belonging, self-esteem, and self-actualization

244
Q

self-actualization

A

fulfilling our creativity, talents, and possibilities

245
Q

expectancy-value theory

A

motivation is a reflection of the balance between expectancies and values

expectancies: how successful we think we will be at a task
values: how worthwhile we think the task is

246
Q

self-determination theory

A

emphasis placed on intrinsic motivation

people feel inherently motivated to engage in tasks they are competent at

247
Q

opponent-process theory

A

if a certain emotion provokes an intense reaction, the opposite reaction tends to dominate

ex: stopping drugs and experiencing withdrawal, so user keeps doing drugs

248
Q

attitudes

A

psychological orientations that people have towards another person, activity or topic in general

249
Q

thomas theorem

A

if people define situations as real, those situations have real consequences

250
Q

cognitive dissonance theory

A

the discrepancy when a certain attitude or behavior is confronted with conflicting evidence

people try to relieve and rationalize cognitive dissonance

251
Q

elaboration-likelihood model

A

likelihood of being persuaded to change emotions through either the central route of processing or the peripheral route of processing

252
Q

central route of processing

A

rational decisions based on advantages/disadvantages, deeper thinking/processing, and stable outcomes

253
Q

peripheral route of processing

A

superficial decisions based on gut reactions and surface level thoughts, less stable outcomes

254
Q

social cognitive theory

A

modeling desired attitudes and behaviors of others can be a strong method of changing attitudes

look at other’s attitudes/behaviors, social norms can be a powerful source of persuasion

255
Q

goal of classical conditioning

A

to make an unconditioned response into a conditioned response

256
Q

difference between classical conditioning and operant conditioning

A

operant conditioning relies on a reward

257
Q

acquistion

A

successful conditioning

258
Q

walk through Pavlov’s experiment using proper vocab

A

the dogs show an unconditioned response to salivate when they see meat (unconditioned stimulus)

the unconditioned stimulus is paired with a neutral stimulus (bell rings)

dogs end up salvating for the bell and the neutral stimulus becomes a conditioned stimulus

259
Q

extinction

A

conditioned stimulus stops producing behavior if repeatedly unpaired with unconditioned stimulus

260
Q

habituation

A

repeated stimuli elicit a diminished response over time

get used to the stimuli

261
Q

dishabituation

A

intervening stimulus resensitizes person to original stimulus

262
Q

spontaneous recovery

A

conditioned response re-emerges without another conditioning process

263
Q

discrimination

A

ability to distinguish stimuli from each other

opposite of stimuli generalization

264
Q

reinforcement

A

part of operant conditioning

anything to increase frequency of a behavior

265
Q

punishment

A

part of operant conditioning

anything to decrease frequency of a behavior

266
Q

escape learning

A

learning a behavior to terminate an aversive stimulus

ex: getting out of bed to shut off alarm

267
Q

avoidance learning

A

learning a behavior to prevent an aversive stimulus from occuring at all

ex: cleaning room to avoid getting yelling at

268
Q

example of fixed ratio reinforcement

A

a rat gets a reward after four laps around track

269
Q

most effective partial reinforcement schedule

A

variable ratio schedule

270
Q

shaping

A

gradual approximations of target behavior that are rewarded

271
Q

instinctive drift

A

stop performing behavior and go back to instincts

happens with operant conditioning

272
Q

token economy

A

secondary reinforcers (coins for good behavior) can be exchanged for primary reinforcers (day off)

273
Q

encoding

A

the initial learning of information

274
Q

priming

A

the effect (either positive or negative) of our context on our ability to encode stimuli

275
Q

chunking

A

complex stimulus is broken down into smaller components to encode

ex: phone numbers

276
Q

method of loci

A

helps with encoding by mentally mapping information onto an imagined space

277
Q

does psychological arousal help or hurt encoding?

A

psychological arousal can either help or hurt

too much arousal could lead to panic and anxiety

278
Q

sensory memory

A

instantaneous

temporarily stored

decays quickly

279
Q

3 main categories of memory

A

sensory, short-term and long-term

280
Q

short-term memory

A

tens of seconds to minutes

small capacity, can only hold 5-9 items

281
Q

how is sensory memory changed into short-term memory?

A

attention

282
Q

working memory

A

the cognitive and attentional processes used in short term memory

283
Q

visuospatial sketchpad is a component of what memory?

A

working memory

284
Q

long-term memory

A

information stored for hours to years

storage is not limited

285
Q

visuospatial sketchpad

A

a buffer that holds onto visual + spatial information as it is processed by the working memory

286
Q

other names for semantic memory

A

explicit / declarative

287
Q

other names for procedural memory

A

implicit

288
Q

types of long-term memories

A

semantic, procedural, and episodic

289
Q

semantic memory

A

specific pieces of information

WHAT

290
Q

procedural memory

A

memory of how to do something

HOW

291
Q

episodic memory

A

memory of experiences

292
Q

eidetic memory

A

photographic memory

remember details of stimuli after short exposure

293
Q

iconic memory

A

highly detailed visual image can remain briefly in our perception after stimulus is removed

294
Q

prospective memory

A

memories about plans for the future

295
Q

How is memory stored?

A

organized into hierarchal semantic networks

296
Q

spreading activation

A

a stimulus might activate many associated networks of memories in the brain

297
Q

source monitoring error

A

we correctly remember information, but misattribute its source

298
Q

recall versus recognition

A

recall is active and recognition is passive

299
Q

serial position effect

A

the extreme ends of a list are more likely to be recalled

300
Q

spacing effect

A

recall is more effective when learning process is spaced out

301
Q

dual coding effect

A

studying multiple modalities is more effective than one

302
Q

state-dependent effect

A

more likely to recall certain memories when you are in the same mood as when they were encoded

303
Q

misinformation effect

A

information we subsequently attain can effect how we remember the original event

304
Q

reconstructive memory

A

memory is active

we build memories based on our perception of ourselves, others and context

305
Q

Ebbinghaus forgetting curve

A

repeated rounds of learning slows down forgetting and consolidates more info into long-term memory

306
Q

proactive interference

A

old hurts new

old memories inhibit the consolidation/retrieval of new information

307
Q

retroactive interference

A

new hurts old

new information inhibits the retrieval of old memories

308
Q

retrograde amnesia

A

trouble recalling past events

309
Q

anterograde amnesia

A

trouble storing new memories

310
Q

neurofibrillarly tangles

A

characteristic of alzheimers, along with amyloid plaques

311
Q

What characterizes Korsakoff disease?

A

confabulation –creating elaborate fictional stories

312
Q

What causes Korsakoff disease?

A

deficiencies of thiamine (vitamin B1)

313
Q

neuroplasticity

A

ability for brain to rewire itself (change synaptic connections) in response to learning new information or to compensate for disease/injury

314
Q

attrition bias

A

occurs when people drop out of a long term study

315
Q

reconstructive bias

A

our memories of the past are not as accurate as we think

316
Q

demographic

A

a particular sector of a population

317
Q

informational versus normative influence

A

information –accepting someone’s evidence as reality

normative – believing group’s opinion for social approval

318
Q

compliance versus ingratiation

A

compliance –superficially conforming when actually not believing

ingratiation –attempting to appear more likeable to get people to agree with you

319
Q

fundamental attribution error

A

people tend to overemphasize internal characteristics rather than external factors

320
Q

attribution theory

A

relates to ways in which people try to assign causes to various behaviors and events

321
Q

social clock

A

a culturally specific timetable of when life events should occur

322
Q

example of a social clock

A

getting married at 30 in America

323
Q

activity theory

A

states that elderly people wish to stay active just as much as younger people

324
Q

permissive parenting style

A

low control and high warmth

325
Q

authoritarian parenting style

A

high control and low warmth

326
Q

authoritative parenting style

A

high control and high warmth

327
Q

ambivalent parenting style

A

low control and low warmth

328
Q

parallel play

A

preschool children are more likely to play side by side and observe the other children rather than playing together

329
Q

Kubler-Ross model of stages of facing death and how to remember them

A

denial anger bargaining depression acceptance

death always brings definite acceptance

330
Q

How can you increase statistical power?

A

increase the number of subjects

331
Q

reciprocal determinism

A

people’s behavior is both influenced by other people and the environment and influences other

332
Q

ideal bureacracy

A

works towards promoting its mission

333
Q

Within-subject design

A

allows researchers to control for individual differences between subjects

334
Q

Sensation versus perception

A

Sensation: when a real, physical object’s information is detected by our body (objective)

Perception: our brain’s personal experience of sensory information (subjective)

335
Q

What four properties do sensory receptors communicate?

A

1) location
2) modality / type of stimulus
3) intensity
4) duration

336
Q

gustatory receptors

A

sense of taste

337
Q

hair cells

A

receptors for hearing

convert pressure signals from sound waves into action potentials

also help with rotation / balance

338
Q

mechanoreceptors

A

respond to mechanical stimuli / touch

339
Q

interoceptors

A

provide info about what is going on within the body

340
Q

proprioceptors

A

give us a sense of the relative position of our body in space

341
Q

proximal stimulus

A

what the sensory receptor actually picks up on

342
Q

distal stimulus

A

environmental source of those signals

343
Q

tonic receptors

A

slow to adapt to stimuli

respond to stimuli as long as it is present

344
Q

phasic receptors

A

send a burst of action potentials then stop

fast adaption

345
Q

Signal detection theory 4 choices

A

1) stimuli present + detected : Hit
2) stimuli present + not detected: miss
3) stimuli absent + detected: false alarm
4) stimuli absent + not detected: correct rejection

346
Q

law of pragnanz

A

objects are interpreted in the simplest and most meaningful ways

347
Q

rhodopsin

A

a light sensitive protein round in the rods

348
Q

cornea

A

protects the eye and gathers light

349
Q

ciliary muscle

A

adjusts the eye’s lens

350
Q

choroid

A

supplies the eye with blood

351
Q

visual processing first pathway

A 
rod/cones 
horizontal cells
bipolar cells
amacrine cells
ganglion cells
352
Q

motion parallax

A

objects that are close to us move further across our visual than objects that are far from us

353
Q

serial memory processing

A

systemically giving attention to one thing at a time

354
Q

eustachian tube

A

part of nasal cavity and helps stabilize pressure

355
Q

tympanic membrane

A

eardrum that vibrates in response to sound waves

separates the outer and middle ear

356
Q

oval window

A

separates middle and inner ear

357
Q

hair cells

A

located in the cochlea on the thin basilar membrane

pick up on vibrations in endolymph fluid

358
Q

thin basilar membrane thickness

A

thicker at base of cochlea for high frequency waves

thinner at apex of cochlea for low frequency waves

359
Q

Otolithic organs

A

help us detect linear acceleration and head positioning

calcium carbonate crystals pull on hair cells

would not work well without gravity!

360
Q

Major depressive disorder

A

minimum of a two week period with at least one major depressive episode

361
Q

Anhedonia

A

lack of interest in previously enjoyable activities

362
Q

Dysthymia

A

less intense depression for at least two years

363
Q

Persistent depressive disorder

A

experiencing significant depressive symptoms for more than two years

364
Q

bipolar I

A

primarily maniac

365
Q

bipolar II

A

primarily depressive

366
Q

Illness anxiety disorder

A

no real physical symptoms but worried

367
Q

Somatic symptom disorder

A

worried over a real physical symtom

368
Q

Conversion disorder

A

physical symptoms involving the impairment of sensory and voluntary motor function without a voluntary cause

369
Q

Dissociative amnesia

A

a type of retrograde amnesia in which people lose episodic memories about their lives

370
Q

What is schizophrenia first treated with?

A

neuroleptics

371
Q

What is a common negative symptom of shizophrenia?

A

disturbance of affect

372
Q

Antisocial personality disorder

A

a pervasive pattern of disregard for others

violence and a lack of remorse

373
Q

Borderline personality disorder

A

a tendency for extremely intense but unstable emotions and moods

374
Q

Splitting

A

a feature of borderline personality disorder

people are seen as either completely good or completely bad with no in-between

375
Q

What Parkinson’s affect?

A

causes cell death in substantia nigra which leads to reduced dopamine expression

376
Q

Ego-synnthic

A

personality disorder and goals align

377
Q

Schizoid

A

emotional aloofness and isolation

378
Q

Shizotypal

A

discomfort and “weird” delusions or beliefs

MCAT Prep (22 decks)

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