General Biology Flashcards

1
Q

Do mature red blood cells have genetic materal?

A

No, but they are still eukaryotic

makes them not helpful to study genetic mutations

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2
Q

Endosymbiotic theory

A

mitochondria arose when bacteria was engulfed by another cell

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3
Q

What type of DNA does mitochondria have? Where does it come from?

A

mitochondria has circular mtDNA

comes from mother (matrilinearly)

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4
Q

Does the ER have a double membrane?

A

yes

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5
Q

chaperone proteins

A

help fold proteins in the rough ER

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6
Q

Smooth ER

A

lipid metabolism

detox (many found in liver cells)

stores Ca2+ in muscle cells

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7
Q

Autophagy

A

when lysosomes digest intracellular debris

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8
Q

Where do lyzosomes come from?

A

they pinch off the golgi body

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9
Q

What pH do lyzosomes have?

A

low pH so if their contents spill out they will not work in the cytoplasm

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10
Q

Peroxides

A

breakdown fatty acids through B-oxidation

help detox reactive oxidative species

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11
Q

microfilaments

A

part of the cytoskeleton

composed of actin polymers (protein)

work with cell movement and make the cleavage furrow

work in muscle contraction w/ myosin

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12
Q

Microtubules

A

part of the cytoskeleton

tubulin dimers

motor proteins walk along microtubules

found in flagella and cilia (only in eukaryotes)

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13
Q

Where are cilia located?

A

lungs, fallopian tubes in eukaryotes

made out of microtubules

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14
Q

Motor proteins

A

kinesin (moves up neuron axon, away from cell)

dynein (moves towards the center of the cell)

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15
Q

Centrosome

A

main MTOC

composed of 2 centrioles

separates chromosomes during division

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16
Q

capping proteins

A

can stop growing of microtubulues/microfilaments

also prevent cytoskeletal degradation

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17
Q

+/- ends of microtubules/microfilaments

A

grow at + end and shrink at - end

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18
Q

examples of intermediate filaments

A

keratin and lamin

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19
Q

multimeric proteins

A

contain two or more subunits

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20
Q

examples of multimeric proteins

A

F-actin

intermediate filaments

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21
Q

Difference between nucleotides and nucleosides

A

nucleosides don’t have a phosphate group

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22
Q

What is charge on phoshpate group of nucleotides?

A

negative

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23
Q

cAMP structure

A

one phosphate connected cycllaly to rest of nucleotide

cyclic nucleotide

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24
Q

How many rings do purines have?

A

2

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25
How many rings do pyrimidines have?
1
26
Which amino acids are pyrimidines?
CUT as PY C/U/T
27
Which amino acids are purines?
PUR As Gold A/G
28
Which has a higher Tm A/T pairs or C/G pairs?
C/G pairs since they have 3 hydrogen bonds between them, they have a higher melting temp
29
What interactions are found between adjacent nucleotides?
hydrophobic interactions
30
Chargaff's Rule
1:1 ratio between AT and CG
31
Where is 5' end of nucleic acid?
where the phosphate group is
32
Melting temperature
point where 1/2 of DNA is denatured
33
How to denature DNA
add heat or urea
34
Annealing
two DNA strands come back together
35
Types of DNA
B-DNA: standard DNA, right-hand, 34A between groves A-DNA: right-hand DNA but smaller groves Z-DNA: left hand DNA
36
siRNA and miRNA
can inhibit gene expression by harming mRNA
37
hnRNA
a precursor to mRNA
38
Why is the genetic code degenerate?
it has multiple codons to code for a single amino acid
39
What are the start and stop codons?
Start: AUG (codes for Met) Stop: UAA, UAG, UGA
40
meselson and stahl
determined DNA replication was semi-conservative
41
Differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic DNA replication?
prokaryotes: 1 origin of replication, circular chromosome eukaryotes: multiple origins of replication, linear DNA
42
Helicase
unwinds DNA
43
single stranded binding proteins
keep DNA separated
44
topiosemerase
cuts strands to relax stress / over coiling prevents supercoiling of DNA after opened
45
primase
synthesizes RNA primer for polymerase to bind
46
DNA polymerases
synthesize DNA in 5' to 3' direction read DNA in 3' to 5' direction
47
DNA ligase
connects Ozaki fragments along sugar-phosphate backbone
48
reverse transcriptase
synthesizes DNA from RNA used by viruses, allows DNA to be placed in its hosts' genome
49
telomerase
extends telomeres (repetitive sequences at end of chromosomes) uses RNA template
50
Types of DNA polymerases in bacteria
I: Removes RNA primer, replaces primer w DNA, repairs DNA II: repairs DNA III: synthesizes new DNA and proofreads DNA with exonuclease activity
51
exonuclease activity
helps proofread newly synthesized DNA part of DNA polymerase's function
52
Leading strand
moves towards the replication fork starts at 3' end and moves to 5' end at the fork synthesizes in 5' to 3' direction
53
Lagging strand
discontinous replication synthesizes in 5' to 3' direction moving away from the replication fork towards the 5' end away from the fork
54
What are histones made of?
proteins
55
Kinetochore
protein complexes at the chromosomal centromere kinetochores connect two homologous chromosomes or two sister chromatids spindle fibers connect to the kinetochore
56
What are spindle fibers made of?
microtubules
57
How many chromosomes do humans have?
46 unique chromosomes arranged into 23 pairs
58
What do we start mitosis with?
46 chromosomes that have been replicated to form sister chromatids. Have 46 sister chromatids
59
What do we start meiosis with?
23 pairs of chromosomes matched with another 23 pairs of chromosomes to make homologous chromosomes in tetrad form gives us a total of 46 unique chromosomes 23 replicated, unique chromosomes from each parent
60
Nucleosomes
smaller segments of DNA organized around histones made up of histones (protein) and DNA (nucleic acid)
61
H1 histone
linking protein
62
linker DNA
connects nucleosomes
63
Centromere
holds together two sister chromatids
64
heterochromatin
highly packaged DNA tightly coiled easy to see when stained
65
What form is DNA in during division?
heterochromatin
66
euchromatin
loosely packaged DNA hard to see when stained in this state during transcription and replication
67
VNTR and STR
types of segments of repeating DNA how many repeats a person has can determine their specific DNA identity
68
Single nucleotide polymorphism
also known as SNiP different nucleotides at a single location in a gene
69
Transposons
jumping genes sequences can move to other parts of genome increase diversity and help with evolution
70
Class 1 transposons
use copy and paste mechanism DNA polymerase generates mRNA that codes for reverse transcriptase to make DNA strand to reinsert itself into genome
71
Class 2 transposons
use cut and paste mechanism
72
telomeres
repeating sequence on end of chromosomes allows for wiggle room when replicating end of DNA
73
Autosomes
non-sex chromosomes have 22 pairs
74
What type of cells do not replicate and therefore remain in the G0 phase?
neurons
75
Interphase
contains G1, S, G2 phases DNA is seen as euchromatin to replicate
76
How many chromosomes do we have after DNA replication?
still have 46 unique chromosomes, but amount of DNA material doubled as we created sister chromatids
77
What is the checkpoint in the M phase?
that the spindle fibers are correctly attached
78
What regulates the cell cycle?
cyclin levels
79
What do high levels of cyclin do?
bind to specific cyclin dependent kinases (CDKs) CDKs will phosphorylate proteins needed in that phase of the cell cycle
80
Do prokaryotes undergo mitosis or meiosis?
they do not undergo either
81
Somatic cells
body cells
82
What is the order of the phases of mitosis?
PMAT
83
nondisjunction
failure of homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids to separate, resulting in abnormal chromosome distribution
84
aneuploidy
incorrect number of chromosomes
85
Results of meiosis and mitosis
meiosis: 4 haploid, different cells mitosis: 2 diploid, identical cells
86
crossing over
occurs at chiasmata when tetrad between two pairs of homologous chromosomes overlap
87
Where does meiosis occur?
germ cells
88
after what phase of meiosis are the daughter cells haploid? why?
after meiosis I homologous chromosomes have separated. so now have 23 unique chromosomes that in the form of replicated sister chromatids
89
Difference between flagella of prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
eukaryotes' flagellum are made of microtubules
90
What makes up microfilaments?
actin
91
locus
where genes are located on a chromosome
92
What type of genotype do carriers have?
heterozygous
93
hemizygous
refers to having only one copy of a gene ex: males only have one copy of genes on the Y chromosome
94
Are loss of function mutations recessive or dominant?
recessive
95
Are gain of function mutations recessive or dominant?
dominate
96
Test cross
used to determine if a genotype is RR or Rr cross with a homozygous recessive individual rr and look at outcomes
97
Dihybrid cross normal ratios
9:3:3:1 56% 18% 18% 6%
98
How can you tell if genes are linked from a dihybrid cross?
the ratios will be different than the typical 9:3:3:1 ratio indicates that the genes are linked
99
incomplete dominance
blending of phenotypes in heterozygotes
100
penetrance
% of individuals with a given genotype who display the associated phenotype whether or not phenotype is there
101
example of penetrance
someone may have the gene for breast cancer, but not develop breast cancer
102
expressivity
severity of phenotype to what degree is the phenotype present
103
segregation
allele pairs segregate randomly from each other into gametes
104
independent assortment
alleles for separate traits are independently inherited
105
genetic recombination
crossing over can unlink two genes on the same chromosome
106
genetic linkage
two genes close together on the same chromosome are likely to be inherited together
107
1 centimorgan
distance associated with a 1% change in recombination frequency
108
double crossover
can reverse recombination on genes far away from each other on the same chromosome
109
When does a cell commit to mitosis?
after the G1 phase by starting to replicate DNA, the cell has committed to mitosis unless derailed at later checkpoints
110
fitness
likelihood to survive in a given environment and REPRODUCE
111
inclusive fitness
traits passed on that promote survival of the group ex: altruism and empathy
112
What does the Hardy Weinburg equation connect?
alleles to phenotypic frequency in a population
113
What do terms mean in Hardy Weinburg?
``` 2pq = heterozygous q^2 = homozygous recessive p^2 = homozygous dominant ``` ``` p= dominant allele frequency q = recessive allele frequency ```
114
stabilizing selection
favors intermediate phenotypes
115
directional selection
favors one extreme phenotype
116
disruptive selection
favors extreme phenotypes over the intermediate inverse of stabilizing selection
117
genetic drift
change in gene pool due to chance more likely in smaller populations
118
examples of genetic drift
bottleneck effect and founder effect
119
bottleneck effect
natural disaster leaves small population with certain traits expressed at unnaturally higher levels
120
founder effect
population migrates away and has less genetic variation
121
gene flow
movement of alleles due to migration between populations
122
types of reproductive isolation
prezygotic and postzygotic barriers
123
convergent evolution
species not from same common ancestor develop the same trait
124
parallel evolution
species from same common ancestor develop same traits independently
125
divergent evolution
species from common ancestor evolve different traits
126
coevolution
two or more species evolve in response to each other
127
is symbiosis always beneficial?
no symbiosis can harm one of the species or have no effect
128
mutualism
type of symbiosis where both species benefit
129
commensalism
type of symbiosis where one species benefits and the other feels no effect
130
parasitic
type of symbiosis where one species benefits and the other is harmed
131
archaea
unicellular prokaryotes thrive in extreme temp, pH or salt conditions use unusual energy sources
132
MRSA
multidrug resistant strain of bacteria
133
bacillus
rod shaped bacteria
134
spirilli
spiral shaped bacteria
135
coccus
sphere shaped bacteria
136
aerobes
bacteria that require oxygen
137
obligate anaerobes
bacteria that cannot survive in the prescence of O2
138
aerotolerant anaerobes
tolerate oxygen and can survive
139
facultative anaerobes
can metabolize O2 if present or not
140
plasmids
smaller circular DNA fragments that can be transferred between bacteria
141
What is the bacterial cell wall made up of?
peptidoglycan
142
gram positive bacteria
have a thick peptidoglycan cell wall that allows the gram dye to stick to
143
gram negative bacteria
have a lipopolysaccharide outer membrane that is washed off with ethanol during gram staining makes the bacteria gram negative
144
is it harder to break down gram positive or gram negative bacteria?
gram negative due to their outer membrane
145
svedberg units
describe how long it takes a particle to sediment in a test tube due to centrifugation
146
how can antibotics attack ribosomes?
they can specifically attack the smaller sized ribosomes of bacteria
147
binary fission
how bacteria reproduce single cell divides into two identical daughter cells
148
4 phases of bacterial growth
1) lag phase - bacteria adapt to a new environment, little growth 2) exponential phase 3) stationary phase when population has reached max 4) death phase due to scarce resources for large population
149
transformation
bacteria's ability to absorb genetic material from their environment
150
is horizontal gene transfer bacterial reproduction?
no! the cell only reproduces during binary fission
151
transduction
a bacteriophage (virus) injects bacterial DNA into other bacterias
152
conjugation
special plasmid (fertility factor) is transferred between two bacterial cells using a sex pillus
153
what is viruses goal?
to hijack cellular machinery in order to multiply and spread
154
virion
fully assembled, infectious virus has capsid
155
enveloped viruses
have a protein, capsid must be transferred by bodily fluids
156
example of an enveloped virus
HIV
157
ssRNA + virus
can directly start translation on a ribosome very quick working virus
158
What are the two options for an RNA virus?
must either be immediately translated (ssRNA +) or must be reverse transcribed back into DNA (retrovirus)
159
retrovirus
a virus that uses reverse transcriptase to put RNA back into the host's genome
160
capsid
a protein coat that encloses viruses composed of repeating monomers, form pretty spontaneously
161
viroid
affect plants
162
bacteriophage replication
either virus goes into lytic cycle inside the bacteria host and produces tons of bacteriophages, rupturing the cell or the virus goes into the lysogenic cycle and inserts itself into the bacteria's genome and can later initiate the lytic cycle
163
prions
misfloded proteins that lead to aggregated proteins
164
protozoa
single cell parasites
165
helminths
multicellular worm parasites
166
ectoparasites
exist outside the body like ticks and lice
167
what component of the innate immune system works on parasites?
eosinophils
168
how can recombinant DNA be used?
mass produce proteins (like insulin) make alterations to genes
169
recombinant DNA
DNA that has been formed artifically by combining consitutents from different organisms
170
What are the steps for using recombinant DNA?
1) synthesize a gene sequence or "insert" with proper restriction sites 2) Digest the insert with a restriction enzyme 3) Ligate the vector with the plasmid through DNA ligase 4) Insert the plasmid into the bacteria to replicate 5) Select and isolate bacteria of interest
171
What is one method to see if recombinant DNA is present in bacteria?
include a gene for antibiotic resistance on the DNA vector and insert into bacteria treat bacteria with antibiotic and see if resistant
172
how do restriction enzymes contribute to recombinant DNA?
restriction enzymes cut DNA with sticky ends so the DNA can be inserted into the plasmid
173
definition of gene expression
all the ways in which cells can regulate transcription and translation of genes
174
How can you classify stem cells?
along a scale of potency
175
totipotent cells
stem cells that are able to differentiate into any type of cell applies only to the zygote
176
pluripotent cells
stem cells that can differentiate into any of the germ layers (ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm) can be obtained from the blastocyst
177
blastocyst
structure formed in the early development of mammals
178
multipotent
adult stem cells that can differentiate into a limited scope of different cell types
179
operons
regulate gene expression in prokaryotes allow bacterium to respond to changes in their environment
180
negative control of operons
a repressor can turn off transcription
181
positive control of operons
an activator can turn on transcription
182
similarity of the lac operon and trp operon
both involve negative control
183
difference of the lac operon and trp operon
lac operon is inducible negative control trp operon is repressible negative control
184
How does the lac operon work?
the lac operon is normally turned off unless there is lactose present and limited glucose the repressor is usually present on the lac operon
185
allolactose
binds with lac operon repressor and removes the repressor to stimulate production of lactose digesting enzymes
186
cAMP and the lac operon
when glucose levels are low, cAMP levels are high cAMP binds to CAP (an activator for the lac operon) to activate it
187
How does the trp operon work?
the trp operon is normally turned on to synthesize tryptophan unless there are high levels of tryptophan tryptophan will bind to the trp operon to stop synthesizing tryptophan
188
promoters
upstream regions of DNA that initiate transcription help recruit RNA polymerase to initiate transcription
189
examples of eukaryotic promoters
TATA box and GC/CAAT box
190
transcription factors
proteins that regulate expression by binding to a specific DNA sequence
191
enhancers
allow gene expression at even higher levels
192
how do enhancers work?
form a hairpin loop to bring distant regions of the DNA together
193
difference between enhancers and promoters
enhancers can be located far away from the gene of interest
194
silencers
the opposite of enhancers in DNA transcription turns transcription off
195
DNA methylation
generally thought to deactivate genes also contributes to epigenetics
196
How does non-coding RNA play a role in transcription?
siRNA and miRNA degrade mRNA sequences before translation eRNA (enhancer RNA) can increase transcription
197
tumor initiation
the first step of oncogenesis allows cell to bypass usual checkpoints of the cell cycle
198
tumor progression
cell develops the ability to proliferate even more aggressively
199
angiogenesis
tumor forms a new blood vessel to feed the growing tumor
200
tumor promoters
help induce the growth of proliferative cells by stimulating the activity of proteins involved in growth and division
201
How do tumor viruses work?
they contain retroviral oncogenes which are reverse-transcribed into the DNA of infected cells often encode proteins that are key components of signaling pathways that stimulate cell proliferation
202
proto-oncogenes
genes that function as oncogenes after mutation or inappropriately elevated levels of expression
203
tumor supressor genes
inhibit oncogenesis when properly functioning
204
TP53 gene
tumor supressor gene that encodes the p53 protein involved in responding appropriately to cell damage
205
BRCA genes
tumor supressor genes that repair and respond to DNA damage misfunctioning BRCA genes can often to lead to cancer
206
What template do retrovirus use for reverse transcriptase?
ssRNA
207
Can antibodies be specific for intracellular material of a pathogen?
No, antibodies respond to extracellular antigens
208
What are capsids made of?
proteins
209
How is reverse transcriptase introduced to host cell?
transfered from the inside the capsid reverse transcriptase is fully formed inn the capsid
210
Magnesium and DNA
magnesium has a stabilizing effect on DNA
211
Magnesium and ATP
magnesium has a stabilizing effect on ATP positive charge stabilizes the negative repulsion?
212
Why does aggregation not occur during the cooling phase of PCR?
cooling phase is carried out at a temperature way above the physiological temp
213
What bonds contribute most to DNA stabilization?
hydrophobic effect that pushes the nucleotides towards each other, away from the aqueous environment not the hydrogen bonds between nucleotides
214
where does B-oxidation of fatty acids occur?
in the mitochondria of eukaryotic cells in the cytoplasm of prokaryotic cells
215
sexual dimorphism
genetically determined physical differences between the sexes
216
retrograde transport
moves protein backwards ex: would move from the Golgi to the ER
217
cytochrome c
is composed of a heme group with one Fe therefore, can only transport one electron at a time
218
In what direction does RNA polymerase read DNA and synthesize hnRNA?
read in 3' to 5' synthesizes in 5' to 3' continously
219
antisense strand
the template strand that RNA polymerase uses
220
sense strand
also known as the coding strand DNA is identical to the newly synthesized hnRNA strand complementary to the antisense strand
221
What strand does RNA polymerase read?
RNA polymerase reads the antisense strand
222
What is the precursor to mRNA?
hnRNA
223
3' polyA tail
post-transcriptional modification facilitates nuclear export protects mRNA against degradation from exonucleases
224
5' Cap
post-transcriptional modification protects mRNA against degradation site for rRNA recognition in translation
225
difference between splicing and cleavage
splicing is a post-transcriptional modification to mRNA while proteolytic cleavage cuts proteins to change their function
226
spliceosome
catalyzes RNA splicing to remove introns
227
snRNPs
ribosomal catalysts found in spliceosomes recognize binding sites on introns to cut makes loop to splice out
228
What does RNA splicing allow for?
diversity in proteins
229
Is translation spontaneous?
no, requires energy
230
In what direction does elongation happen?
mRNA strand is read 5' to 3' new protein is synthesized from N to C-terminus
231
What happens during initiation of translation?
rRNA binds to 5' cap and tRNA corresponds to AUG codon and binds Met / large subunit
232
Where are carbohydrates added to the protein?
in the golgi
233
ubiquitine
can be added to protein to trigger degradation
234
proteolytic cleavage
can cut inactive protein zymogen to activate it when needed
235
What is the path an egg takes prior to fertilization?
ovary to abdominal cavity to fallopian tubes
236
How does the sperm enter the egg?
must pass through the corona radiata and bind to specific zona pellucida
237
acrosome reaction
the sperm binds with zona pellucida and releases hydrolytic enzymes into egg
238
cortical reaction
egg releases cortical granules so no other sperm enter egg
239
how does the zygote travel after fertilization?
moves through fallopian tubes into uterus while dividing into morula
240
blastocyst
fluid filled cavity buries itself in the uterine wall
241
regions of blastocyst
trophoblast (outer layer) will develop into placenta inner cell mass will develop into fetus
242
gastrulation
formation of 3 germ layers
243
endoderm
urinary, digestion and respiratory tracts
244
mesoderm
muscles, connective tissue, bone circulatory system, kidneys, adrenal gland gonads
245
ectoderm
nervous system and external structures
246
neuralation
early formation of neural system notochord and neural plate form
247
neural plate
bends to form groves and the neural tube which becomes the CNS
248
neural crest cells
move away from the neural plate to form the PNS
249
hCG
hormone secreted by mothers during pregnancy, along with progesterone, that pregnancy tests detect
250
SRY gene
on Y chromosome codes for testes and prevents female features from forming
251
umbilical artery
moves deoxygenated blood away from the fetal heart
252
mutagen
a DNA damager
253
chemical mutagens
reactive oxygen species
254
silent mutation
a substitution mutation with no change
255
spontaneous mutation
a mutation in DNA without exposure to a mutagen
256
nonsense mutation
a substitution mutation that changes an amino acid codon to a stop codon
257
missense mutation
substitution mutation that switches a single codon
258
conservative missense mutation
codon is replaced by a codon that codes for a very similar amino acid ex: threonine to serine
259
nonconservative missense mutation
codon is replaced by a codon that codes for a very different amino acid ex: threonine to proline
260
How can we get frameshift mutations?
through insertion or deletion
261
Loss of function mutations
prevent proteins from working properly
262
mismatch repair
occurs during DNA replication if exonucleases miss a mutation, mismatch repair can find the incorrect nucleotide and replace it
263
base excision repair
removes a single erroneous base occurs throughout the cell cycle
264
nucleotide excision repair
removes multiple erroneous bases occurs throughout the cell cycle
265
what type of repair mechanism would repair UV damage?
nucleotide excision repair
266
translocation
a sequence of genes switches places from one chromosome to another
267
inversion
mistake takes place in the directionality of a chromosome does not lead to serious problems
268
aneuploidy
having too few or too many copies of a given chromosome
269
intracrine signals
stay within the cell they are secreted by
270
autocrine signals
move out of and then reattach to the same cell they were secreted by
271
juxtacrine signals
signals move between adjacent cells
272
paracrine signals
signals can travel between nearby cells
273
types of membrane receptors
1) Ion-channel linked 2) Enzyme linked 3) G-protein-coupled
274
Ion-channel linked receptors
pores let ions in when a ligand binds to the receptor
275
Example of an enzyme linked receptor
receptor tyrosine kinases
276
How do receptor tyrosine kinases work?
tyrosine "tails" dimerize and activate a phosphorylation cascade of theirselves and target proteins
277
G-protein
a heterotrimeric protein that binds to GTP/GDP
278
Steps of G-protein coupled response
1) ligand binds externally to GPCR and triggers conformational change 2) G-protein is activated 3) alpha subunit dislocates and activates adenylyl cyclase 4) adenylyl cyclase makes cAMP 5) cAMP activated PKA, which can phosphorylate targets 6) At same time, beta and gamma subunits activate IP3 which releases Ca2+ and activates kinase C
279
Two types of G-proteins
Gs - stimulatory | Gi - inhibitory
280
hybridization
binding through complementary nucleotides
281
autoclave
a biological lab technique that increases pressure and temperature in order to kill bacteria
282
SDS-PAGE
SDS is applied prior to gel electrophoresis to give all the molecules a negative charge then, when the molecules migrate through the gel, they will separate based on size
283
Where are negative and positive charges in gel electrophoresis?
anode: molecules migrate towards positively charged anode cathode: molecules migrate away from negatively charged cathode
284
Steps of blotting
First use gel electrophoresis to separate molecules based on size Then, transfer contents of gel to nitrocellulose membrane Detect molecules of interest with antibodies (proteins) or with hybridization (nucleic acids)
285
B-mercaptoethanol
a reducing agent that can linerize DNA by reducing disulfide bonds
286
What are each of the blotting techniques used to study?
SNoW DRoP Southern - DNA Northern - RNA Western - Protein
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What are DNA microarrays used for?
can analyze lots of genes simultaneously on same chip often used to analyze two entire cell line samples
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How do DNA microarrays work?
flourescently label mRNA that matches with cDNA on chip
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Sanger Sequencing / Chain Termination method of DNA sequencing
stop replication early and add ddNTP to label nucleotide each ddNTP is labeled with a different color use gel electrophoresis to separate different terminated strands based on size read flourescent ddNTPS in order of increasing length to build genetic sequence
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How many primers are needed for PCR?
two primers a forward and a reverse primer
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Steps of PCR
first denature DNA then anneal primers then allow for elongation
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What type of DNA polymerase does PCR use?
Taq polymerase since it is good at high temps
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Why does DNA not aggregate during cooling phases of PCR?
cooling phases are still carried out very much above the physiological temperature
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3 types of exocrine glands
1) apocrine - releases products by membrane budding 2) merocrine - directly secrete through exocytosis 3) holocrine - cells rupture to release products
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Signal sequence
sequence that allow transmembrane proteins to enter the endomembrane system
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Nicotinamide
the name for NADH
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Chondrocytes
make collagen
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What is cartilage made of?
collagen
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Ligaments
connect bone to bone
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Tendons
connect muscle to bone
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Epiphyseal plate
where cartilage is produced for bones to grow also known as the growth plate
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Joints
where bones meet
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Synovial joints
are free to move
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Fibrous joints
hold two bones together with fibrous connective tissue
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Hydroxyapatite
crystallized minerals in the bone matrix storage for -OH, calcium, and phosphate
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Osteoblasts
build new bones
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Osteroclasts
break down bones
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What hormone(s) stimulates the activity of osteoclasts?
parathyroid hormone and calcitriol
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What hormone(s) stimulates the activity of osteoblasts?
calcitonin from thyroid gland
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Calcitriol
comes from vitamin D increases amount of calcium in serum
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Osteon
ring structure of bone matrix that blood and nerves pass through live in lacuna
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Yellow bone marrow
stores adipose cells