psych exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

an abnormally persistently elevated mood, expansive mood, or irritable mood

A

mania

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what mood is the lack of restraints in expression, overvalued self-importance

A

expansive mood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

a distinct period of mania is called what

A

manic episode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is mood lability

A

rapid shifts in mood with little or no change in external events

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

how long does hypomania last

A

4-7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

rank the levels of bipolar disorder

A

biolar 1 = most severe
bipolar 2
cyclothymic disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are some comorbid conditions associated with bipolar disorders

A

anxiety
panic
social phobia
substance use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are the goals of bipolar treatment

A
  • priority is safety
  • minimize and prevent either manic or depressive episodes
  • help the patient or family learn about the disorder and how to manage it throughout a lifetime
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

pervasive and sustained emotion that colors ones perception of the world and how one functions in it

A

mood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

the afect of someone is how they express their mood… name the 5 affects

A

blunted
flat
inappropriate
labile
restricted or constricted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

a sad, irritable, or empty mood is present with somatic and cognitive changes that interfere with functioning

A

depressive disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

how many weeks of one or more depressive moods in nearly all activities is when its considered depressive disorder

A

2 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are the 4 main symptoms of major depressive disorder

A

disruption in sleep, appetite, concentration, or energy
psychomotor agitation
excessive guilt or feelings or worthlessness
suicidal ideation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the prime age range for depression

A

18-29

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the main co-occurring disorder associated with depression

A

anxiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

name some risk factors of depression

A

-prior episode of depressions
- family hx
- lack of social support
- lack of coping abilities
- presence of life and environmental stressors
- current substance use or abuse
- medical and/or mental illness comorbidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what are the main treatment goals for depression

A

-reduce or control symptoms
-improve occupational and psychosocial function
-reduce likeliness of reocurance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what are the 2 main nursing diagnoses for depression

A

imbalance nutrition & risk for suicide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is the major depressive disorder that has symptoms lasting for 2 years in adults and 1 year in children

A

persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what depressive disorder has recurring mood swings, feelings of sadness or sensitivity to rejection in the final week prior to menses

A

premenstrual dysphoric disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what depressive disorder causes severe irritability and outbursts of tempter, begins before the age of 10 and is similar to pediatric bipolar disorder

A

disruptive mood dysphoric disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

whats the difference between NMS and SS

A

NMS: Caused by depleted dopamine due to antipsychotics, resulting in CNS hyperactivity (s/s: Hypertension, fever, sweating, agitation, disorientation, lead pipe muscle rigidity)

SS: too much serotonin from a combo of drugs or supplements (s/s- Mental status changes, agitation, ataxia, myoclonus, hyperreflexia, fever, shivering, diaphoresis, diarrhea)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what are antihistaminic side affects

A

sedation and weight gain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are anticholinergic side effects

A

blurred vision
dry mouth
constipation
urinary retention
sinus tachycardia
decreased memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what is a state in which a person experiences hallucinations, delusions, or disorganized thoughts, speech, or behavior
psychosis
26
name the time frame of the below disorders: brief psychotic disorder schizophreniform schizophrenia
brief psychotic disorder = 2 weeks schizophreniform = 1-6 months schizophrenia = more than 6 months
27
name the 5 phases of schizophrenia in order
prodromal period acute illness period stabilization period recovery period relapses
28
what phase of schizophrenia is in the teenage years and looks like depression and isolation
prodromal period
29
what phase of schizophrenia is during ages 18-25 and the pt is actually having psychosis and needs medication and/or hospitalization
acute illness period
30
what are the positive symptoms of schizophrenia
distorted thoughts pacing delusions/ hallucinations agitated insomnia
31
what are the negative symptoms of schizophrenia
emotions and behaviors that should be present but are diminished being motivated eating speaking grooming socializing
32
what is involved in neurocognitive impairment
memory vigilance verbal fluency
33
repetition of another’s words that is parrot-like and inappropriate
echolalia
34
extremely detailed and lengthy discourse about a topic
Circumstantiality
35
absence of the normal connectedness of thoughts, ideas, and topics; sudden shifts without apparent relationship to preceding topics
Loose associations
36
the topic of conversation is changed to an entirely different topic that is a logical progression but causes a permanent detour from the original focus
Tangentiality
37
the topic of conversation changes repeatedly and rapidly, generally after just one sentence or phrase
Flight of ideas
38
stringing together words that are not connected in any way
Word salad
39
words that are made up that have no common meaning and are not recognizable
Neologisms
40
suspiciousness and guardedness that are unrealistic and often accompanied by grandiosity
Paranoia
41
a belief that neutral stimuli have special meaning to the individual, such as a television commentator who is speaking directly to the individual
Referential thinking
42
restricts thinking to the literal and immediate so that the individual has private rules of logic and reasoning that make no sense to anyone else
Autistic thinking
43
lack of abstraction in thinking; inability to understand punch lines, metaphors, and analogies
Concrete thinking
44
purposeless repetition of words or phrases
Verbigeration
45
use of words with similar meanings interchangeably
Metonymic speech
46
repetition of words or phrases that are similar in sound but in no other way, for example, “right, light, sight, might”
Clang association
47
overly and inappropriately artificial formal language
Stilted language
48
speaking as if the words are being forced out
Pressured speech
49
behaviors or attitudes that reflect rage, hostility, and the potential for physical or verbal destructiveness (usually comes about if the person believes someone is going to do them harm)
Aggression
50
inability to sit still or attend to others, accompanied by heightened emotions and tension
Agitation
51
psychomotor disturbances, such as stupor, mutism, posturing, or repetitive behavior
Catatonia
52
a hyperactivity characterized by purposeless activity and abnormal movements, such as grimacing and posturing
Catatonic excitement
53
involuntary imitation of another person’s movements and gestures
Echopraxia
54
behaving in a manner of a less mature life stage; childlike and immature behavior
Regressed behavior
55
repetitive purposeless movements that are idiosyncratic to the individual and to some degree outside of the individual’s control
Stereotypy
56
sustained attention to external stimuli as if expecting something important or frightening to happen
Hypervigilance
57
posture held in an odd or unusual fixed position for extended periods of time
Waxy flexibility
58
what are the 2 comorbidities associated with schizophrenia
substance abuse & depression
59
what is the main neurotransmitter associated with schizophrenia
dopamine hyperactivity (serotonin also)
60
what kind of stress leads to physiologic overload which leads to a negative impact on health
acute stress
61
what kind of stress is clearly linked to negative health outcomes
chronic stress
62
what kind of stress model is associated with development or exacerbation of mental illness
diathesis- stress model
63
what is the dynamic regulation of homeostasis
allostasis
64
what is the consequence of wear and tear on the body and brain that leads to ill health
allostatic load
65
increased levels of what results in stress
cortisol
66
what 2 factors determine if a person experiences a stress response
appraisal person-environment relationship
67
what is the consideration of demands, constraints, resources, and personal goals and beliefs
appraisal
68
what is the difference between primary and secondary appraisal
primary = evaluation of events as a threat, harm, or challenge secondary= explanation of the outcome of events
69
what 3 factors go into determining the person-environment relationship
1-values and goals 2- personality type (type a,b,c,d) 3- physical and social environment
70
what emotions occur when there is a threat to, delay in, or thwarting of a goal or a conflict between goals: anger, fright, anxiety, guilt, shame, sadness, envy, jealousy, and disgust.
Negative emotions
71
what emotions describe emotional reactions that are too ambiguous to fit into any of the preceding categories: confidence, awe, confusion, and excitement
nonemotions
72
what emotions are somewhat ambiguous: hope, compassion, empathy, sympathy, and contentment.
Borderline emotions
73
what emotions occur when there is movement toward or attainment of a goal: happiness, pride, relief, and love.
positive emotions
74
deliberate, planned, and psychological activity to manage stressful demands is called what
coping
75
what are the 2 types of coping
problem focused - changes the person-environment relationship emotion focused - changes the meaning of the situation
76
adaptation effects what 3 areas
healthy coping psychological well-being social functioning
77
the internal affective state that may or may no be expressed in overt behavior; if expressed, can be constructive or destructive
anger
78
excessive outwardly directed anger or suppressed anger
maladaptive anger
79
t/f anger is often a secondary emotion
true
80
these characteristic behaviors represent what type of anger expression: Feeling anxious when anger is aroused Acting as though nothing happened Withdrawing from people when angry Conveying anger nonverbally by body language Sulking, pouting, or ruminating
anger suppression
81
these characteristic behaviors represent what type of anger expression: Flying off the handle Expressing anger in an attacking or blaming way Yelling, saying nasty things Calling the other person names or using profanity Using fists rather than words to express angry feelings
unhealthy outward anger expression
82
these characteristic behaviors represent what type of anger expression: Discussing the anger with a friend or family member even if the provocateur cannot be confronted at the time Approaching the person with whom one is angry and discussing the concern directly Using “I” language to describe feelings and request changes in another’s behavior
constructive anger discussion
83
avoiding provoking stimuli, self-monitoring, stimulus control, response disruption, guided practice, and relaxation training are all what kind of anger interventions
behavioral interventions
84
what kind of anger intervention is for dysfunctional but nonviolent anger
psychoeducational intervention
85
the overt behavior intended to hurt, take advantage or control over someone verbally or physically is called what
aggression
86
the physical aspect of aggression means what
slapping or hitting things (not the person they're angry at & causing property damage
87
what aggression is when the frontal cortex doesnt rein in the amygdala resulting in behavior comparable to a "wild horse"
impulsive aggression
88
what aggression is premeditation, unrelated to person's pain
instrumental aggression
89
the use of strong force or weapons to inflict bodily harm to another in extreme aggression is called what
violence
90
all violence = aggression
NOT all aggression = violence
91
what is the name of the aggression-related gene
"warrior gene" monoamine oxidase A
92
what psychological theory is the suppression of drives
psychoanalytic theories
93
what psychological theory is the learned response to stimulus; frustration-aggression hypothesis
behavioral theories
94
what psychological theory is the participation in an environment that rewards aggression
social learning theory
95
name some characteristics of unit culture and staff behavior that predict patient violence
strict rules Lack of pt privacy or boundaries Strict authority Lack of patient control over the treatment plan Denial of patient requests or privileges Lack of meaningful and predictable activities Insufficient help with ADLs and other needs from staff Power struggles related to medications Failure of staff to listen or convey empathy
96
what are the 3 steps to managing imminent aggression and violence
1- de-escalation 2- PRN med administration and monitoring 3- avoidance of the use of seclusion and restraints
97
what occurs when there is a perceived challenge or threat that overwhelms the capacity of the individual to cope effectively with the event
crisis
98
what is a time-limited event triggering adaptive or nonadaptive responses to maturational, situational, or traumatic experiences
crisis
99
name the 3 types of crisis
developmental = during puberty situational = loss of job traumatic = death of friend
100
what is the intense, emotional reaction to the loss of a loved one; biopsychosocial response that often includes spontaneous expression of pain, sadness, and desolation
grief responses
101
what is the process of mourning and coping with the loss of a loved one beginning immediately after the loss but possibly lasting months or years
bereavement process
102
what are the 5 stages of grief
1- shock and disbelief 2- awareness of loss 3- conservation - withdrawal 4- healing 5- renewal
103
what are the 3 types of grief
uncomplicated (most common) traumatic (external factors make it worse) complicated (chronic mourning)
104
lithium patients need what
to be adequately hydrated and eat adequate sodium in their diets