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Funds exam 4 Flashcards

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1
Q

involves the skin or subcutaneous tissue

A

cutaneous pain

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2
Q

originates deeper in the bones, tendons, ligaments, & vasculature

A

somatic pain

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3
Q

results from activation of pain receptors in organs or hollow viscera, tends to be poorly located & may have cramping, pressing, throbbing, or aching quality

A

visceral pain

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4
Q

from damaged or malfunctioning nerves

A

neuropathic pain

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5
Q

what type of pain originates in nociceptors which are peripheral somatosensory nerve fibers that transduce noxious stimuli

A

nociceptive pain

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6
Q

what are the 4 processes involved in nociception?

A

transduction, transmission, perception, and modulation

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7
Q

a powerful vasodilator that increases capillary permeability and constricts smooth muscle

A

Bradykinin

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8
Q

important hormone-like substances that send additional pain stimuli to the CNS

A

Prostaglandins

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9
Q

sensitize receptors on nerves to feel pain and increase the rate of firing of nerves

A

substance P

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10
Q

conduct pain stimuli toward the brian

A

small nerve fibers

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11
Q

conduct movement (walking, shaking hand)

A

large nerve fibers

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12
Q

when a nonpainful input closes the nerve gates to painful input, which prevents pain sensation from traveling to the central nervous system

A

gate control theory

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13
Q

minimum intensity of stimulus that’s perceived as painful

A

pain threshold

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14
Q

can affect the patients perception of pain (slowly walking into a pool)

A

adaptation

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15
Q

the process by which sensation of pain is inhibited or modified

A

modulation of pain

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16
Q

natural morphine like endorphins, enkephalins, and endorphin dynorphins

A

neuromodulators

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17
Q

increase in BP and pulse can indicate what

A

pain

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18
Q

what acronym do you use to assess pain

A

OLDCARTS ICE

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19
Q

scale with faces on it for kids above 3 and adults

A

Wong-baker faces

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20
Q

pain tool for kids too young to point to a face for pain

A

Beyer oucher pain scale

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21
Q

pain assessment tool for neonates that uses objective data

A

CRIES pain scale

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22
Q

pain scale for infants and kids 2months-7years who are unable to give their pain a number

A

FLACC scale

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23
Q

pain scale for infants, kids, and adults who cant use the numeric rating or faces (uses objective data)

A

Comfort scale

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24
Q

what does non-pharmacological pain control do

A

it is an alternative or used in addition to pain meds

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25
Q

what is biofeedback

A

doing something like deep breathing

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26
Q

sedation scale

A

s=asleep
1=AAO
2=drowsy but easy to arouse
3=reduce the dosage bc pt. drifting off
4=consider use of naloxone bc pt. no response to stimuli

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27
Q

what pain relief is used for mild to moderate pain, inflammation, and fever

A

nonopioid analgesics

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28
Q

what are some nonopioid analgesics

A

NSAIDS & Tylenol

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29
Q

what pain relief is used to stimulate opioid receptors or bind with pain receptors to block pain impulse

A

opioids or narcotic analgesics

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30
Q

what are examples of opioids or narcotic analgesics?

A

Mu agonists (acute & chronic) and agonist-antagonists (mild to severe)

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31
Q

what pain relief is used for mild pain or in conjunction with opioids for moderate to severe pain?

A

anticonvulsants, antidepressants, muscle relaxants, corticosteroids, etc

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32
Q

what are side effects of opioids?

A

constipation, dry mouth, respiratory depression, n/v, sedation, hypotension

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33
Q

when patients have the oposite effect of a pain reliever

A

paradoxical reactions

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34
Q

what do you need to asses before and after administering pain meds?

A

RR

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35
Q

receptor that provides senses of touch, pressure, & vibration

A

mechanoreceptors

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36
Q

specialized nerve cells in the skin

A

thermoreceptors

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37
Q

receptors that detect sound waves

A

hair cells in cochlea

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38
Q

receptors that are for taste and smell

A

chemoreceptors

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39
Q

what does gustatory mean

A

impaired taste

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40
Q

sensory deficit vs deprivation

A

deficit- impaired sense (inabilities)
deprivation- lack of senses

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41
Q

what is hemispatial neglect

A

only seeing half of the vision (thinking its the full circle but its just half)

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42
Q

eyes that dont stay stationary on an object when the head is turned

A

doll eyes

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43
Q

astigmatism

A

imperfection of eye curvature

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44
Q

retinopathy

A

damage to the blood vessels in the retina from diabetes

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45
Q

central deafness

A

damage to cochlear nuclei causing deafness

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46
Q

what is serum osmolality range

A

280-300

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47
Q

what is urine osmolality range

A

200-800

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48
Q

what is urine specific gravity range

A

1.01-1.02

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49
Q

how do you treat hypovolemia

A

with rehydration and an isotonic solution

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50
Q

paracentesis

A

drain fluid from abdomen

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51
Q

thoracentesis

A

drain chest cavity

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52
Q

when water passes from low concentration to high concentration

A

osmosis

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53
Q

solutes moving from high concentration to low concentration

A

diffusion

54
Q

requiring energy to move from low concentration to high concentration

A

active transport

55
Q

moving from high to low pressure through a membrane

A

capillary filtration

56
Q

force exerted by the fluid present within the blood capillaries against the capillary wall (pushing fluid out of capillaries)

A

hydrostatic pressure

57
Q

force exerted by proteins like albumin in the blood plasma (pushing fluid in capillaries)

A

oncotic pressure

58
Q

observable fluid loss

A

sensible loss

59
Q

water loss through urine, feces, and skin

A

sensible loss

60
Q

non-observable loss

A

insensible loss

61
Q

water loss through expired air and cutaneous transpiration

A

insensible loss

62
Q

fluid type with same osmolarity as blood plasma

A

isotonic

63
Q

0.9% NS
Lactated ringers
D5W
D5NS

A

isotonic

64
Q

fluid type with less osmolarity than the body fluid

A

hypotonic

65
Q

water
0.45%NS
D2.5W

A

hypotonic

66
Q

fluid type with more osmolarity than the body fluids

A

hypertonic

67
Q

3% sodium chloride
5% sodium chloride

A

hypertonic

68
Q

large molecules that don’t cross over the membrane out of vessels and causes water to shift into the intravascular system to increase BP

A

colloids

69
Q

dextran in NS or D5W
albumin
hespan

A

colloids

70
Q

plasma- clotting factors

A

serum

71
Q

if the kidneys sense diminished perfusion they will secrete what

A

renin

72
Q

increased blood osmolality triggers the brain to signal the pituitary gland to secrete what

A

antidiuretic hormone

73
Q

when dehydrated, blood osmolality and osmolarity do what

A

increase

74
Q

what lab is increase in patients with heart failure

A

BNP

75
Q

name the normal ranges:
Na
K
Ca
Mg
Phos
Cl

A

Na: 135-145
K: 3.5-5.0
Ca: 8.2-10.2
Mg: 1.5-2.5
Phos: 2.5-4.5
Cl: 97-107

76
Q

name normal ranges:
pH
Co2
HCo3

A

pH: 7.35-7.45
Co2: 35-45
HCo3: 22-26

77
Q

HCo3 normal

A

uncompensated

78
Q

pH normal

A

fully compensated

79
Q

pH,Co2,HCo3 all abnormal

A

partially compensated

80
Q

what compensatory mechanism is the most powerful

A

renal mechanism

81
Q

hypokalemia puts patients at risk for developing which acid base inbalance

A

metabolic alkalosis

82
Q

desire to become the most that one can be

A

self-actualization

83
Q

feeling pride and accomplishments for self

A

self-esteem

84
Q

both accepting and receiving love with building a patient-nurse relationship

A

love and belonging

85
Q

personal security, employment, resources, health, and property

A

safety and security

86
Q

basic needs to have to be met before moving up maslow’s hierarchy

A

physiological needs

87
Q

traditional family with parents and their children

A

nuclear family

88
Q

what function of the family provides safe comfortable environment necessary for growth and developement

A

physical

89
Q

what function of the family provides financial aid to fam members

A

economic

90
Q

what family function provides emotional comfort and help with establishing identity

A

affective and coping

91
Q

what family function teaches values, beliefs, attitudes, and guides in problem solving

A

socialization

92
Q

minority group takes on values of dominant culture

A

cultural assimilation

93
Q

the ability to provide care to patients with diverse values, beliefs, and behaviors, including the tailoring of health care delivery to meet patients social, cultural, ad linguistic needs

A

cultural competence

94
Q

when one assumes that all members of a culture, ethnic group, or race act alike

A

stereotyping

95
Q

the feeling of disorientation experienced by someone who is suddenly subjected to an unfamiliar culture, way of life, or set of attitudes

A

culture shock

96
Q

nursing care focused on cultural care values, beliefs and practices of individuals or groups of similar or different cultures

A

transcultural nursing

97
Q

ignores differences and proceeds as if they did not exist

A

cultural blindness

98
Q

people become aware of differences and feel threatened

A

culture conflict

99
Q

belief that everyone should conform to the majority belief system

A

cultural imposition

100
Q

the recognition, protection, and continued advancement of inherent rights, cultures, and traditions of particular culture

A

cultural respect

101
Q

belief the one’s ideas, beliefs, and practices are the best or superior or are most preferred to those of others

A

ethnocentrism

102
Q

ability of caregivers and organizations to understand and effectively respond to the linguistic needs of patients and their families in a healthcare encounter

A

linguistic competence

103
Q

large group of people who are members of a larger cultural group

A

subculture

104
Q

sense of identification with a collective cultural group, based on common heritage

A

ethnicity

105
Q

associated with biology, linked with physical characteristics such as skin color, and hair texture

A

race

106
Q

the theory of aging that is from functions of the immune system steadily declining

A

immunity

107
Q

the theory of aging that is from oxidative stress damages to the cell membranes

A

free radical

108
Q

early theory maintained that older adults often withdraw from society and become self-focused but later studies show that older adults increase their relationships with close family and friends

A

disengagement theory

109
Q

theory of successful aging includes ability to maintain high levels of activity and functioning. may substitute activities but does not disengage from society

A

activity theory

110
Q

theory of continuing similar patterns of behavior from young and middle adulthood

A

continuity theory

111
Q

who’s theory is to maintain social contracts and relationships/ find new meaningful age-related roles

A

Havighurst

112
Q

name the 3 D’s of old age

A

dementia
delirium
depression

113
Q

when a person is detached from who they are

A

identity diffusion

114
Q

where a person doesnt feel their thoughts are their own

A

depersonalization

115
Q

coopersmith self-esteem: the way people feel they are loved and approved of by the people important to them

A

significance

116
Q

coopersmith self-esteem: the way tasks that are considered important are performed by them

A

competence

117
Q

coopersmith self-esteem: the attainment of moral-ethical standards

A

virtue

118
Q

coopersmith self-esteem: the extent to which people influence their own and others’ lives

A

power

119
Q

self-awareness

A

infancy

120
Q

self-recognition

A

18 months

121
Q

self-definition

A

3 years

122
Q

self-concept

A

6-7 years

123
Q

a condition in which the human system responds to changes in its normal state

A

stress

124
Q

anything perceived as challenging, threatening, or demanding that triggers a stress reaction

A

stressor

125
Q

change that occurs in response to the stressor

A

adaptation

126
Q

short-term stress that promotes positives

A

eustress

127
Q

homeostasis that involves only one specific body part

A

local adaptation syndrome (LAS)

128
Q

homeostasis that is a biochemical model of stress

A

general adaptation syndrome (GAS)

129
Q

what are the stages of general adaptation syndrome

A

1- alarm reaction (fight or flight)
2- resistance (adapting)
3- exhaustion

130
Q

describe anxiety:
mild
moderate
severe
panic

A

mild-test
moderate-date
severe-singular focus on anxiety
panic-panic attack

nursing (15 decks)

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