Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

December CNS Exam > Primer Questions > Flashcards

Primer Questions Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Most iron is transported in the blood via the plasma carrier:

a. Heme
b. Ferritin
c. Transferrin
d. Albumin

A

c. Transferrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. A required prerequisite to the digestion of protein is the HCL dependent process called:

a. Hydrolysis
b. Evaporation
c. Denaturation
d. Distillation

A

c. Denaturation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. The true digestibility of dietary fatty acids is:

a. 65-75%
b. 75-85%
c. 85-95%
d. >95%

A

d. >95%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. An example of a digestive enzyme secreted from the brush border of microvilli to help with digestion is?

a. Sucrase
b. Protease
c. Amylase
d. Hydrochloric acid

A

a. Sucrase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. Decreased plasma glucose levels stimulate _______ secretion by pancreatic alpha cells.

a. Insulin
b. Glucagon
c. Glucocorticoids
d. Epinephrine

A

b. Glucagon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. The hormone that is synthesized in adipose tissue and signals satiety is:

a. Adiponectin
b. Glucagon
c. Leptin
d. Ghrelin

A

c. Leptin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. C677T base substitution in the gene that synthesizes the enzyme methyl-tetrahydrofolate reductase is a genetic abnormality called:

a. A base substitution
b. A genetic anomaly
c. A single nucleotide polymorphism
d. an epigenetic phenomena

A

c. A single nucleotide polymorphism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. The structures of linoleic acid and gamma linolenic acid differ in their:

a. chain lengths
b. double bond positions
c. number of double bonds
d. side chain moietities

A

c. number of double bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. In the polypeptide chain of a protein, the sequential order of the amino acid is called the:

a. primary structure
b. secondary structure
c. tertiary structure
d. quaternary structure

A

a. primary structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. Vitamin reserves can become depleted because all vitamins are:

a. synthesized inefficiently
b. essential nutrients
c. metabolized quickly
d. excreted rapidly

A

b. essential nutrients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. nutrification is the:

a. addition of a nutrient to a food in order to assure the distribution of that nutrient to a target population group
b. specific addition of thiamin, riboflavin, niacin, and iron to white flour
c. structural modification of complex carbohydrates
d. addition of at least 25% of the RDA of a nutrient to a food product that has been designed to replace a meal or food item

A

a. addition of a nutrient to a food in order to assure the distribution of that nutrient to a target population group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. coenzyme A is derived from:

a. pantothenic acid
b. pyridoxine
c. cobalamin
d. tetrahydrobiopoterin

A

a. pantothenic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. Ketones result from the metabolism of:

a. fatty acids
b. simple sugars
c. amino acids
d. complex structures

A

a. fatty acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. Glycolysis is a metabolic process that involves:

a. glycogen synthesis
b. the conversion of glucose to glycogen
c. the conversion of glucose to pyruvate
d. the conversion of fatty acids to ATP

A

c. the conversion of glucose to pyruvate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. Of beef, bacon, salmon, and broccoli, the food source with the greatest nutrient density (g per 100 Kcal) for fat is:

a. beef
b. bacon
c. salmon
d. broccoli

A

b. bacon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. the deficiency of which nutrient results in elevated xanthurenate:

a. copper
b. B2
c. B6
d. Iron

A

c. B6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. Among the following foods, the nutrient density of Vitamin D is the greatest in:

a. Cheese
b. Salmon
c. Green leafy vegetables
d. Beef

A

b. Salmon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. Fat-soluble vitamins are absorbed then distributed throughout the body to cells via:

a. Free fatty acids
b. Lipases
c. Lipoproteins
d. Lymphatics

A

c. Lipoproteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. Fluid balance is most significantly controlled by the minerals:

a. Calcium & magnesium
b. Copper & zinc
c. Calcium & phosphorous
d. Sodium & potassium

A

d. Sodium & potassium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. Quercetin protects ascorbic acid from:

a. Oxidation
b. Reduction
c. Dehydrogenation
d. Desaturation

A

a. Oxidation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. Beta-glucans are phytonutrients that are derived from various mushroom species and have specific beneficial effects for:

a. Cardiovascular disease
b. Gastrointestinal symptoms & functions
c. Immune function
d. Auditory function

A

c. Immune function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. Deglycyrrhizinated licorice is often used in the treatment of:

a. Peptic ulcers
b. Pelvic pain
c. Earache
d. Sleep disorders

A

a. Peptic ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. Garlic’s active compound, allicin, inhibits:

a. Muscle spasms
b. HMG-CoA-reductase activity
c. Hydroxylase activity
d. Constipation

A

b. HMG-CoA-reductase activity

24
Q
  1. Dietary proteins are of high biological value when they are obtained from:

a. Fish, legumes, and whole milk
b. Beef, pork, and cream cheese
c. White bread, vegetables, and legumes
d. Eggs, chicken meats, and cheddar cheese

A

d. Eggs, chicken meats, and cheddar cheese

25
Q
  1. The dietary change that is the most effective in contributing to a decrease in serum total cholesterol concentration is:

a. Decrease on cholesterol intake
b. Decrease in saturated fat
c. Increase in polyunsaturated fat
d. Increase in monounsaturated fat

A

b. Decrease in saturated fat

26
Q
  1. The Tolerable Upper Intake Levels (TUL’s) were established to focus attention on intakes for both diet and nutritional supplementation. TUL’s are:

a. The maximum daily intake level that is not likely to cause a harmful effect
b. Desired for moth nutrients
c. Based on intakes from supplements & fortified foods
d. Intake goals for all nutrients

A

a. The maximum daily intake level that is not likely to cause a harmful effect

27
Q
  1. The food components listed on the nutrition facts panel are:

a. Sugars, fiber & potassium
b. Sugars, dietary fiber & calcium
c. Sugars, dietary fiber & monounsaturated fat
d. Sugars, magnesium & b-complex vitamins

A

b. Sugars, dietary fiber & calcium

28
Q
  1. The IOM recommends supplementation or food fortification with which nutrient for the elderly?

a. Calcium
b. Iron
c. Biotin
d. B12

A

d. B12

29
Q
  1. Megaloblastic anemia of pregnancy usually results from a deficiency of:

a. Iron
b. Oxytocin
c. Ant pernicious anemia factor
d. Folacin

A

d. Folacin

30
Q
  1. The most serious consequence of feeding “double-strength formula to an infant is likely to be:

a. Sleepiness
b. Colic
c. Mental impairment
d. Dehydration

A

d. Dehydration

31
Q
  1. Except for when women are pregnant & lactating, the total quantity of nutrients & calories needed during ___________are greater than at any other stage of the lifecycle

a. Infancy
b. Childhood
c. Adolescence
d. Aging

A

c. Adolescence

32
Q
  1. When 2 or more plant proteins are combined, compensating for deficiencies in essential amino acid content in each protein, the proteins are called:

a. Essential proteins
b. Complementary proteins
c. Conditional proteins
d. Ideal proteins

A

b. Complementary proteins

33
Q
  1. Epidemiological studies:

a. Identify causative factors
b. Are not helpful for public health research
c. Are better than cohort studies
d. Are helpful for identifying associations in large populations

A

d. Are helpful for identifying associations in large populations

34
Q
  1. Successful treatment for anorexia nervosa most often includes:

a. Family therapy & forced feed tubing
b. Outpatient nutritional counseling with an RD.
c. Impatient psychological, nutritional, and medical therapy, often involving the whole family
d. Effective psychopharmacological treatment

A

c. Impatient psychological, nutritional, and medical therapy, often involving the whole family

35
Q
  1. As a public health measure, chicken is packed in ice to prevent:

a. Botulism
b. Perfringens food poisoning
c. Staphylococcal food poisoning
d. Salmonella food poisoning

A

d. Salmonella food poisoning

36
Q
  1. Cross-contamination of food occurs when:

a. Airborne microorganisms grow in food
b. Two or more food handles process a specific food
c. A utensil contaminated with a microorganism from a previously handled food contacts a second food
d. Perishable foods are kept out at room temperature for more than 3 hours

A

c. A utensil contaminated with a microorganism from a previously handled food contacts a second food

37
Q
  1. Use of a thiazide diuretic drug may produce a low plasma concentration of:

a. Calcium
b. Potassium
c. Uric acid
d. Phosphorous

A

b. Potassium

38
Q
  1. Anti-neoplastic or anti-cancer agents most significantly affect nutritional status by:

a. Damaging immune function
b. Affecting intestinal mucosa and reducing nutrient absorption
c. Increasing nutrient excretion
d. Causing abnormal metabolism

A

b. Affecting intestinal mucosa and reducing nutrient absorption

39
Q
  1. Dietary intakes of thiamin, riboflavin & niacin are related to intake of:

a. Iron
b. Ascorbic acid
c. Calcium
d. Calories

A

d. Calories

40
Q
  1. Individuals taking anticonvulsant medications may develop depleted reserves of:

a. Folate & vitamin D
b. Thiamin & riboflavin
c. Folate & pantothenic acid
d. Pyridoxine & biotin

A

a. Folate & vitamin D

41
Q
  1. It may be wise to assess the status of the following in a client on a long-term PPI therapy:

a. Folate
b. B12 & minerals
c. Biotin
d. coQ10

A

b. B12 & minerals

42
Q
  1. zinc carnosine supplementation contributes to the reduction of the incidence of:

a. obesity
b. insulin resistance
c. GERD
d. Skeletal muscle weakness

A

d. Skeletal muscle weakness

43
Q
  1. An inborn error of metabolism may result from:

a. Polyploidy
b. DNA replication errors
c. Congenital malnutrition
d. Neonatal infection

A

b. DNA replication errors

44
Q
  1. A factor that does not predispose an infant to iron deficiency is:

a. Large amounts of homogenized milk
b. Premature birth
c. Hemorrhage from the umbilicus during delivery
d. Slow growth rate

A

c. Hemorrhage from the umbilicus during delivery

45
Q
  1. Dumping syndrome is accompanied by symptoms of:

a. Faintness, weakness, and profuse perspiration
b. Acute gastritis
c. Peptic ulcer disease
d. Intestinal malabsorption

A

d. Intestinal malabsorption

46
Q
  1. Dietary modifications appropriate for an individual with uncomplicated infectious hepatitis include:

a. Increasing energy intake to more than 3000 Kcal daily
b. Restricting protein to less than 30 g daily
c. Restricting fat intake to less than 30 g daily
d. Restricting fluid intake to less than 2000 mL daily

A

a. Increasing energy intake to more than 3000 Kcal daily

47
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes the initial priority of nutrition therapy in type 2 diabetes patients:

a. Focus on cutting out sugars & carbohydrates
b. Focus on eliminating alcohol
c. Focus on nutritional approaches that will improve the outcomes of blood glucose, lipid profiles, and blood pressure
d. Focus on ideal body weight

A

a. Focus on cutting out sugars & carbohydrates

48
Q
  1. The infusion of a hypertonic nutrient solution through the jugular or saphenous vein is called:

a. Enteral alimentation
b. Central parenteral alimentation
c. Peripheral parenteral alimentation
d. Peridialytic alimentation

A

b. Central parenteral alimentation

49
Q
  1. The most accurate way to assess micronutrient intake is through the use of a:

a. 24-hour food intake recall questionnaire.
b. 7-day food intake frequency.
c. “food frequency questionnaire.”
d. stool and urine analysis.

A

c. “food frequency questionnaire.”

50
Q
  1. The most accurate assessment of vitamin D status is an assay for the:

a. blood level of 25 hydroxy vitamin D3
b. dietary intake of vitamin D3
c. length of sun exposure and dietary intake of vitamin D
d. urinary excretion of vitamin D2

A

a. blood level of 25 hydroxy vitamin D3

51
Q
  1. One blood test which assesses vitamin B12 status and is included in a complete blood
    count panel is:

a. hemoglobin level
b. MCV or mean cell or corpuscular volume
c. platelet levels
d. RBC counts

A

b. MCV or mean cell or corpuscular volume

52
Q
  1. A fasting plasma glucose concentration of 50 mg/dL may suggest the presence of:

a. diabetes.
b. hypoglycemia.
c. normal glucose tolerance.
d. hyperinsulinemia.

A

b. hypoglycemia.

53
Q
  1. The five clinical determinants of metabolic syndrome are:

a. Waist circumference, cholesterol, HDL, BMI, fasting plasma glucose (fpg)
b. Hip to waist ratio, triglycerides, LDL, blood pressure, fpg
c. Hip to waist ratio, cholesterol, HDL, BMI, fpg
d. Waist circumference, triglycerides, HDL, blood pressure, fpg

A

d. Waist circumference, triglycerides, HDL, blood pressure, fpg

54
Q
  1. Responsible recommendations to consume vitamins in amounts exceeding their RDA:

a. ignore efficacy and risk for toxicity.
b. balance benefits and risks.
c. are not possible.
d. are inconsistent with current knowledge.

A

b. balance benefits and risks.

55
Q
  1. It is important for nutritionists to understand their client’s or patient’s readiness to change
    stage because:

a. this will ensure that the recommendations will help them change.
b. it helps the practitioner to know what information, support and/or recommendations
will help them get to the next stage of change and ultimately achieve their desired
goals.
c. it determines what specific lifestyle recommendations are needed.
d. it creates less tension in consultations sessions.

A

b. it helps the practitioner to know what information, support and/or recommendations
will help them get to the next stage of change and ultimately achieve their desired
goals.

December CNS Exam (21 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions