Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Compiled PPS board reviewer > Preventive Pediatrics > Flashcards

Preventive Pediatrics Flashcards

1
Q

EINC

A

Essential Intrapartum and Newborn Care

“Unang Yakap”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

EINC Steps

A
  1. immediate and thorough drying
  2. early skin-to-skin contact
  3. properly-timed cord clamping
  4. non-separation, early breastfeeding
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

EINC Step 1

A

immediate and thorough drying

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

EINC Step 2

A

early skin-to-skin contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

EINC Step 3

A

properly-timed cord clamping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

EINC Step 4

A

non-separation, early breastfeeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Exclusive breastfeeding up to _____.

A

6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Continued breastfeeding up to _____.

A

2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Pregnant women should be informed about the deleterious effects of _____, _____ and _____ during pregnancy.

A

smoking, alcohol, teratogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

_____ immunization should be started or continued during pregnancy.

A

Tetanus Toxoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Discharging newborns before 48 hours:

_____ antepartum, intrapartum and postpartum courses for both mother and newborn.

A

Uncomplicated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Discharging newborns before 48 hours:

Outcome

A

SVD, singleton, ≥ 37 weeks, AGA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Discharging newborns before 48 hours:

Vital Signs during the preceding 12 hours

A

RR < 60
HR 100-160
axillary T 36.5-37.4 (clothed, open crib)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Discharging newborns before 48 hours:

Output

A

with UO

at least 1 BM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Discharging newborns before 48 hours:

Breastfeeding

A 
proper latch
milk transfer
swallowing
infant satiety
(-) nipple discomfort
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Discharging newborns before 48 hours:

PE

A

normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Discharging newborns before 48 hours:

Jaundice

A

(-) jaundice for the first 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Discharging newborns before 48 hours:

_____ and ability of the parents to _____.

A

Educability, care for the child

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Discharging newborns before 48 hours:

Follow-Up

A

within 48 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How often should adolescents undergo health screening?

A

annually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

HEEADSSS: H

A

Home

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

HEEADSSS: E

A

Education/Employment

Eating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

HEEADSSS: A

A

Activities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

HEEADSSS: D

A

Drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

HEEADSSS: S

A

Sexuality
Suicidal Ideations/Depression
Safety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Adolescent Health Care: PE

A

Tanner Staging/SMR
Breast Examination
Spine and Shoulders (scoliosis, kyphosis)
Genitals and Anus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Adolescent Health Care: CBC

A

every stage of adolescence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Adolescent Health Care: urinalysis

A

first encounter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Adolescent Health Care: vaginal wet mount/Pap smear

A

sexually active females

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Adolescent Health Care: serologic syphilis test

A

sexually active males

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Adolescent Health Care: test for gonorrhea and chlamydia

A

sexually active males and females

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Adolescent Health Care: Anticipatory Guidance and Counseling

A

self breast examination
healthy lifestyle
sexual behavior (STDs, HIV)
injury and accident prevention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Developmental surveillance should be done _____.

A

at every well child visit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Developmental Surveillance Components

A 
parent's concerns
developmental history
observation of the child
risk and protective factors
document the process and findings
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Developmental Surveillance: specified ages

A

9, 18 and 30 months

every year thereafter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Social-Emotional Red Flags:

lack of smiles or other joyful expressions

A

6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Social-Emotional Red Flags:

lack of reciprocal (back-and-forth sharing of) vocalizations, smiles, or other facial expressions

A

9 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Social-Emotional Red Flags:
failure to respond to name when called
absence of babbling
lack of reciprocal gestures (showing, reaching, waving)

A

12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Social-Emotional Red Flags:
lack of proto-declarative pointing or other showing gestures
lack of single words

A

15 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Social-Emotional Red Flags:
lack of simple pretend play
lack of spoken language/gesture combinations

A

18 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Social-Emotional Red Flags:

lack of two-word meaningful phrases (without imitating or repeating)

A

24 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Social-Emotional Red Flags:

loss of previously acquired babbling, speech or social skills

A

any age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Social-Emotional Red Flags:

6 months

A

lack of smiles or other joyful expressions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Social-Emotional Red Flags:

9 months

A

lack of reciprocal (back-and-forth sharing of) vocalizations, smiles, or other facial expressions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Social-Emotional Red Flags:

12 months

A

failure to respond to name when called
absence of babbling
lack of reciprocal gestures (showing, reaching, waving)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Social-Emotional Red Flags:

15 months

A

lack of proto-declarative pointing or other showing gestures, lack of single words

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Social-Emotional Red Flags:

18 months

A

lack of simple pretend play

lack of spoken language/gesture combinations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Social-Emotional Red Flags:

24 months

A

lack of two-word meaningful phrases (without imitating or repeating)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Social-Emotional Red Flags:

any age

A

loss of previously acquired babbling, speech or social skills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Motor Red Flags:

lack of steady head control when sitting

A

4 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Motor Red Flags:

inability to sit

A

9 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Motor Red Flags:

inability to walk independently

A

18 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Motor Red Flags:

4 months

A

lack of steady head control when sitting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Motor Red Flags:

9 months

A

inability to sit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Motor Red Flags:

18 months

A

inability to walk independently

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Receptive Language Red Flags:

does not alert or quiet to sound

A

2 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Receptive Language Red Flags:

does not turn to source of sound

A

6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Receptive Language Red Flags:

does not respond to own name

A

10 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Receptive Language Red Flags:

does not follow verbal routines/games

A

12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Receptive Language Red Flags:
does not understand simple questions
does not stop when told “NO”
does not understand at least 3 different words

A

15 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Receptive Language Red Flags:
does not point to 3 body parts
does not follow simple commands

A

18 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Receptive Language Red Flags:

does not follow 2 part commands

A

30 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Receptive Language Red Flags:

does not answer simple questions

A

36 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Receptive Language Red Flags:

2 months

A

does not alert or quiet to sound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Receptive Language Red Flags:

6 months

A

does not turn to source of sound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Receptive Language Red Flags:

10 months

A

does not respond to own name

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Receptive Language Red Flags:

12 months

A

does not follow verbal routines/games

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Receptive Language Red Flags:

15 months

A

does not understand simple questions
does not stop when told “NO”
does not understand at least 3 different words

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Receptive Language Red Flags:

18 months

A

does not point to 3 body parts

does not follow simple commands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Receptive Language Red Flags:

30 months

A

does not follow 2 part commands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Receptive Language Red Flags:

36 months

A

does not answer simple questions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Expressive Language Red Flags:

does not coo

A

6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Expressive Language Red Flags:

does not babble

A

10 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Expressive Language Red Flags:

6 months

A

does not coo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Expressive Language Red Flags:

absence of pointing

A

14 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Expressive Language Red Flags:

does not say 3 different spontaneous words

A

16 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Expressive Language Red Flags:
vocabulary of not more than 35-50 words
does not produce 2-word phrases

A

24 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Expressive Language Red Flags:

no simple sentences

A

36 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Expressive Language Red Flags:

intelligibility to unfamiliar adult at 50%

A

42 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Expressive Language Red Flags:

not able to tell or retell a familiar story

A

54 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Expressive Language Red Flags:

not fully intelligible to an unfamiliar adult

A

60 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Expressive Language Red Flags:

not fully mature speech sounds

A

> 72 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Expressive Language Red Flags:

6 months

A

does not coo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Expressive Language Red Flags:

10 months

A

does not babble

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Expressive Language Red Flags:

12 months

A

absence of non-verbal purposeful messages (show objects)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Expressive Language Red Flags:

14 months

A

absence of pointing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Expressive Language Red Flags:

16 months

A

does not say 3 different spontaneous words

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Expressive Language Red Flags:

24 months

A

vocabulary of not more than 35-50 words

does not produce 2-word phrases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Expressive Language Red Flags:

36 months

A

no simple sentences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Expressive Language Red Flags:

42 months

A

intelligibility to unfamiliar adult at 50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Expressive Language Red Flags:

54 months

A

not able to tell or retell a familiar story

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Expressive Language Red Flags:

60 months

A

not fully intelligible to an unfamiliar adult

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Expressive Language Red Flags:

> 72 months

A

not fully mature speech sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Eye and Vision Screening:

Premature infants who are _____, _____ and _____ should undergo screening.

A

≤ 32 weeks
≤ 1500 g
stormy medical course

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Eye and Vision Screening:

Infants and children with _____ and/or _____ should undergo screening.

A

metabolic disorders

medical conditions with associated eye problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Eye and Vision Screening:

Infants and children with a history of _____, _____ and/or _____ should undergo screening.

A

squinting
head tilt
head turn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Eye and Vision Screening:

Children with _____ and/or _____ should undergo screening.

A

visual difficulties

learning problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Eye and Vision Screening:

Family History

A 
strabismus
amblyopia
congenital cataract
congenital glaucoma
retinoblastoma
ocular and systemic genetic diseases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Visual Acuity Assessment Tests

A

Fixes and Follows Test

Subjective/Formal Visual Acuity Testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Visual Acuity Assessment:

test for preschoolers or children who are not familiar with letters

A

LEA Pictures Chart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Visual Acuity Assessment:

test for literate children

A

Sloan Letters

HOTV Chart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Visual Acuity: 3 years old

A

20/50 (10/25)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Visual Acuity: 4 years old

A

20/40 (10/20)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Visual Acuity: 5 years old

A

20/30 (10/15)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Ocular Motility Assessment

A

Corneal Light Reflex
Versions and Ductions
Cross Cover Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Red Orange Reflex Examination:

Light reflects back from the _____.

A

choroidal blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

LEA Chart:

Age

A

3 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

LEA Chart:

Distance

A 
6 meters (20 ft) or 3 meters (10 ft)
34-40 cm (14-16 in) - reading distance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

LEA Chart:

Test Result

A

at least 4/5 symbols read correctly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Use of Fluoride Toothpaste

A

twice daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Use of Fluoride Toothpaste:
6 mos. to < 2 y.o.
Fluoride Concentration (ppm)

A

1000ppm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Use of Fluoride Toothpaste:
6 mos. to < 2 y.o.
Minimum Daily Use

A

twice daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Use of Fluoride Toothpaste:
6 mos. to < 2 y.o.
Amount of Toothpaste

A

smear

2.5mm / 0.125g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Use of Fluoride Toothpaste:
6 mos. to < 2 y.o.
Amount of Fluoride (mg)

A

0.25mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Use of Fluoride Toothpaste:
2-6 y.o.
Fluoride Concentration (ppm)

A

1000ppm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Use of Fluoride Toothpaste:
2-6 y.o.
Minimum Daily Use

A

twice daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Use of Fluoride Toothpaste:
2-6 y.o.
Amount of Toothpaste

A

pea size

5mm / 0.25g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Use of Fluoride Toothpaste:
2-6 y.o.
Amount of Fluoride (mg)

A

0.5mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Use of Fluoride Toothpaste:
> 6 y.o.
Fluoride Concentration (ppm)

A

1500ppm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Use of Fluoride Toothpaste:
> 6 y.o.
Minimum Daily Use

A

twice daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Use of Fluoride Toothpaste:
> 6 y.o.
Amount of Toothpaste

A

full length of bristle

10-20mm / 0.5-1g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Use of Fluoride Toothpaste:
> 6 y.o.
Amount of Fluoride (mg)

A

1mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Topical Fluoride Treatment

A

every 6 mos.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Benefits of Breastmilk

A
  1. safe, sterile, always available
  2. perfect nutrients up to 6 mos.
  3. easily digested
  4. contains antibodies
  5. contains fats (DHA)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Advantages of Breastfeeding

A
  1. emotional bonding
  2. protects mother’s health
  3. return to pre-pregnancy weight
  4. financial savings
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Correct Breastfeeding Techniques:

_____ the baby’s head and the entire body.

A

Support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Correct Breastfeeding Techniques:

Head, back and hips should be facing the _____ and aligned in a _____ manner.

A

breast, straight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Correct Breastfeeding Techniques:

Maintain the position of the baby in such a way that he is _____.

A

face to face
chest to chest
tummy to tummy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Correct Breastfeeding Techniques:

Support the breast with the hand of the _____ arm in a _____ position.

A

opposite, C-hold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Correct Breastfeeding Techniques:

Stimulate the infant to open the mouth wide by _____.

A

stroking the corner of the baaby’s lips

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Correct Breastfeeding Techniques:

Check that the chin touches the _____ and the lower lip is turned _____.

A

breast, outward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Correct Breastfeeding Techniques:

Ensure that the baby grasps the _____.

A

entire nipple plus one inch of the surrounding areola

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Correct Breastfeeding Techniques:

Allow the baby to suck _____ per breast to extract both _____.

A

15-30 mins., foremilk and hindmilk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Correct Breastfeeding Techniques:

Empty the breast around _____ a day.

A

8-10 times

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Breastmilk Storage:

Store in _____ containers labeled with _____ of breastmilk collection.

A

sterile polypropylene (cloudy hard plastic), date and time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q 
Breastmilk Storage:
room temperature (<25°C)
A

4 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q 
Breastmilk Storage:
room temperature (>25°C)
A

1 hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Breastmilk Storage:

refrigerator (4°C)

A

8 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Breastmilk Storage:

freezer of a 1-door refrigerator

A

2 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Breastmilk Storage:

freezer of a 2-door refrigerator

A

3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q 
Breastmilk Storage:
deep freezer (-20°C)
A

6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Diet of a Lactating Mother:

rice

A

6 cups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Diet of a Lactating Mother:

fruits

A

vitamin C-rich
different varieties
4 pieces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Diet of a Lactating Mother:

vegetables

A

green leafy
yellow
1 1/2 cups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Diet of a Lactating Mother:

meat, fish, poultry, seafood

A

5 matchbox-size pieces

2 cups cut into small pieces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Diet of a Lactating Mother:

eggs

A

4 pieces a week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Diet of a Lactating Mother:

beans

A

1 1/2 cups 3x/week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Diet of a Lactating Mother:

milk

A

2 glasses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Diet of a Lactating Mother:

fats

A

7 teaspoons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Diet of a Lactating Mother:

fluids

A

7 glasses of water

1 glass of fresh fruit juice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Complementary food must be:

A
  1. timely
  2. adequate
  3. safe
  4. properly fed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Introducing Complementary Food:

Begin with _____ to be given for _____.

A

one new food at a time, 3 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Introducing Complementary Food:

Start with _____, giving _____ a day.

A

porridge, cereal, fruits, vegetables

1-2 teaspoons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Introducing Complementary Food:

pureed food

A

6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Introducing Complementary Food:

finger food

A

8 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Introducing Complementary Food:

lumpy or chopped food

A

10 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Introducing Complementary Food:

table food

A

12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Introducing Complementary Food:

6-8 mos., frequency

A

2-3x/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Introducing Complementary Food:

9-24 mos., frequency

A

3-4x/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Introducing Complementary Food:

snacks

A

1-2x/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Introducing Complementary Food:

Do not add SALT before _____.

A

1 y.o.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Introducing Complementary Food:

Give _____ if diet is primarily plant based.

A

iron, zinc, calcium, vitamin B12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Child Maltreatment:

Recognize and report ongoing child maltreatment.

A

R.A. 7610

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Child Maltreatment:

R.A. 7610

A

Recognize and report ongoing child maltreatment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Child Maltreatment:

Establish Women and child protection in all government hospitals.

A

DOH Administrative Order 2013-0011

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Child Maltreatment:

DOH Administrative Order 2013-0011

A

Establish Women and child protection in all government hospitals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Anticipatory Guidance for Prevention of Violence Against Children (VAC):
Infancy

A

domestic violence
infant crying
dangers of shaking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Anticipatory Guidance for Prevention of Violence Against Children (VAC):
Toddler

A

domestic violence
positive discipline
safety in others’ homes or with other people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Anticipatory Guidance for Prevention of Violence Against Children (VAC):
Pre-School

A 
domestic violence
positive discipline
safety in others' homes or with other people
normal sexual behavior
good vs. bad touch
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Anticipatory Guidance for Prevention of Violence Against Children (VAC):
School Age

A 
domestic violence
positive discipline
safety in others' homes or with other people
normal sexual behavior
good vs. bad touch
bullying
peer relationships
mobile phone and internet safety
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Anticipatory Guidance for Prevention of Violence Against Children (VAC):
Adolescence

A 
domestic violence
positive discipline
safety in others' homes or with other people
normal sexual behavior
good vs. bad touch
bullying
peer relationships
mobile phone and internet safety
alcohol and substance abuse
dating violence
172
Q

Child Maltreatment:

Protective Factors

A 
secure attachment
parental care
(-) delinquent or substance-abusing peers
warm and supportive relationship
(-) abuse-related stress
173
Q

Child Maltreatment:

promising Child maltreatment Prevention Programs

A

Home Visits
Parent Education
Sexual Abuse Prevention (schools)
Hospital-Based Parent Education (Shaken Baby Syndrome)

174
Q

7 Steps to Protect Children

A
  1. Learn the facts.
  2. Minimize opportunities for abuse.
  3. Talk about it.
  4. Stay alert.
  5. Act on any suspicion of abuse.
  6. Learn how to react.
  7. Get involved.
175
Q

Windows of Achievement:

sitting w/o support

A

4-9 mos.

176
Q

Windows of Achievement:

standing with assistance

A

5-12 mos.

177
Q

Windows of Achievement:

crawling

A

5-14 mos.

178
Q

Windows of Achievement:

walking with assistance

A

6-14 mos.

179
Q

Windows of Achievement:

standing alone

A

7-17 mos.

180
Q

Windows of Achievement:

walking alone

A

8-18 mos.

181
Q

Developmental Milestones of Early Literacy:
6-12 months
Motor Development

A

holds head steady
sits in lap without support
grasps book, puts in mouth
drops, throws book

182
Q

Developmental Milestones of Early Literacy:
6-12 months
Communication and Cognition

A 
smiles, babbles, coos
likes and wants your voice
likes pictures of baby faces
begins to say "ma", "ba", "da"
responds to own name
pats pictures to show interest
183
Q

Developmental Milestones of Early Literacy:
6-12 months
Anticipatory Guidance

A

talk back and forth

make eye contact
cuddle, talk, sing, read,play
point at and name things
follow baby's cues ("more", "stop")
play games
184
Q

Developmental Milestones of Early Literacy:
6-12 months
What to Read

A

board and cloth books
baby faces
nursery rhymes

185
Q

Developmental Milestones of Early Literacy:
12-24 months
Motor Development

A

holds and walks with books
no longer puts book in mouth right away
turns book pages

186
Q

Developmental Milestones of Early Literacy:
12-24 months
Communication and Cognition

A 
says single words, then 2-4 word phrases
gives book to read
points at pictures
turns book right side up
names pictures
follows simple stories
187
Q

Developmental Milestones of Early Literacy:
12-24 months
Anticipatory Guidance

A

smile and answer when your child speaks or points
let your child help turn the page
keep naming things
use books in family routines
use books to calm or distract while waiting

188
Q

Developmental Milestones of Early Literacy:
12-24 months
What to Read

A

board books
rhymes
pictures
naming things

189
Q

Developmental Milestones of Early Literacy:
2-3 years
Motor Development

A

learns to turn pages 2-3 pages at a time

starts to scribble

190
Q

Developmental Milestones of Early Literacy:
2-3 years
Communication and Cognition

A

adds 2-4 new words per day
names familiar objects
likes to read the same book
completes sentences and rhymes in familiar stories

191
Q

Developmental Milestones of Early Literacy:
2-3 years
Anticipatory Guidance

A

ask questions (“where”, “what”)
read the same book
talk about the pictures
use books in daily routines

192
Q

Developmental Milestones of Early Literacy:
2-3 years
What to Read

A

rhymes
pictures books that tell stories
search and find books

193
Q

Developmental Milestones of Early Literacy:
3-4 years
Motor Development

A

turns pages one at a time, left to right
sits still for longer stories
scribbles and draws

194
Q

Developmental Milestones of Early Literacy:
3-4 years
Communication and Cognition

A

recites whole phrases
moves toward letter recognition
begins to detect rhyme
pretends to read to toys

195
Q

Developmental Milestones of Early Literacy:
3-4 years
Anticipatory Guidance

A 
ask questions ("What happens next?")
point out letters and numbers
point out words and pictures that begin with the same sound
make up stories about the pictures together
196
Q

Developmental Milestones of Early Literacy:
3-4 years
What to Read

A

picture books that tell longer stories

counting and alphabet books

197
Q

Developmental Milestones of Early Literacy:
4-5 years
Motor Development

A

starts to copy letters and numbers

sits still for even longer stories

198
Q

Developmental Milestones of Early Literacy:
4-5 years
Communication and Cognition

A 
can listen longer
recognizes numbers and letters
can retell familiar stories
can make rhymes
learning letter names and sounds
199
Q

Developmental Milestones of Early Literacy:
4-5 years
Anticipatory Guidance

A

relate the story to your child’s own experiences
let your child see you read
ask your child to tell the story
encourage writing and drawing
point out the letters in your child’s name

200
Q

Developmental Milestones of Early Literacy:
4-5 years
What to Read

A

fairy tales and legends
books with longer stories
fewer pictures

201
Q

Z-Score Interpretation:

Length/Height for Age below 2

A

stunted

202
Q

Z-Score Interpretation:

Length/Height for Age below 3

A

severely stunted

203
Q

Z-Score Interpretation:

Weight for Age below 2

A

underweight

204
Q

Z-Score Interpretation:

Weight for Age below 3

A

severely underweight

205
Q

Z-Score Interpretation:

Weight for Length/Height above 3

A

obese

206
Q

Z-Score Interpretation:

Weight for Length/Height above 2

A

overweight

207
Q

Z-Score Interpretation:

Weight for Length/Height above 1

A

possible risk of overweight

208
Q

Z-Score Interpretation:

Weight for Length/Height below 2

A

wasted

209
Q

Z-Score Interpretation:

Weight for Length/Height below 3

A

severely wasted

210
Q

Z-Score Interpretation:

BMI for Age above 3

A

obese

211
Q

Z-Score Interpretation:

BMI for Age above 2

A

overweight

212
Q

Z-Score Interpretation:

BMI for Age above 1

A

possible risk for overweight

213
Q

Z-Score Interpretation:

BMI for Age below 2

A

wasted

214
Q

Z-Score Interpretation:

BMI for Age below 3

A

severely wasted

215
Q

Immunization:
Bacillus-Calmette Guarin (BCG)
type

A

live attenuated

216
Q

Immunization:
Bacillus-Calmette Guarin (BCG)
route

A

intradermal (ID)

217
Q

Immunization:
Bacillus-Calmette Guarin (BCG)
dose

A
  1. 05 ml for < 12 mos.

0. 1 ml for > 12 mos.

218
Q

Immunization:
Bacillus-Calmette Guarin (BCG)
schedule

A

ideally at birth

first 2 months

219
Q

Immunization:
Bacillus-Calmette Guarin (BCG)
PPD prior to vaccination

A

congenital TB
close contact to case of TB
clinical/x-ray findings suggestive of TB

*induration > 5mm is considered positive

220
Q

Immunization:
Hepatitis B (Hep B)
route

A

intramuscular (IM)

221
Q

Immunization:
Hepatitis B (Hep B)
schedule

A

first 12 hours of life

222
Q 
Immunization:
Hepatitis B (Hep B)
minimum interval
A

4 weeks

223
Q 
Immunization:
Hepatitis B (Hep B)
final dose
A

not earlier than 24 weeks

*another dose is needed if the last dose was given at age < 24 weeks

224
Q

Immunization:
Hepatitis B (Hep B)
preterm, HBsAg (-) mother

A

1st dose at 30 days

*another dose for those < 2 kg whose 1st dose was given at birth

225
Q

Immunization:
Hepatitis B (Hep B)
HBsAg (+) mother

A

HBV and HBIg (0.5ml) within 12h, no later than 7 days

226
Q

Immunization:
Hepatitis B (Hep B)
unknown HBsAg status, ≥ 2 kg

A

give HBV within 12 hours

determine mother’s HBsAg status

227
Q

Immunization:
Hepatitis B (Hep B)
unknown HBsAg status, < 2 kg

A

HBV and HBIg (0.5ml) within 12h

228
Q

Immunization:
Diphtheria and Tetanus Toxoid and Pertussis Vaccine (DTP)
route

A

intramuscular (IM)

229
Q

Immunization:
Diphtheria and Tetanus Toxoid and Pertussis Vaccine (DTP)
schedule

A

minimum 6 weeks

230
Q

Immunization:
Diphtheria and Tetanus Toxoid and Pertussis Vaccine (DTP)
interval

A

4 weeks

  • 4-6 months between 3rd and 4th dose
  • 5th dose may not be given if the 4th dose was given at ≥ 4 y.o.
231
Q

Immunization:
Haemophilus influenzae type B (HiB)
type

A

conjugate vaccine

232
Q

Immunization:
Haemophilus influenzae type B (HiB)
schedule

A

3-dose primary series

minimum 6 weeks

233
Q

Immunization:
Haemophilus influenzae type B (HiB)
interval

A

4 weeks

234
Q

Immunization:
Haemophilus influenzae type B (HiB)
booster

A

12-15 months

6 months from 3rd dose

235
Q 
Immunization:
Poliovirus Vaccine (OPV/IPV)
type
A

live attenuated

236
Q

Immunization:
Poliovirus Vaccine (OPV/IPV)
route

A

OPV - per orem (PO)

IPV - intramuscular (IM)

237
Q

Immunization:
Poliovirus Vaccine (OPV/IPV)
schedule

A

3-dose primary series

minimum 6 weeks

238
Q 
Immunization:
Poliovirus Vaccine (OPV/IPV)
interval
A

4 weeks

239
Q

Immunization:
Poliovirus Vaccine (OPV/IPV)
booster

A

≥ 4 y.o.

6 mos. from previous dose

240
Q

Immunization:
Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccines (PCV)
route

A

intramuscular (IM)

241
Q

Immunization:
Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccines (PCV)
schedule

A

3-dose primary series

minimum 6 weeks

242
Q

Immunization:
Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccines (PCV)
interval

A

4 weeks

243
Q

Immunization:
Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccines (PCV)
booster

A

6 mos. after 3rd dose

244
Q

Immunization:
Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccines (PCV)
Healthy children 2-5 y.o. w/o previous PCV vaccination may be given _____ or _____.

A

1 dose of PCV 13

2 doses of PCV 10 8 weeks apart

245
Q

Immunization:
Rotavirus Vaccine (RV)
route

A

per orem (PO)

246
Q

Immunization:
Rotavirus Vaccine (RV)
schedule

A

minimum 6 weeks

  • monovalent human RV (RV1) - 2 doses
  • pentavalent human bovine (RV5) - 3 doses
247
Q 
Immunization:
Rotavirus Vaccine (RV)
interval
A

4 weeks

248
Q 
Immunization:
Rotavirus Vaccine (RV)
last dose
A

32 weeks

249
Q

Immunization:
Influenza Vaccine
route

A

trivalent - intramuscular (IM) or subcutaneous (SC)

quadrivalent - subcutaneous (SC)

250
Q

Immunization:
Influenza Vaccine
schedule

A

minimum 6 months

251
Q

Immunization:
Influenza Vaccine
dose

A

6-35 mos. - 0.25 ml

36 mos. - 18 y.o. - 0.5 ml

252
Q

Immunization:
Influenza Vaccine
Children 6 mos. - 8 y.o. receiving influenza vaccine for the first time should be given _____.

A

2 doses with a 4 week interval

253
Q

Immunization:
Influenza Vaccine
If only 1 dose was given during the previous influenza season, give _____ then _____ thereafter.

A

2 doses

1 dose annually

254
Q

Immunization:
Influenza Vaccine
Children aged 9-18 y.o. should receive _____.

A

1 dose annually

255
Q

Immunization:
Influenza Vaccine
Vaccination should begin in _____.

A

February

256
Q

Immunization:
Measles Vaccine
type

A

live attenuated

257
Q

Immunization:
Measles Vaccine
route

A

subcutaneous (SC)

258
Q

Immunization:
Measles Vaccine
schedule

A

9 months

*6 months in cases of outbreaks

259
Q

Immunization:
Japanese Encephalitis Vaccine (JE)
route

A

subcutaneous (SC)

260
Q

Immunization:
Japanese Encephalitis Vaccine (JE)
schedule

A

one primary dose

9 mos. - 17 y.o.

261
Q

Immunization:
Japanese Encephalitis Vaccine (JE)
booster

A

12-24 mos. after primary dose

262
Q

Immunization:
Japanese Encephalitis Vaccine (JE)
Individuals ≥ 18 y.o. hould receive _____.

A

1 dose only

263
Q

Immunization:
Measles-Mumps-Rubella (MMR)
type

A

live attenuated

264
Q

Immunization:
Measles-Mumps-Rubella (MMR)
route

A

subcutaneous (SC)

265
Q

Immunization:
Measles-Mumps-Rubella (MMR)
schedule

A

2-dose primary series
minimum 12 months
2nd dose at 4-6 y.o.

*given earlier if recommended by PH

266
Q

Immunization:
Measles-Mumps-Rubella (MMR)
interval

A

4 weeks

267
Q

Immunization:
Measles-Mumps-Rubella (MMR)
Children below 12 mos. given any Measles containing vaccine should be given _____.

A

2 additional doses

268
Q

Immunization:
Varicella Vaccine
type

A

live attenuated

269
Q

Immunization:
Varicella Vaccine
route

A

subcutaneous (SC)

270
Q

Immunization:
Varicella Vaccine
schedule

A

2-dose primary series
1st dose at 12-15 mos.
2nd dose at 4-6 y.o.

271
Q

Immunization:
Varicella Vaccine
interval

A

< 13 y.o. - 3 mos.
> 13 y.o. - 4 weeks

*if 2nd dose was administered 4 weeks after the first dose, it can be considered valid

272
Q

Immunization:
Measles-Mumps-Rubella-Varicella (MMRV)
type

A

live attenuated

273
Q

Immunization:
Measles-Mumps-Rubella-Varicella (MMRV)
schedule

A

12 mos. - 12 y.o.

274
Q

Immunization:
Measles-Mumps-Rubella-Varicella (MMRV)
interval

A

3 months

275
Q

Immunization:
Hepatitis A (Hep A)
route

A

intramuscular (IM)

276
Q

Immunization:
Hepatitis A (Hep A)
schedule

A

2-doses primary series
minimum 12 mos.

*2nd dose is given 6 mos. after the 1st dose

277
Q

Immunization:
Tetanus and Diptheria Toxoid (Td) / Tetanus and Diptheria Toxoid aand Acellular Pertussis (Tdap)
route

A

intramuscular (IM)

278
Q

Immunization:
Tetanus and Diptheria Toxoid (Td) / Tetanus and Diptheria Toxoid aand Acellular Pertussis (Tdap)
booster

A

every 10 years

279
Q

Immunization:
Tetanus and Diptheria Toxoid (Td) / Tetanus and Diptheria Toxoid aand Acellular Pertussis (Tdap)
fully immunized pregnant adolescent

A

1 dose of Tdap after 20 weeks AOG

280
Q

Immunization:
Tetanus and Diptheria Toxoid (Td) / Tetanus and Diptheria Toxoid aand Acellular Pertussis (Tdap)
unimmunized pregnant adolescent

A

3-dose series

0-1-6 month schedule

281
Q

Immunization:
Human Papilloma Virus (HPV)
route

A

intramuscular (IM)

282
Q

Immunization:
Human Papilloma Virus (HPV)
schedule

A

3-dose series
minimum 9 y.o.
bivalent - 0-1-6 month schedule
quadrivalent - 0-2-6 month schedule

283
Q

Immunization:
Human Papilloma Virus (HPV)
interval

A

1 mo. bet. 1st and 2nd dose
3 mos. bet. 2nd and 3rd dose
6 mos. bet. 1st and 3rd dose

284
Q

Immunization:
Human Papilloma Virus (HPV)
A _____ is an option for girls 9-14 y.o.

A

2-dose schedule 6 mos. apart

285
Q

Immunization:
Human Papilloma Virus (HPV)
The quadrivalent HPV can bbe given to males _____ of age for the prevention of _____.

A

9-18 y.o., anogenital warts

286
Q

Immunization:
Rabies Vaccine
route

A

intramuscular (IM) or intradermal (ID)

287
Q

Immunization:
Rabies Vaccine
Intramuscular Regimen

A

Purified Vero Cell Rabies Vaccine (PVRV) 0.5 ml
Purified Chick Embryo Cell Vaccine (PCECV) 1 ml
0-7-21-28 days

288
Q

Immunization:
Rabies Vaccine
Intradermal Regimen

A

Purified Vero Cell Rabies Vaccine (PVRV) 0.1 ml
Purified Chick Embryo Cell Vaccine (PCECV) 0.1 ml
0-7-21-28 days

289
Q

Immunization:
Rabies Vaccine
It should never be given in the _____ since absorption is unpredictable.

A

gluteal area

290
Q

Immunization:
Rabies Vaccine
In subsequent exposure, those who completed _____ will only require booster doses on _____.

A

3 doses, 0-3 days

291
Q

Immunization:
Rabies Vaccine
booster

A

IM - PVRV 0.5 ml or PCECV 1 ml

ID - PVRV 0.1 ml or PCECV 0.1 ml

292
Q

Immunization:
Typhoid Vaccine
route

A

intramuscular (IM)

293
Q

Immunization:
Typhoid Vaccine
schedule

A

minimum 2 y.o.

revaccination every 2-3 years

294
Q

Immunization:
Typhoid Vaccine
Recommended for _____.

A

travelers to areas where there is risk of exposure and for outbreak situations

295
Q

Immunization:
Dengue Vaccine
type

A

live attenuated

296
Q

Immunization:
Dengue Vaccine
route

A

subcutaneous (SC)

297
Q

Immunization:
Dengue Vaccine
schedule

A

3-dose series
9-45 y.o.
0-6-12 months

298
Q

Immunization:
Cholera Vaccine
route

A

per orem (PO)

299
Q

Immunization:
Cholera Vaccine
schedule

A

2-dose series

minimum 12 mos.

300
Q

Immunization:
Cholera Vaccine
interval

A

2 weeks

301
Q

Immunization:
Cholera Vaccine
Recommended for _____.

A

outbreak situations

natural diasters

302
Q

Immunization:
Meningococcal Vaccine
route

A

tetravalent conjugate vaccine (ACYW-135, MCV4-D, MCV4-TT, MCV4-CRM) - intramuscular (IM)
tetravalent polysaccharide vaccine (MPSV4) - intramuscular (IM) or subcutaneous (SC)

303
Q

Immunization:
Meningococcal Vaccine
Indicated for _____.

A 
thoseat high risk for invasive disease
persistent complement comonent deficiencies
anatomic/functional asplenia
HIV
outbreak
hyperendemic areas
304
Q

Immunization:
Meningococcal Vaccine
schedule - MCV4-D

A

9-23 mos.
2 doses 3 months apart

*≥ 2 y.o. give one dose only

305
Q

Immunization:
Meningococcal Vaccine
schedule - MCV4-TT

A

12 mos.

single dose

306
Q

Immunization:
Meningococcal Vaccine
schedule - MCV4-CRM

A

2 y.o.

single dose

307
Q

Immunization:
Meningococcal Vaccine
Revaccinate with MCV4 every _____.

A

5 years

308
Q

Immunization:
Meningococcal Vaccine
schedule - MPSV4

A

2 y.o.

single dose

309
Q

Immunization:
Meningococcal Vaccine
If MPSV4 is used for high risk individuals as the 1st dose, a 2nd dose using _____ should be given _____ later.

A

MCV4, 2 mos.

310
Q

Immunization:
Meningococcal Vaccine
MCV4-D and PCV13 should be given _____ apart.

A

4 weeks

311
Q

Immunization:
Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccine (PCV) / Pneumococcal Polysaccharide Vaccine (PPSV)
route

A

intramuscular (IM)

312
Q

Immunization:
Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccine (PCV) / Pneumococcal Polysaccharide Vaccine (PPSV)
Indicated for children with _____.

A

high risk medical conditions

313
Q

Immunization:
Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccine (PCV) / Pneumococcal Polysaccharide Vaccine (PPSV)
2-5 y.o., incomplete schedule of 3 doses

A

1 dose of PCV 13

314
Q

Immunization:
Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccine (PCV) / Pneumococcal Polysaccharide Vaccine (PPSV)
2-5 y.o., unvacccinated or incomplete schedule of < 3 doses

A

2 doses of PCV 13 8 weeks apart

315
Q

Immunization:
Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccine (PCV) / Pneumococcal Polysaccharide Vaccine (PPSV)
2-5 y.o., 4 doses fo PCV 7

A

1 dose of PCV 13

316
Q

Immunization:
Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccine (PCV) / Pneumococcal Polysaccharide Vaccine (PPSV)
6-18 y.o., unvaccinated

A

1 dose of PCV 13 + 1 dose of PPSV after 8 weeks

317
Q

Immunization:
Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccine (PCV) / Pneumococcal Polysaccharide Vaccine (PPSV)
high risk medical conditions

A

2nd dose of PPSV 5 years after 1st dose

318
Q

Immunization:
Haemophilus influenzae type B (HiB)
type

A

conjugate vaccine

319
Q

Immunization:
Haemophilus influenzae type B (HiB)
route

A

intramuscular (IM)

320
Q

Immunization:
Haemophilus influenzae type B (HiB)
12-59 mos., unimmunized or 1 dose of HiB before 12 mos.

A

2 additional doses 8 weeks apart

321
Q

Immunization:
Haemophilus influenzae type B (HiB)
12-59 mos., ≥ 1 dose of HiB before 12 mos.

A

1 additional dose

322
Q

Immunization:
Haemophilus influenzae type B (HiB)
≤ 5 y.o., HiB booster dosewithin 14 days of starting chemotherapy/RT

A

repeat dose 3 mos. after completion of therapy

323
Q

Immunization:
Haemophilus influenzae type B (HiB)
hematopoetic stem cell transplant

A

reimmunized with 3 doses 4 weeks apart, 6-12 mos. after transplant

324
Q

Immunization:
Haemophilus influenzae type B (HiB)
unimmunized children ≥ 15 mos. undergoing elective splenectomy

A

1 dose 14 days before procedure

325
Q

Immunization:
Haemophilus influenzae type B (HiB)
unimmunized children 5-18 y.o. with anatomic/functional asplenia and HIV

A

1 dose

326
Q

Immunization of Teens:
Hep B
recommended age

A

unvaccinated 7-18 y.o.

327
Q

Immunization of Teens:
Hep B
dose

A

3

328
Q

Immunization of Teens:
Hep B
schedule

A

0-1-6 months

329
Q

Immunization of Teens:
Hep B
route

A

intramuscular (IM)

330
Q

Immunization of Teens:
Hep B
precautions and contraindications

A

severe allergic reaction to vaccine component, moderate to severe illness

331
Q

Immunization of Teens:
Hep A
recommended age

A

unvaccinated 7-18 y.o.

332
Q

Immunization of Teens:
Hep A
dose

A

2

333
Q

Immunization of Teens:
Hep A
schedule

A

2nd dose 6 months after 1st dose

334
Q

Immunization of Teens:
Hep A
route

A

intramuscular (IM)

335
Q

Immunization of Teens:
Hep A
precautions and contraindications

A

severe allergic reaction to vaccine component, moderate to severe illness

336
Q

Immunization of Teens:
MMR
recommended age

A

unvaccinated 7-18 y.o.

incompletely vaccinated 7-18 y.o.

337
Q

Immunization of Teens:
MMR
dose, unvaccinated 7-18 y.o.

A

2

338
Q

Immunization of Teens:
MMR
dose, incompletely vaccinated 7-18 y.o.

A

1

339
Q

Immunization of Teens:
MMR
schedule, unvaccinated 7-18 y.o.

A

4 weeks betwen doses

340
Q

Immunization of Teens:
MMR
schedule, incompletely vaccinated 7-18 y.o.

A

2nd dose 4 weeks after 1st dose

341
Q

Immunization of Teens:
MMR
route

A

subcutaneous (SC)

342
Q

Immunization of Teens:
MMR
precautions and contraindications

A

severe allergic reaction to vaccine component, moderate to severe illness, pregnancy, immunosuppression, recent blood transfusion

343
Q

Immunization of Teens:
Varicella
recommended age

A

unvaccinated 7-12 y.o.
unvaccinated ≥ 13 y.o.
incompletely vaccinated 7-18 y.o.

344
Q

Immunization of Teens:
Varicella
dose, unvaccinated 7-12 y.o.

A

2

345
Q

Immunization of Teens:
Varicella
dose, unvaccinated ≥ 13 y.o.

A

2

346
Q

Immunization of Teens:
Varicella
dose, incompletely vaccinated 7-18 y.o.

A

1

347
Q

Immunization of Teens:
Varicella
schedule, unvaccinated 7-12 y.o.

A

3 month interval

348
Q

Immunization of Teens:
Varicella
schedule, unvaccinated 7-12 y.o.

A

1 month interval

349
Q

Immunization of Teens:
Varicella
schedule, incompletely vaccinated 7-18 y.o.

A

7-12 y.o. - 3 mos. from 1st dose

≥ 13 y.o. - 4 weeks from 1st dose

350
Q

Immunization of Teens:
Varicella
route

A

subcutaneous (SC)

351
Q

Immunization of Teens:
Varicella
precautions and contraindications

A

severe allergic reaction to vaccine component, moderate to severe illness, pregnancy, immunosuppression, recent blood transfusion

352
Q

Immunization of Teens:
Influenza
recommended age

A

9-18 y.o.

353
Q

Immunization of Teens:
Influenza
dose

A

annually

354
Q

Immunization of Teens:
Influenza
schedule

A

begin immunization in February

355
Q

Immunization of Teens:
Influenza
route

A

intramuscular (IM) or subcutaneous (SC)

356
Q

Immunization of Teens:
Influenza
precautions and contraindications

A

severe allergic reaction to vaccine component, moderate to severe illness, history of Guillain-Barre Syndrome following previous dose

357
Q

Immunization of Teens:
HPV
recommended age

A

females: 9-18 y.o. (bivalent, quadrivalent)
males: 9-18 (quadriavalent)

358
Q

Immunization of Teens:
HPV
schedule

A

bivalent - 0-1-6 months
quadrivalent - 0-2-6 months

*females, 9-14 y.o., 2 doses, 0-6 months

359
Q

Immunization of Teens:
HPV
route

A

intramuscular (IM)

360
Q

Immunization of Teens:
HPV
precautions and contraindications

A

severe allergic reaction to vaccine component, moderate to severe illness, if found to be pregnant after starting immunization delay remaining doses until completion of pregnancy

361
Q

Immunization of Teens:
Td/Tdap
recommended age

A

unvaccinated 7-18 y.o.
incompletely vaccinated 7-18 y.o.
fully vaccinated 7-18 y.o.

*fully vaccinated - 5 doses of DTap or 4 doses of DTap if the 4th dose was given ≥ 4 y.o.

362
Q

Immunization of Teens:
Td/Tdap
dose, unvaccinated 7-18 y.o.

A

3

363
Q

Immunization of Teens:
Td/Tdap
dose, incompletely vaccinated 7-18 y.o.

A

1-2

364
Q

Immunization of Teens:
Td/Tdap
dose, fully vaccinated 7-18 y.o.

A

1

365
Q

Immunization of Teens:
Td/Tdap
schedule, unvaccinated 7-18 y.o.

A

0-1-6 months with Tdap as the first dose then Td for the remaining doses

366
Q

Immunization of Teens:
Td/Tdap
schedule, incompletely vaccinated 7-18 y.o.

A

1 dose Tdap and Td for the remaining doses

367
Q

Immunization of Teens:
Td/Tdap
schedule, fully vaccinated 7-18 y.o.

A

1 dose Tdap the Td every 10 years

368
Q

Immunization of Teens:
Td/Tdap
route

A

intramuscular (IM)

369
Q

Immunization of Teens:
Td/Tdap
precautions and contraindications

A

severe allergic reaction to vaccine component, moderate to severe illness

370
Q

Prenaatal Education Components

A 
Breastfeeding
Newborn Care
Anticipatory Guidance
Avoidance of Smoking, Alcohol and Teratogens
Tetanus Toxoid Immunization
Maternal Nutrition
371
Q

Every infant must be _____ at birth and monitored _____ until discharge.

A

appraised, daily

372
Q

_____ is the perfect first food.

A

Colostrum

373
Q

Latching-on and breastfeeding must be initiated during the first _____ after delivery.

A

30-60 min.

374
Q

Red Flag Signs for Atopy

A 
Respiratory
Nasal
Ocular
Skin
Gastrointestinal
375
Q

Red Flag Signs for Atopy:

Respiratory

A 
chronic cough ± wheezing
shortness of breath
chest tightness
trouble sleeping due to coughing
fatigue
problems with feeding
grunting during infancy
376
Q

Red Flag Signs for Atopy:

Nasal

A

frequent sneezing
rhinorrhea
itchiness
nasal congestion

377
Q

Red Flag Signs for Atopy:

Ocular

A 
bluish-brownish discoloration around both eyes
puffiness under the eyes
redness
tearing
itchiness
378
Q

Red Flag Signs for Atopy:

Skin

A

dryness

itchiness

379
Q

Red Flag Signs for Atopy:

Gastrointestinal

A 
itchiness of the roof of the mouth and throat
colic
vomiting
stomach cramps
diarrhea
bloody stools
380
Q

Recumbent Length for children _____.

A

< 2 y.o.

381
Q

Standing Height for children _____.

A

≥ 2 y.o.

382
Q

Recumbent Length = Standing Height + _____

A

0.7 cm

383
Q

_____ is a reliable growth indicator even when the age is unknown.

A

Weight-for-Length/Height

384
Q

_____ measurement standards enable early detection and prevention of overweight and obesity problems.

A

Body Mass Index (BMI)

385
Q

Routine BP measurement should start at _____ and should be done to _____.

A

3 y.o., ill patients, at rsk patients

386
Q

BP < 90th percentile

A

normotensive

387
Q

BP < 95th percentile

A

pre-hypertensive

*adolescents - 120/80

388
Q

BP ≥ 95th percentile

A

hypertensive

*on 3 or more occasions

389
Q

RA No. 9288

A

Newborn Screening Act of 2004

390
Q

Newborn Screening should be done _____.

A

immediately 24 hours after birth.

391
Q

Expanded Newborn Screening has been made available since _____.

A

December 2014

392
Q

RA No. 9709

A

The Universal Newborn Hearing Screening and Intervention Act of 2009

393
Q

Hearing screening should be done _____.

A

before discharge, first 3 months

394
Q

If with (+) Hearing Screening result, referral for intervention should be done _____.

A

before the age of 6 mos.

395
Q

RA No. 9482

A

Anti-Rabies Act of 200

396
Q

Rabies pre-exposure prophylaxis for children _____.

A

5-14 y.o.

397
Q

Iron Supplementation:
LBW Infants
Preparation

A

drops: 15 mg elemental iron/0.6 ml

398
Q

Iron Supplementation:
LBW Infants
Dose/Duration

A

0.3 ml OD 2-6 mos.

399
Q

Iron Supplementation:
6-11 mos.
Preparation

A

drops: 15 mg elemental iron/0.6 ml

400
Q

Iron Supplementation:
6-11 mos.
Dose/Duration

A

0.6 ml OD x 3mos.

401
Q

Iron Supplementation:
1-5 y.o.
Preparation

A

syrup: 30 mg elemental iron/5 ml

402
Q

Iron Supplementation:
1-5 y.o.
Dose/Duration

A

1 tsp OD x 3 mos.

30 mg/week x 6 mos.

403
Q

Iron Supplementation:
10-19 y.o. Adolescent Girls
Preparation

A

tablet: 60 mg elemental iron with 400 mcg folic acid

404
Q

Iron Supplementation:
10-19 y.o. Adolescent Girls
Dose/Duration

A

1 tab OD

405
Q

Vitamin A Supplementation:
6-11 mos.
Preparation

A

100,00 IU

406
Q

Vitamin A Supplementation:
6-11 mos.
Dose/Duration

A

1 dose only

*usually given at 9 mos. during Measles immunization

407
Q

Vitamin A Supplementation:
12-59 mos.
Preparation

A

200,000 IU

408
Q

Vitamin A Supplementation:
12-59 mos.
DOse/Duration

A

1 capsule every 6 mos.

409
Q

Zinc supplementation prevents _____.

A

pneumonia, diarrhea

410
Q

Deworming shouldbe done for children _____.

A

1-12 y.o.

411
Q

Deworming: Albendazole Dose

A

12-23 mos. - 200 mg, single dose every 6 mos.

≥ 24 mos. - 400mg, single dose every 6 mos.

412
Q

Deworming: Mebendazole Dose

A

≥ 12 mos. - 500mg, single dose every 6 mos.

413
Q

Albendazole and Mebendazole are given on a _____.

A

full stomach

414
Q

Deworming should not be done on children with _____.

A 
severe malnutrition
high-grade fever
profuse diarrhea
abdominal pain
serious illness
previous hypersensitivity to antihelminthic drug
415
Q

In municipalities endemic for filariasis, mass treatment with _____ and _____ are given to children _____.

A

Diethylcarbamazine Citrate (DEC), Albendazole, ≥ 2 y.o.

416
Q

First dental visit should be done at the time of _____ and no later than _____.

A

eruption of first tooth, 12 mos.

417
Q

Age-Approprieate physical activities for children should be done _____ daily on _____.

A

60 min., most days of the week

418
Q

Sedentary activity should be limited to _____.

A

2 hours/day

419
Q

Parents and children should be counseled to prevent injuries from _____.

A

birth to adolescence

420
Q

RA No. 7610

A

Anti Child Abuse Law

421
Q

_____ is an ubiquitous environmental toxicant that can cause cognitive impairment.

A

Lead

422
Q

CBC should be done at least once during _____.

A

6-24 mos.
2-6 years
10-19 years

423
Q

CBC:

Special attention should be given to infants _____.

A

6-12 mos.

12-23 mos.

424
Q

PPD:

Drugs Used

A

5 TTU PPD

2TU-RT23

425
Q

PPD should be read _____ after

A

48-72 hours

426
Q

PPD:

> 5 mm induration is positive if there is _____.

A

history of close contact with known or suspected TB
clinical findings or CXR suggestive of TB
immunosuppressed condition

427
Q

PPD:

An induration of _____ is considered poritive.

A

> 10 mm

Compiled PPS board reviewer (60 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions