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Compiled PPS board reviewer > PPS Policy Statements COPY > Flashcards

PPS Policy Statements COPY Flashcards

1
Q

Bioactive Components in Breastmilk

A 
lysozymes
immunoglobulins
hormones
growth factors
immune function modulators
anti-inflammatory components
cellular components
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2
Q

Failing to breastfeed in the first 6 mos. of life resulted in _____ increase in diarrheal mortality.

A

8-10x

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3
Q

Bottle feeding was shown to increase the risk of _____.

A

otitis media

H. influenzae bacteremia and meningitis

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4
Q

Contraindications to Breastfeeding

A

galactosemia
illegal drugs
chemotherapy
radiopharmaceuticals

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5
Q

Active TB is a _____ contraindication to breastfeeding.

A

relative

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6
Q

Breastfeeding should be done after observed treatment with anti-Koch’s therapy for _____.

A

2 weeks

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7
Q

HIV is a _____ contraindication to breastfeeding.

A

relative

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8
Q

_____ of expressed breastmilk from an HIV+ mother has been proven to be effective in killing the virus.

A

Heat Treatment

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9
Q

The WHO/UNICEF launched a 10-step program called _____ in _____.

A

The Baby-Friendly Hospital Initiative

1992

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10
Q

The Baby-Friendly Hospital Initiative

A
  1. written breastfeeding policy
  2. train health care staff
  3. inform pregnant women of the benefits of BF
  4. initiate BF within 30 min. after birth
  5. initiate BF and maintain lactation
  6. no food or drink other than breastmilk
  7. rooming in
  8. BF per demand
  9. no artificial teats or pacifiers
  10. support groups
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11
Q

RA No. 7600

A

The Rooming-In and Breastfeeding Act of 1992

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12
Q

Maternal employment is significantly associated with _____ of breastfeeding.

A

early cessation

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13
Q

Challenges to BF in the Workplace

A

lack of break time
inadequate facilities
lack of resources
lack of support

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14
Q

House Bill No. 6661

A

Breastfeeding Promotion Act

February 5, 2004

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15
Q

An Act Promoting Breastfeeding by Establishing and maintaining Lactation Stations in Workplaces for Working Mothers, Providing for Penalties for Violation thereof and for other purposes

A

Breastfeeding Promotion Act
House BIll No. 6661
February 5, 2004

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16
Q

The neural tube usually closes within the first _____ of life.

A

21-28 days

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17
Q

_____ is the most common major CNS malformation.

A

Anencephaly

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18
Q

Anencphaly is seen _____ more in females than in males.

A

37x

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19
Q

_____ of neural tube defects could be prevented with _____.

A

50-70%, folic acid

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20
Q

Women of childbearing age should be given _____ of folic acid to reduce the risk for neural tube defects.

A

0.4 mg (400 mcg) daily

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21
Q

RA No. 8976

A

The Philippine Food Fortification Act

November 2000

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22
Q

Newborn Screening began in _____ when _____ designed an assay for _____.

A

1961, Dr. Robert Guthrie, phenylketonuria (PKU)

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23
Q

Newborn Screening was introduced to the Philippines in _____.

A

1996

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24
Q

First Newborn Screening Components

A 
PKU
CAH
Congenital Hypothyroidism
Galactosemia
Homocystinuria
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25
Q

Newborn Screening Components

A 
PKU
CAH
Congenital Hypothyroidism
Galactosemia
G6PD (1998)
MSUD (2012)
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26
Q

Administrative Order No. 1-A s 2000

A

Policies on the Nationwide Implementation of Newborn Screening

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27
Q

_____ is the act requiring every newborn in the Philippines be offered NBS.

A

Newborn Screening Act of 2004

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28
Q

_____ is the most common IEM in the Philippines.

A

MSUD

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29
Q

The incidence of bilateral hearing loss is _____.

A

1-3 per 1000

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30
Q

Risk Factors for Hearing Loss

birth - 28 days

A 
NICU admission ≥ 48 hours
syndromes
ear and craniofacial abnormalities
family history of sensorineural hearing loss
in utero infections
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31
Q

Risk Factors for Hearing Loss

29 days - 2 years

A 
concern regarding hearing, speech, development
family history of childhood hearing loss
syndromes
postnatal infection
in utero infections
neonatal indicators
neurodegenerative disorders
head trauma
recurrent or persistent otitis media (3 mos.)
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32
Q

_____ is the 3rd leading cause of disability.

A

Hearing Impairment

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33
Q

Detection of hearing loss at _____ and intervention at _____ prevents or reduces its effects.

A

3 mos., 6 mos.

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34
Q

5 Elements of Universal Newborn Hearing Screening Program (UNHSP)

A 
screening
tracking
follow-up
identification
intervention
evaluation
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35
Q

_____, _____ and _____ are among the leading causes of blindness among Filipinos.

A

poor nutrition, measles, premature birth

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36
Q

_____ deficiency is the leading cause of childhood blindness.

A

Vitamin A

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37
Q

Vitamin A capsules should be given to _____.

A

9-11 mo. infants
12-59 mo. children
sick and malnourished children

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38
Q

The WHO global initiative to eliminate avoidable blindness by 2020

A

Vision 2020: The Right to Sight

1999, Geneva, Switzerland

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39
Q

The AAP advocates eye examination at _____.

A

birth, all well child visits

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40
Q

The earliest possible age for visual acuity measurement is at _____.

A

3 y.o.

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41
Q

The act which requires all vehicles to be equipped with seat belts

A

The Seat Belts Use Act of 1999

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42
Q

In the 5-15 y.o. age group, _____ are the 3rd leading cause of mortality.

A

traffic crashes

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43
Q

_____ reduce the incidence of wheel locking and skidding.

A

Anti-Lock Brakes

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44
Q

The _____ located at the front of the car absorbs most of the impact energy in a collision.

A

crumple zone

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45
Q

_____ are designed to inflate during a crash in order to cushion the passenger at impact.

A

Airbags

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46
Q

_____ cushion the blow of a side impact.

A

Side-Impact Beams

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47
Q

_____ prevent the individual’s head from snapping back in rear-end crashes.

A

Head Restraints

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48
Q

RA No. 8750

A

The Seat Belts Use Act of 1999

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49
Q

Children _____ of age are prohibited from occupying the front seat.

A

< 6 years

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50
Q

Specialized child seats are required for children weighing _____.

A

60 lbs.

8 y.o.

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51
Q

Built-in seat belts may be used for children _____.

A

> 8 y.o.

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52
Q

Risk Factors for Adolescent VC

A 
lack of driving experience
risk-taking behavior
use of alcohol and drugs
low rate of seat belt use (33%)
lack of experience in night-time driving
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53
Q

In Metro Manila, _____ are the 3rd leading cause of motor vehicle injury.

A

jeepney crashes (6%)

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54
Q

In Metro Manila, _____ are the 4th leading cause of motor vehicle injury.

A

tricycle crashes (5%)

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55
Q

In Metro Manila, _____ account for 51% of all road injuries.

A

pedestrian injuries

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56
Q

The leading causes of pedestrian-vehicle collisions are _____.

A

pedestrians at roadsides

crossing violations

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57
Q

Traffic accidents are the 2nd most common type of accident in the _____ and _____ age groups

A

1-4 y.o., 5-12 y.o.

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58
Q

Pedestrian Safety Rules

A
  1. cross only at corners
  2. use crosswalks
  3. follow the green light
  4. cross with the walk sign
  5. look all ways before crossing
  6. watch for turning cars
  7. never cross between parked cars
  8. drivers can’t see you
  9. walk on the L side of the road facing traffic
  10. use a flashlight or something retroreflective
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59
Q

A bicycle helmet can effectively reduce the occurrence of brain injury by _____.

A

63-88%

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60
Q

Helmets provide cyclists an equal level of protection from crashes involving _____.

A 
motor vehicles (69%)
other causes (68%)
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61
Q

_____ is the leading cause of child injury death in the Philippines.

A

Drowning

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62
Q

Among Filipino children aged 1-4 y.o., accidents caused by submersion, suffocation and FB ranked _____ overall cause of mortality in 1998.

A

7th

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63
Q

_____ are the 5th leading cause of mortality in the Philippines in 1995.

A

Burns

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64
Q

_____ can increase the likelihood of burns.

A

absence of water supply
low salary
crowding

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65
Q

_____ is the leading mechanism causing burns.

A

Scalding

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66
Q

_____ causes 10% of the fire deaths worldwide.

A

Smoking

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67
Q

Fire Safety Measures:

Always have a _____ available in your house.

A

fire extinguisher

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68
Q

Fire Safety Measures:

Preventing Fire

A

inspect electrical wirings
circuits should not be overloaded
remove leaves and paper
don’t store flammable liquids near the stove
don’t use alcohol or gasoline to start a fire
put off all candles and lights before bed
do not place candles where they may be toppled over
lamps should not be placed near flammable objects
crush cigarette butts
don’t smoke in bed
keep flammable materials from children

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69
Q

Fire Safety Measures:

When Fire is at Hand

A 
call for help
stay close to the floor
put a wet cloth over your face
close the doors and windows behind you
feel the door before opening it
know the fire exits
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70
Q

Fire Safety Measures:

When Your Clothes Catch Fire

A 
don't run
wrap yourself in a blanket
drop to the floor and roll over
stay close to the floor in a horizontal position
douse yourself with water
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71
Q

_____ is one of the oldest surgical procedures in the world.

A

Circumcision

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72
Q

In the Philippines, circumcision is largely determined by _____.

A

peer pressure

religious and cultural influences

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73
Q

More than _____ of Filipinos are circumcised.

A

90%

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74
Q

_____ is one of the most common chronic childhood diseases.

A

Early Childhood Caries

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75
Q

Early Childhood Caries is the presence of _____ in _____ in a child _____.

A

≥ 1 decayed, missing or filled tooth
any primary tooth
≤ 71 mos.

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76
Q

Filipino children have the _____ caries prevalence in the Western Pacific Region.

A

2nd highest

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77
Q

PPS recommends the use of _____ to prevent dental caries.

A

fluoride varnish

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78
Q

Postnatal exposure to second-hand smoke has been causally linked to _____.

A

SIDS

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79
Q

_____ students live in households with members who smoke.

A

6 in 10

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80
Q

_____ is the single most important location of cigarette smoke exposure.

A

Home

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81
Q

RA 9211

A

Tobacco Regulation Act of 2003

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82
Q

RA 8749

A

Philippine Clean Air Act of 1999

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83
Q

The Philippines is the _____ ranking country in SEA having the most smokers and the _____ ranking in most number of young smokers.

A

3rd, top

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84
Q

_____ of women smoke while pregnant.

A

12-22%

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85
Q

Effects of Maternal Smoking

A 
spontaneous abortion
low birth weight
preterm delivery
SIDS
ADHD
idiopathic MR
behavioral problems
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86
Q

In the 10-14 y.o. age group, _____ ranks as the 4th leading cause of overall mortality with a death rate of _____.

A

injuries undetermined whether accidental or purposefully inflicted, 3.1 per 100,000

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87
Q

Media is taking a larger role as a _____ for many Filipino youths.

A

surrogate babysitter

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88
Q

Teenagers take _____ of broadcast media weekly.

A

30 hours

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89
Q

Effects of Media Exposure

A

violent behavior
high-risk behavior
tobacco use
early onset of sexual activity

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90
Q

Children _____ are developmentally unable to understand the difference between advertising and regular programming.

A

< 8 years

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91
Q

_____ creates misconceptions about the nutritional value of food and how to maintain good health.

A

Advertising

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92
Q

In the Philippines, _____ of young children and _____ of adolescents are overweight.

A

1% (0-10 y.o.)

3% (11-17 y.o.)

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93
Q

_____ is a key component to healthy living and provides many well-documented benefits to children.

A

Regular Physical Activity

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94
Q

_____ plays an important role in developing good exercise habits in children.

A

School

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95
Q

_____ is the 2nd leading cause of mortality among Filipino children.

A

Diarrhea

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96
Q

Diarrhea is closely associated with _____.

A

poverty
lack of safe water supply
poor hygiene

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97
Q

_____ has been the substantial source of municipal water.

A

Groundwater (45.5%)

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98
Q

_____ has been the most effective means for the disinfection of public water supply.

A

Chlorination

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99
Q

Disposal of _____ is a major health problem with _____ being common areas of disposal.

A

solid waste, open dumpsites

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100
Q

The average first coitus among Filipino adolescents is _____.

A

18 - males

18.3 - females

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101
Q

_____, rather than Abstinence Only Sex Education, is more effective in helping adolescents make healthy decisions regarding sex.

A

Comprehensive Sex Education

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102
Q

According to the 2002 Young Adolescent Fertility and Sexual Survey, _____ of youth already had premarital sex.

A

23%

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103
Q

_____ of adolescents do not use contraception.

A

74%

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104
Q

Adolescents contribute _____ to the overall fertility.

A

30%

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105
Q

4 Goals of Comprehensive Sex Education

A
  1. Information
  2. Attitudes, Values, and Insights
  3. Relationships and Interpersonal Skills
  4. Responsibility
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106
Q

Groups Addressed by Sex Education:

_____ are those who do not anticipate having sex in the next year.

A

Delayers

107
Q

Groups Addressed by Sex Education:

_____ are those who anticipate initiating sex in the next year.

A

Anticipators

108
Q

Groups Addressed by Sex Education:

_____ are those who have had 1 sexual partner.

A

Singles

109
Q

Groups Addressed by Sex Education:

_____ are those who have had ≥ 2 partners.

A

Multiples

110
Q

Retinal vascular development begins at _____.

A

15-18 weeks AOG

111
Q

_____ are critical to the development of retinal vessels.

A

Undifferentiated Endothelial Cells

112
Q

Exposure to _____ damages developing retinal vessels and temporarily arrests their development leading to _____ and _____.

A

stress, ischemia, avascularized periphery

113
Q

Retinal vessels whose development has been arrested resumes development at _____.

A

30-34 weeks AOG

114
Q

In ROP, the eye may become inflamed and hazy and exudates may form along the retinal vessels with engorgement and tortuosity of the _____.

A

posterior pole vessels (Plus Disease)

115
Q

ROP Zones:

most posterior area, 2x the distance from the optic nerve head to the fovea

A

Zone 1

116
Q

ROP Zones:

surrounds Zone 1 with the nasal ora serrata as its nasal border

A

Zone 2

117
Q

ROP Zones:

the crescent that Zone 2 did not encompass temporally

A

Zone 3

118
Q

ROP Stages:
demarcation line separating the avascular retina anteriorly from the vascularized retina posteriorly with abnormal branching of small vessels immediately posterior to this

A

Stage 1

119
Q

ROP Stages:

intraretinal ridge - the demarcation line has increased in volume but this proliferative tissue remains intraretinal

A

Stage 2

120
Q

ROP Stages:

ridge with extra-retinal fibrovascular proliferation

A

Stage 3

121
Q

ROP Stages:

partial retinal detachment

A

Stage 4

122
Q

The primary risk factor for developing ROP is _____ mainly because of _____.

A

prematurity, incomplete vascularization of the retina

123
Q

_____ prevents the further progression of ROP by destroying the cells that may release angiogenic factors.

A

Cryotherapy

124
Q

Findings in ROP

A

Myopia (80%)
Strabismus
Amblyopia

125
Q

_____ is commonly prescribed in the treatment of strabismus and amblyopia.

A

Eye Patching

126
Q

Pathogenesis of ROP

A

disruption in the arborisation of the retinal vasculature → hyperproliferation of retinal vessels

127
Q

Risk Factors for ROP

A

↓ AOG, ↓ birth weight

128
Q

ROP Screening should be done on infants with:

A

BW < 1500 g
< 32 weeks AOG
BW 1500-2000 g with unstable course

129
Q

ROP Screening should be done at a minimum age of _____ or within _____, whichever come later.

A

4 weeks chronologic age

31-33 weeks PCA

130
Q

_____ is the mainstay treatment of ROP.

A

Surgery

131
Q

Good nutrition is linked to _____.

A

learning readiness
academic achievement
decreased discipline problems
decreased emotional problems

132
Q

Unhealthy Foods

A

too salty
too sweet
too oily
too fatty

133
Q

Non-nutritious foods do not contribute to nutrients that the body needs except _____.

A

empty calories

134
Q

The Philippines ranked _____ in terms of worldwide soft drink consumption.

A

28th

135
Q

Excessive consumption of soft drinks increases the risk for dental caries because of its _____.

A

acidity - ↑ dentin permeability and hypersensitivity

136
Q

Children _____ are at greatest risk for home poisoning due to hand-to-mouth exploratory activities.

A

< 6 y.o.

137
Q

_____ are effective in reducing death rate from poisoning.

A

Child-Safe Containers

138
Q

Warning labels are considered _____ in reducing deaths due to child poisoning.

A

ineffective

139
Q

The ready availability of _____ as commercial products has made poisoning from these substances among the most common non-accidental poisoning cases in the country.

A

acids and alkali

140
Q

Top 3 Ingested Poison

A

1 - household cleaning agents
2 - hydrocarbon
3 - jathropa seeds

141
Q

The 2 most importnant factors that led to the decrease of unintentional poisoing in the US have been _____

A

child-resistant closures

safer medications

142
Q

_____ are among the most common poison exposures in children, 2nd to household products.

A

Pain Relievers

143
Q

Approximately _____ of methylsalicylate can be lethal for a young child.

A

1-2 tsp (5-10 ml)

144
Q

Toxic effects of iron poisoning occur at doses of _____.

A

10-20 mg/kg elemental iron

145
Q

Isoniazid Toxicity:

Minimum Dose

A

1.5 g

146
Q

Isoniazid Toxicity:

Seizures

A

30 mg/kg

147
Q

Isoniazid Toxicity:

Fatal

A

80-150 mg/kg

148
Q

_____ is a matchstick-like firework made of yellow phosphorus, potassium chlorate, potassium nitrate and trinitrotoluene.

A

Watusi

149
Q

After ingestion of watusi, _____ should be given.

A

children - 4-6 egg whites

adults - 6-8 egg whites

150
Q

Watusi Poisoning Symptoms

A

hypocalcemia
hypoprothrombinemia
metabolic acidosis
mucosal injury

151
Q

Lead poisoning is defined as BLL of _____.

A

> 10 mg/dl

*1 venous specimen or 2 capillary specimen within 12 weeks of each other

152
Q

Lead is absorbed through _____.

A

ingestion

inhalation

153
Q

Up to 95% of absorbed lead is found in _____.

A

erythrocytes

154
Q

Lead absorbed in _____ is responsible for bringing lead to the bones along with calcium.

A

plasma

155
Q

Lead encephalopathy occurs at BLL of _____

A

> 70 mg/dl

156
Q

_____ is the natural or induced production of genetically identical molecules, cells, tissues, plants or animals.

A

Cloning

157
Q

_____ is also known as Recombinant DNA Technology or Molecular Cloning where a DNA fragment is transferred to a self-replicating genetic element (bacterial plasmid).

A

Gene Cloning

158
Q

_____ is also known as Biomedical Cloning which sources cells from the embryo to produce tissue or whole organs.

A

Therapeutic Cloning

159
Q

_____ is also known as Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer where the embryois allowed to develop to maturity. Chromosomal or genetic DNA is similar to the donor but the mitochondrial DNA is that of the enucleated cell.

A

Reproductive Cloning

160
Q

Ethical Arguments in Human Reproductive Cloning

A 
physical harm
research standards
autonomy
conflicts of interest
psychological or social harm
dignity
justice
161
Q

_____ nations have laws which forbid reproductive cloning.

A

35

162
Q

WHO: Orphan Disorders are conditions which affect _____.

A

< 1000 per 1M

163
Q

There are _____ orphan disorders.

A

5000

164
Q

Philippines: Orphan Disorders are conditions which affect _____.

A

1 in 20,000

165
Q

Children should not carry backpacks weighing _____ and never _____.

A

> 10% of their body weight

4 in. below the waistline

166
Q

Students carrying _____ of their body weight are more susceptible to low back pain.

A

> 10-20%

167
Q

_____ are at a greater risk for developing low back pain from backpacks.

A

females

younger children

168
Q

Carrying _____ of the body weight is too much to maintain standing posture in adolescents.

A

> 15%

169
Q

Carrying _____ of the body weight is most effective at maintaining balance.

A

≤ 5%

170
Q

Sucking satisfies both the nutritive and non-nutritive needs of a child, with greatest occurence at _____.

A

0-18 mos.

171
Q

_____ are the most non-nutritive sucking materials used.

A

Pacifiers

172
Q

Advantages of Pacifiers

A

soothes and calms
aids dentition
analgesia for preterm neonates
protective against SIDS

173
Q

Adverse Effects of Pacifiers

A 
shortened breastfeeding
poor latch-on technique
nipple confusion
altered dental arches
altered oral myofunctional structures
malocclusion
open bite
gastroenteritis
respiratory tract infection
otitis media
oral candida
asphyxia
174
Q

Noise intensity is measured in _____, a logarithmic scale wherein a 10 _____ increase represents a 10-fold increase in noise intensity.

A

decibels

175
Q

Community Noise is also called _____.

A

Residential Noise
Environmental Noise
Domestic Noise

176
Q

Community Noise is the noise emitted from all sources except the _____.

A

industrial workplace

177
Q

Safe Level of Community Noise

A

< 85 dB

178
Q

_____ is the most prevalent and most damaging source of noise.

A

Street Traffic

179
Q

Cars produce noise levels in the range of _____.

A

67-75 dB

180
Q

Motorcycles produce noise levels in the range of _____.

A

72-83 dB

*can reach 120 dB

181
Q

Tricycles produce noise at _____.

A

80 dB

182
Q

Adverse Effects of Noise

A

impairment of functional capacity
impairment of the capacity to compensate for additional stress
increased susceptibility to harmful effects of other environmental influences

183
Q

Non-Auditory Effects of Noise

A

stress
psychological effects
behavioral effects
safety concerns

184
Q

Auditory Effects of Noise

A

acoustic trauma

hearing impairment

185
Q

_____ is the increase in the threshold of hearing characterized as having ringing or buzzing sounds in the ear.

A

Hearing Impairment

186
Q

Hearing loss occurs at _____ first.

A

higher frequencies

187
Q

_____ is the most common effect of noise on people.

A

Annoyance

188
Q

Noise level exposure of _____ is the maximum set point at which adverse effects can result.

A

85 dB

189
Q

_____ is the noise present in the workplace.

A

Occupational Noise

190
Q

Occupational Noise:

noise whose sound level peaks are ≤ 1 sec. apart

A

Continuous Type

191
Q

Occupational Noise:

has a steep rise in sound level to a high peak followed by rapid decay with peaks > 1 sec. apart

A

Impulsive Type

192
Q

WHO Recommended Exposure Limit (REL) for Continuous Noise in the Workplace

A

80-85 dB x 8 hours

193
Q

WHO Recommended Exposure Limit (REL) for Impulsive Noise in the Workplace

A

140 dB at any one exposure

194
Q

Effects of Excessive Occupational Noise

A

increased risk for coronary heart disease
hypertension
vibroacoustic disease → airway aggression
cognitive impairment
deficits in performance, attentiveness and problem-solving skills
nervousness
aggression
annoyance
work-related injuries
noise-induced hearing loss

195
Q

_____ accounts for > 16% of disabling hearing loss worldwide.

A

Occupational Noise

196
Q

_____ is the precursor to noise-induced hearing loss which is defined as change in hearing threshold of 10 dB or more at 2000-4000 Hz in either ear.

A

Transient Threshold Shifts

197
Q

DOH has set a permissible noise level of _____.

A

90 dB x 8 hours

198
Q

_____ is the noise derived from leisure activities, many of which are musical in origin.

A

Recreational Noise

199
Q

Determining Factors of the Extent of Noise-Induced Hearing Loss

A 
type of noise
duration of exposure
intensity
type of noise environment
distance from source
physical position
individual suscceptibility
general health
number of other exposures to noise and other ototoxic agents
200
Q

When using a portable music player, the sound is too loud when _____.

A

the volume is > 60% of the maximum
one cannot hear conversations
people nearby can hear one’s music
shouting when talking to other people

201
Q

Set the sound level no more than _____ of the maximum volume for no more than _____.

A

60%, 30 min./day

202
Q

For neonates, the maximum average Day-Night Sound Level (DNL) is _____.

A

55 dB - waking hours

45 dB - nighttime

203
Q

For neonates in hospitals, the maximum average Day-Night Sound Level (DNL) is _____.

A

45 dB - waking hours

35 dB - nighttime

204
Q

At around the _____, the fetus can already perceive, store, and react to auditory information.

A

23-26 weeks AOG

205
Q

The _____ is one of the last systems to develop and is more vulnerable to insults than other older systems.

A

Auditory System

206
Q

_____ hearing develops later and is therefore more vulnerable.

A

High-Frequency

207
Q

The _____ is the target organ of noise.

A

Cochlea

208
Q

Sound in the environment travels to reach the fetus through _____.

A

bone conduction

209
Q

Effects of Noise > 85-90 dB in Pregnant Women

A 
birth defects
low birth weight
IUGR
prematurity
SGA
fetal death
atypical brain development
high freqency hearing loss
210
Q

Effects of Noise on Infants in the NICU

A 
increased HR, RR, BP and ICP
decreased oxygenation
annoyance
confusion
lack of adequate and peaceful sleep
211
Q

Use of CPAP results in damage to the _____ because noise is amplified inside the incubator.

A

cochlea

212
Q

DOH encourages the use of _____ as alternatives to firecrackers and attending _____ rather than personal use of fireworks.

A

noise-making devices

public fireworks displays

213
Q

The obesity epidemic is said to be caused by _____

A 
consumption of high energy and high fat foods
reduced physical activity
increasing urbanization
economic growth
modernization
globalization of food markets
214
Q

_____ was more prevalent in public schools while _____ was more prevalent in private schools.

A

undernutrition - public

overnutrition - private

215
Q

The foods that have been forbidden in childhood may be _____ when the child finally has access to them later on.

A

overconsumed

216
Q

A large fast food meal could contain _____ which would require an entire marathon to burn off.

A

2200 kcal

217
Q

The most common leisure activities of Filipino children aged 8-10 y.o. are _____.

A

playing computer games
reading
watching television

218
Q

Being severely overweight in children is associated with _____.

A 
pseudotumor cerebri
slipped capital femoral epiphysis
steatohepatitis
cholelithiasis
sleep apnea
219
Q

The most significant morbidities for overweight children and adolescents are _____.

A

psychosocial

220
Q

Children have a right to _____.

A 
life
adequate standard of living
parental care and uspport
social security
a name, nationality and identity
information
leisure
recreation
cultural activities
opinion
freedom of thought
conscience
religion
freedom of association
privacy
221
Q

An estimated_____ children around the world engage in child labor with at least _____ working in agriculture.

A

246 million, 70%

222
Q

_____ are the most common workplace hazards.

A

Physical Environment Hazards

223
Q

Physical Hazards

A 
temperature or humidity (most common)
slip/trip fall hazards
noise
radiation
ultraviolet
microwave
pressure
224
Q

RA No. 9231

A

Anti Child Labor Law

225
Q

Anti Child Labor Law Features

A
  1. prohibit the worst forms of child labor
  2. provides for the working hours of children 15-18 y.o.
  3. ownership, usage and administration of the income
  4. trust fund for the child
  5. stiffer penalties
  6. speedy prosecution
226
Q

Worst Forms of Child Labor

A

slavery (Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act of 2003)
prostitution
pornography
illegal activities
hazards to the health, safety and morals of a child

227
Q

The minimum employable age is the Philippines is _____.

A

15 y.o.

228
Q

Children below 15 y.o. are not permitted to work unless _____.

A

they work directly under their parents
they can go to school
the child’s life, safety, health, morals and development are not endangered

229
Q

Children < 15 y.o. are not allowed to work more than _____.

A

4 hours/day, 5 days/week

230
Q

Children 15-18 y.o. are not allowed to work more than _____.

A

8 hours/day

231
Q

Not more than _____ of the child’s income may be used for the collective needs of the family.

A

20%

232
Q

A trust fund must be set up with at least _____ of the child’s wages whose earnings amount to at least P200,000 anually.

A

30%

233
Q

Anti Child Labor Law Penalties

A

P10,000 - P100,000 fine

30 days - 1 year community service

234
Q

Child Labor Definition

A

economic exploitation
likely hazardous
interferes with education
harmful to the child’s health or physical, mental, spiritual, moral or social development

235
Q

Walker-experienced infants scored _____ on Bayley scales of mental and motor development.

A

lower

236
Q

Walker-experienced infants had _____ Denver Developmental Screening Test Results.

A

abnormal

237
Q

Inside a walker, the speed of the infant can reach up to _____.

A

3 feet/sec.

238
Q

Infants riding a walker may be more prone to burns and poisonings due to _____.

A

increased access to the kitchen and other dangerous areas

239
Q

Minor Injuries from Walkers

A 
pinch injuries
abrasions
contusions
lacerations
fractures
soft tissue injuries
240
Q

_____ is the most widely consumed psychoactive substance with 120,000 tons of it consumed anually.

A

Caffeine

241
Q

Caffeine is a _____ and its effects are mediated through its action on the _____.

A

xanthine derivative, cerebral cortex and brainstem

242
Q

At doses of _____, caffeine may increase alertness and wakefulness, faster and clearer flow of thought, better general body coordination, loss of fine motor control and dizziness

A

100-200mg

243
Q

At doses of _____, caffeine can cause restlessness, anxiety, irritability, tremors, sleeplessness, headaches, nausea, diarrhea and abnormal cardiac rhythms.

A

500-600mg

244
Q

Caffeine Poisoning Symptoms

A 
alternating tension-relaxation of muscles
rapid deep breathing
nausea
vomiting
rapid HR
shock
tremors
245
Q

Maximum Caffeine Intake

A

4-6 y.o. - 45 mg/day
7-9 y.o. - 62.5 mg/day
10-12 y.o. - 85 mg/day

246
Q

_____ has the highest caffeine content among soft drinks.

A

Mountain Dew (55 mg/12 oz.)

247
Q

_____ has the highest caffeine content among coffee preparations.

A

drip brewed coffee (135 mg/8 oz.)

248
Q

The Magna Carta of Students requires that school authorities endeavor to provide _____ to students.

A

free annual physical check-ups

249
Q

Purpose of Annual Check-Ups

A

identify the high-risk population

fulfill a public health service role

250
Q

The elements of the medical interview and physical examination prior to issuing a medical certificate are _____.

A 
medical history
immunization status
language, social and adaptive development
height and weight
BP and HR
full physical examination
fine and gross motor development
251
Q

_____ is the major methodology in minimizing surgical complications.

A

Pre-Operative Risk Assessment and Evaluation

252
Q

Pre-operative evaluation is a must for all _____.

A

surgical procedures

medical testing requiring anesthesia

253
Q

All patients undergoing a procedure must undergo pre-operative assessment except for _____.

A

healthy patients requiring nerve blocks, local or topical anesthesia, no more than 50% nitrogen oxide, oxygen and no other sedative or analgesic agents

sedation analgesia or conscious sedation

254
Q

The greatest risk in pediatric surgeries are _____.

A

pulmonary and airway complications

255
Q

High-risk surgical patients are categorized into _____.

A

cardiovascular risk

non-cardiovascular risk

256
Q

_____ is the most important component of the pre-operative evaluation.

A

Medical History

257
Q

Physical examination for pre-operative evaluation must include _____.

A

anthropometrics

full min. HR and RR at sleep

258
Q

Abnormal findings elicited from pre-operative medical history and PE may require _____.

A

further evaluation

laboratory examination

259
Q

Routine Pre-Operative Labs

A

CBC with Hct, diff. ct. an PC

CXR PAL

260
Q

_____, more commonly known as a preparticipation physical evaluation or athletic screening is often asked of an individual who will indulge in sports activities.

A

Sports Clearance

261
Q

Objectives of Sports Clearance

A

detect medical or musculoskeletal conditions
detect potentially life-threatening or disabling conditions
determine general health
assess fitness level and appropriateness for the sport
counsel and educate children in health related issues

262
Q

_____ is the leading cause of sports related sudden death in the US.

A

Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy

263
Q

Cardiovascular History for Athletes

A 
exertional chest pain or discomfort
syncope or near-syncope
shortness of breath
exercise-induced fatigue
murmur
hypertension
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
dilated cardiomyopathy
long QT syndrome
Marfan syndrome
arrhythmias
family history of premature death or significant disability from cardiovascular disease (< 50 y.o.)

Compiled PPS board reviewer (60 decks)

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