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PET Study Guide > practice test 4 > Flashcards

practice test 4 Flashcards

1
Q

what enzyme traps fdg inside the cell?

glucoso-6-phosphatase
hexokinase
isomerase
glut-1

A

hexokinase

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2
Q

the standard uptake value is

the measured activity divided by the body mass

the amount of tracer needed for a particular body weight

the measured activity normalized for body weight/surface area and injected dose

the measured activity within a particular organ divided by the sampled volume

A

the measured activity within a particular organ divided by the sampled volume

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3
Q

the most common site of distant mets in non-small cell lung cancer is

the liver
the spleen
the adrenal glands
the kidneys

A

the adrenal glands

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4
Q

the radiation absorbed dose (rad) of 350 is equal to how many grays?

350,000 gy
35,000 gy
3.5 gy
0.35 gy

A

3.5 gy

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5
Q

how can a patient’s radiation exposure be minimized during fdg pet imaging?

shorter imaging time
collimation
using lead shields
decreasing the administered fdg dose

A

decreasing the administered fdg dose

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6
Q

the most common gastric cancer worldwide is

adenocarcinoma
lymphoma
leiomyosarcoma
squamous cell carcinoma

A

adenocarcinoma

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7
Q

the principal criteria by ct for defining the presence of nodal mets is

size
shape
metabolic activity
presence of calcifications

A

size

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8
Q

fdg pet imaging is not indicated for initial staging in what type of malignancy?

breast cancer
hodgkin’s lymphoma
prostate cancer
lung cancer

A

prostate cancer

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9
Q

the best fdg pet results in epilepsy diagnosis have been obtained in what kind of condition?

epilepsy occurring secondary to brain tumor
epilepsy occurring secondary to arrest of neuronal migration
epilepsy occurring secondary to mesial temporal sclerosis
epilepsy occurring secondary to generalized brain atrophy

A

epilepsy occurring secondary to generalized brain atrophy

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10
Q

convert 13,920 uCi to Ci

0.001392 Ci
0.01392 Ci
1392 Ci
13920 Ci

A

0.01392 Ci

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10
Q

what is the 5 year survival rate for a lung cancer patient with a stage I disease?

71%
61%
51%
41%

A

61%

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11
Q

the most common esophageal cancer worldwide is

squamous cell carcinoma
adenocarcinoma
sarcoma
oat cell carcinoma

A

squamous cell carcinoma

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12
Q

a pet imaging agent for alzheimer’s disease that gained fda approval in 2012 is called

amiloride
amyloid
amyvid
ambien

A

amyvid

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13
Q

the pattern of myocardial blood flow combined with myocardial glucose metabolism in dysfunctional, but viable myocardium, is described as

decreased myocardial blood flow and decreased myocardial glucose metabolism
decreased blood flow and retained glucose metabolism
normal blood flow and decreased glucose metabolism
normal blood flow and retained glucose metabolism

A

decreased blood flow and retained glucose metabolism

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14
Q

in the process of interpretation and analysis of pet/ct images, a study demonstrating a focal, localized disease process, which could not be confirmed as being the cause of the fever of unknown origin or malignancy, is called

false positive
false negative
true negative
true positive

A

false positive

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15
Q

the pattern of fdg uptake/glucose metabolism in patients with alzheimer’s disease is characterized by the presence of

frontal hypometabolism
scattered foci of hypometabolism
occipital hypometabolism
parietotemporal hypometabolism

A

parietotemporal hypometabolism

16
Q

excessive f18 fdg metabolic activity in the thoracic expiratory musculature in patients with copd is observed in

the deltoid muscles
the sternocleidomastoid muscles
the trapezius muscles
the intercostal muscles

A

the intercostal muscles

17
Q

a rise in which of the following markers is suggestive of thyroid cancer recurrence in patients that have had a total thyroidectomy?

tsh
Tg (thyroglobulin)
t4 (thyrotoxin)
trh (thyrotropin releasing hormone)

A

Tg (thyroglobulin)

18
Q

esophageal malignancy associated with barrett’s esophagus is

squamous cell carcinoma
adenocarcinoma
sarcoma
oat cell carcinoma

A

adenocarcinoma

19
Q

how many microcuries is 5.7 MBq?

153,900 uci
153.9 uci
21.09 uci
2.10900 uci

20
Q

which statement describing an epileptogenic region is true?

the characteristic appearance of an epileptogenic region is a relative zonal hyperperfusion on ictal spect

the characteristic appearance of an epileptogenic region is a relative zonal hypoperfusion on ictal spect

the characteristic appearance of an epileptogenic region is a relative zonal hyperperfusion on interictal spect

a pet brain perfusion exam is never useful in the detection of an epileptogenic region

A

the characteristic appearance of an epileptogenic region is a relative zonal hyperperfusion on ictal spect

21
Q

luxury perfusion is characterized by

low cerebral blood flow, low oxygen extraction, and low cerebral oxidative metabolism

high cerebral blood flow, low oxygen extraction, and low cerebral oxidative metabolism

low cerebral blood flow, high oxygen extraction, and low to normal cerebral oxidative metabolism

low cerebral blood flow, high oxygen extraction, and high cerebral oxidative metabolism

A

high cerebral blood flow, low oxygen extraction, and low cerebral oxidative metabolism

22
Q

staging of a lung cancer depends on all of the following except

histologic tumor grade
size of the primary lesion
nodal mets
distant mets

A

histologic tumor grade

23
Q

diaschisis is referred to as

the dilation of lateral ventricles secondary to a lesion obstructing csf flow

the focal increased uptake in an epileptogenic focus with hypermetabolic areas of seizure propagation

the coupled reduction in both the cortical perfusion and metabolism in an area of the brain due to a remote brain lesion

the focal decreased uptake in an epileptogenic focus in interictal spect imaging

A

the coupled reduction in both the cortical perfusion and metabolism in an area of the brain due to a remote brain lesion

24
if a lung cancer tumor size is 2 cm, without invasion of the pleura or main stem bronchus, includes a hypermetabolic lymph node in the contralateral mediastinum, and there are no distant mets, what is the stage of the disease? stage II stage IIIA stage IIIB stage IV
stage IIIB
25
which thyroid cancer may produce calcitonin? papillary follicular medullary anaplastic
medullary
26
stroke penumbra is characterized by low cerebral blood flow, low oxygen extraction, and low cerebral oxidative metabolism high cerebral blood flow, low oxygen extraction, and low cerebral oxidative metabolism low cerebral blood flow, high oxygen extraction, and low to normal cerebral oxidative metabolism low cerebral blood flow, high oxygen extraction, and high cerebral oxidative metabolism
low cerebral blood flow, high oxygen extraction, and low to normal cerebral oxidative metabolism
27
focal thyroid uptake of f18 fdg can occur with graves disease hashimotos thyroiditis endemic goiter autonomously functioning thyroid nodule
autonomously functioning thyroid nodule
28
the design of fdg molecule is based on labeling carbon 2 atom in deoxyglucose with f18 carbon 4 atom in deoxyglucose with f18 carbon 2 atom in glucose with f18 carbon 4 atom in glucose with f18
carbon 2 atom in deoxyglucose with f18
29
according to the percist criteria for treatment response evaluation, the following requirements of pet scans performance have to be met except patients should have been fasting for at least 4-6 hours the measured serum glucose level must be less than 200 mg/dl a baseline pet scan should be obtained at 50-70 min after tracer injection the follow-up scan should be obtained within 30 min of the baseline scan
the follow-up scan should be obtained within 30 min of the baseline scan
30
all of the following are examples of thyroid cancer except papillary hurthle cell anaplastic adenocarcinoma
adenocarcinoma
31
a seizure can be classified as generalized atrophic post-hemorrhagic spontaneous
generalized
32
the most common cancer in men is lung cancer skin cancer lymphoma prostate cancer
prostate cancer
33
the average range of positrons in human tissue for the fda approved rpxs is about 0.6-4 mm 4-5 mm 5-10 mm 1 cm
0.6-4 mm
34
estimates of absorbed organ doses as well as effective doses from nuclear medicine procedures are available from all of the following sources except patient information booklets nuclear medicine textbooks fda required inserts SNM procedure guidelines
patient information booklets
35
the biological tests establish the rpx apyrogenicity purity chemistry osmolality
apyrogenicity
36
to verify that the survey meter has not been contaminated during the preceding operation the technologist should check the background counting rate survey meter battery survey meter constancy of response survey meter accuracy of response
background counting rate
37
the tricuspid valve separates the left atrium from the left ventricles right atrium from the right ventricle left ventricle from the aorta right ventricle from the pulmonary artery
right atrium from the right ventricle

PET Study Guide (19 decks)

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